MIC 102: Genetic Engineering

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Last updated 6:17 AM on 7/24/26
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78 Terms

1
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Q: What is genetic engineering?

A: The deliberate manipulation of DNA to change an organism's genetic material.

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Q: What is recombinant DNA?

A: DNA produced by combining DNA from different sources.

  • Recombinant DNA technology → Introduce, remove, or modify genes in an organism

3
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Q: What is a cloning vector?

A: A DNA molecule used to carry foreign DNA into a host cell.

  • Most commonly used cloning vector → A plasmid

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Q: What is a plasmid?

A: A small, circular, double-stranded DNA molecule that replicates independently of the bacterial chromosome.

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Q: Are plasmids required for bacterial survival?

A: Usually no. They generally carry accessory genes that provide an advantage under certain conditions.

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Q: Examples of genes commonly carried on plasmids.

A: Antibiotic resistance genes, virulence genes, and metabolic genes.

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Q: Why are plasmids useful for genetic engineering?

A: They are easy to manipulate and can carry foreign DNA into bacterial cells.

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Q: What feature allows plasmids to be copied independently of the bacterial chromosome?

A: Their own origin of replication (ori).

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Q: What are restriction enzymes?

A: Enzymes that recognize specific DNA sequences and cut DNA at those sites.

  • “Restriction endonucleases”

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Q: What type of DNA sequences do restriction enzymes recognize?

A: Specific recognition sequences, often palindromic (sequences that can be read the same forward/backwards)

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Q: What is a palindromic DNA sequence?

A: A sequence that reads the same in the 5'→3' direction on both DNA strands.

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Q: Why do bacteria naturally possess restriction enzymes?

A: To defend themselves against invading foreign DNA, such as bacteriophage DNA.

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Q: How do bacteria protect their own DNA from their restriction enzymes?

A: Their DNA is methylated by restriction-modification systems.

  • DNA methyltransferase → Enzyme that methylates bacterial DNA

14
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Q: What is the purpose of DNA methylation in restriction-modification systems?

A: It prevents restriction enzymes from cutting the bacterium's own DNA.

  • If NOT methylated, restriction enzyme would cut bacterium’s own chromosome

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Q: What are sticky ends?

A: Short single-stranded DNA overhangs produced by some restriction enzymes.

  • A: Complementary sticky ends can base pair with one another, making DNA fragments easier to join.

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Q: What are blunt ends?

A: DNA ends produced by straight cuts across both strands with no overhang.

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Q: Which are generally easier to ligate: sticky ends or blunt ends?

Sticky ends → More efficient DNA fragments to be ligated by DNA ligase

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Q: What bond does the enzyme DNA ligase form to join DNA fragments together?

A: A phosphodiester bond in the DNA backbone.

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Q: After restriction digestion and ligation, what has been created?

A: Recombinant DNA.

20
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Q: What three major components are needed to construct recombinant DNA?

  1. Vector (usually a plasmid)

  2. Foreign DNA fragment

  3. DNA ligase

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Q: What is the purpose of cutting both the plasmid and the foreign DNA with the same restriction enzyme?

A: To produce compatible DNA ends that can be joined together by DNA ligase.

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Q: What are the two components of a restriction-modification system?

A: A restriction enzyme and a DNA methyltransferase.

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Q: Which component destroys foreign DNA?

A: The restriction enzyme.

24
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Q: Which component protects host DNA?

A: DNA methyltransferase.

25
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Q: Why doesn't a bacterium digest (“cut”) its own chromosome?

A: Because its recognition sites are methylated.

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Q: What type of DNA is primarily targeted by restriction enzymes?

A: Unmethylated foreign DNA.

27
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Q: What is DNA cloning?

A: Producing many identical copies of a DNA fragment.

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Q: What process introduces recombinant plasmids into bacteria?

A: Transformation → “Funeral pass”

29
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Q: What is a selectable marker?

A: A gene that allows researchers to identify cells that received the plasmid.

  • An antiobiotic resistant gene is the most common selectable marker

30
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Q: Why are antibiotic resistance genes included on cloning plasmids?

A: So only transformed bacteria survive on antibiotic-containing media.

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Q: What happens to bacteria that fail to take up the plasmid when grown on selective media?

A: They die because they lack the resistance gene.

  • Transformed bacteria on selective media → Survive/form colonies

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Q: Does growth on selective media prove that a bacterium contains the correct DNA insert?

A: No. It only shows that the bacterium contains the plasmid.

33
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Q: What is the purpose of PCR?

Polymerase Chain Reaction → Amplify a specific DNA sequence

  • “Amplify” = Make millions of copies of a DNA fragment

34
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Q: Is PCR performed inside living cells?

A: No. PCR is performed in vitro (in a test tube).

  • DNA polymerase carries out DNA synthesis during PCR

35
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Q: Why is a heat-stable DNA polymerase required for PCR?

A: Taq DNA polymerase required, otherwise repeated heating would denature ordinary DNA polymerases.

  • Taq DNA polymerase is heat stable / survives repeated high temp.

36
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Q: What are the five essential components of a PCR reaction?

A:

  1. Template DNA

  2. DNA polymerase (e.g., Taq DNA Polymerase)

  3. Primers

  4. dNTPs (ATP, GTP, etc)

  5. Buffer containing Mg²⁺ (Essential cofactor for DNA polymerase activity)

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Q: What are primers in PCR reaction?

A: Short single-stranded DNA molecules that define the region to be amplified and provide a starting point for DNA polymerase.

  • Two required — One forward primer and one reverse primer

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Q: Why can't DNA polymerase begin DNA synthesis without primers?

A: DNA polymerase can only extend an existing 3′ end; it cannot start DNA synthesis de novo.

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Q: Which PCR component determines the exact DNA region that will be amplified?

A: The primers.

40
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Q: What are the three major steps of one PCR cycle?

  1. Denaturation (92C)

  2. Annealing (approx 60C)

  3. Extension (72C)

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Q: What happens during the denaturation step?

A: 92C → High temperature separates the two DNA strands by breaking hydrogen bonds.

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Q: What happens during the annealing step?

A: 50-65C → Primers bind (hybridize) to complementary DNA sequences.

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Q: What happens during the extension step?

A: 72C → DNA polymerase synthesizes new DNA beginning at each primer.

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Q: During which PCR step does DNA polymerase actually synthesize DNA?

A: Extension

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Q: During which PCR step do primers bind to the template?

Annealing

46
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Q: During which PCR step are the DNA strands separated?

A: Denaturation.

47
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Q: Why is PCR called a "chain reaction"?

A: Newly synthesized DNA molecules become templates in the next cycle, causing exponential amplification.

48
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Q: Does PCR increase DNA linearly or exponentially?

A: Exponentially.

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Q: What are common applications of PCR?

A: DNA cloning, pathogen detection, genetic engineering, DNA sequencing, and forensic analysis.

50
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Q: Why is PCR useful before cloning a gene?

A: It generates many copies of the DNA fragment to be inserted into a vector.

51
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Q: Can PCR amplify an entire genome at once?

A: No. PCR amplifies only the DNA sequence located between the two primers.

52
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Q: Which PCR reagent determines the beginning and end of the amplified DNA fragment?

A: The primers.

53
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Q: Which PCR reagent actually synthesizes the new DNA strand?

A: Taq DNA polymerase.

54
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Q: What would happen if ordinary DNA polymerase were used instead of Taq polymerase?

A: It would become denatured during the high-temperature denaturation step.

55
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Q: What is gel electrophoresis?

A: A technique used to separate DNA fragments according to size.

56
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Q: What property of DNA allows it to move through an electric field?

A: DNA has a negatively charged phosphate backbone.

57
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Q: Toward which electrode does DNA migrate during gel electrophoresis?

A: The positive electrode (anode).

58
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Q: Which DNA fragments migrate farther through the gel?

A: Smaller DNA fragments → Experience less resistance moving through pores of the gel

59
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Q: What is the purpose of an agarose gel?

A: It acts as a molecular sieve that separates DNA fragments by size.

60
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Q: What is a DNA ladder (DNA marker)?

A: A mixture of DNA fragments of known sizes used to estimate the sizes of unknown DNA fragments.

61
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Q: What is the general order of a bacterial cloning experiment?

  • Obtain plasmid

  • Cut DNA with restriction enzyme

  • Cut plasmid with the same restriction enzyme

  • Ligate insert into plasmid

  • Transform bacteria

  • Select transformed cells

  • Grow colonies

62
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Q: What is the primary purpose of PCR?

A: To amplify (make many copies of) a specific DNA sequence.

63
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Q: What is the primary purpose of gel electrophoresis?

A: To separate DNA fragments based on size.

64
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Q: What is selective media?

A: Growth media containing an agent (such as an antibiotic) that allows only certain bacteria to grow.

65
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Q: What characteristic allows transformed bacteria to survive on selective media?

A: They carry the plasmid's antibiotic resistance gene.

66
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Q: Match each technique with its primary purpose:

  • PCR

  • Restriction enzymes

  • DNA ligase

  • Gel electrophoresis

  • PCR → Amplify DNA

  • Restriction enzymes → Cut DNA

  • DNA ligase → Join DNA

  • Gel electrophoresis → Separate DNA fragments by size

67
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Q: What does CRISPR stand for?

A: Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats.

68
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Q: What is the normal biological function of the CRISPR-Cas system?

A: It serves as an adaptive immune system that protects bacteria from invading viruses (bacteriophages).

69
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Q: Which enzyme performs the DNA cutting in the CRISPR-Cas9 system?

A: Cas9

70
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Q: What determines where Cas9 cuts DNA?

A: A guide RNA (gRNA) directs Cas9 to a complementary DNA sequence

  • Provides sequence specificity by base-pairing w/ target DNA

71
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Q: Why is CRISPR-Cas9 considered programmable?

A: Changing the guide RNA changes the DNA sequence that Cas9 targets.

72
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Q: What type of DNA break does Cas9 typically create?

A: A double-stranded DNA break → Cell’s DNA repair mechanisms can be used to disrupt/modify genes after the break

73
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Q: Which system allows targeted genome editing?

A: CRISPR-Cas9.

74
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Q: Match each molecular tool with its primary function.

Tool

Restriction enzyme

DNA ligase

PCR

Gel electrophoresis

CRISPR-Cas9

Function

Cut DNA

Join DNA

Amplify DNA

Separate DNA

Edit DNA

75
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Place these cloning steps in the correct order.

  • Ligation

  • PCR

  • Transformation

  • Restriction digestion

  • Selection

  • PCR (if amplification is needed)

  • Restriction digestion

  • Ligation

  • Transformation

  • Selection

76
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Q: Which natural bacterial process is exploited during molecular cloning?

Transformation

77
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Q: Which step actually creates recombinant DNA?

A: DNA ligase joining the insert to the plasmid.

78
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Q: Which step identifies bacteria that successfully received the plasmid?

A: Selection on antibiotic-containing media.