Learn: Scientific Principles of S&C Exam 2 study guide

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Last updated 5:33 PM on 9/18/26
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122 Terms

1
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The pronated grip is a common grip in resistance training and also called the

Overhand grip.

2
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The snatch event in weightlifting is most likely to use which grip?

Hook grip.

3
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Which of the following is NOT one of the three standard grip widths used in resistance training?

Reverse grip.

4
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Which grip width can be determined using the fist-to-opposite-shoulder method or the elbow-to-elbow method?

Snatch grip.

5
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All of the following are points of contact with the bench or the floor when an athlete is in the five-point body contact position EXCEPT

Right hand.

6
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Which exercises require the five-point body contact position: bench barbell press, incline dumbbell press, standing overhead press, or seated shoulder press?

Bench barbell press, incline dumbbell press, and seated shoulder press.

7
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Ideally, an exercise's range of motion should be _____ of the involved joint.

The full range of motion.

8
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As the bench press exercise is performed, where does the sticking point occur within an athlete's range of motion?

Soon after the transition from the eccentric phase to the concentric phase.

9
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Structural exercises are defined as exercises that

Load the spinal column.

10
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A normal lordotic lumbar spine position is known as

Neutral spine.

11
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The breath-holding period during the Valsalva maneuver should be _____ to _____ seconds at most during the repetition.

1 to 2 seconds.

12
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An athlete performing which workout has the greatest need for a weight belt?

Back squat at 90% 1RM.

13
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Which exercise does NOT require one or more spotters?

Snatch.

14
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During a dumbbell incline bench press, the spotter should be spotting near which anatomical site?

Wrists.

15
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Spotting during the overhead dumbbell triceps extension should require spotting to occur with hands on the dumbbell itself.

True.

16
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Which factor does NOT determine the number of spotters needed for an exercise?

The athlete's confidence. The NSCA factors include the load being lifted, the experience and ability of the athlete and spotters, and the physical strength of the spotters.

17
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Most athletes need just enough help to successfully complete a repetition through

The sticking point.

18
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Which grip is used for the hammer curl exercise?

Closed, neutral grip.

19
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During the downward movement phase of the bench press, the spotter should be using which kind of grip?

Alternated grip.

20
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What are the major muscles involved with the flat dumbbell fly?

Pectoralis major, serratus anterior, and anterior deltoids.

21
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The vertical chest press machine requires the five-point body contact position.

True.

22
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Which is a verbal cue used for the hip sled?

Toes pointed slightly outward with knees in line with the toes.

23
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Which is NOT a common error with the barbell back squat?

Keeping the chest up and head neutral.

24
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During a Zercher squat, the barbell is placed

In the crease of the elbow.

25
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During the step-up exercise, the recommended box height should NOT exceed

12 inches (30 cm).

26
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During the upward and downward phase of the snatch grip Romanian deadlift, the bar should

Be close to the legs but never touch.

27
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Which is a major muscle involved with the leg extension exercise?

Rectus femoris.

28
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Which is NOT part of the proper spotter technique for assisting with the first rep of the seated barbell shoulder press?

Grasping the bar with a closed, alternated grip inside the athlete's hands.

29
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Which is a guideline for proper technique for the first pull of the power clean exercise?

As the bar is raised, keep it as close to the shins as possible.

30
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During the clean pull or snatch grip pull from knee-blocks, where should the shoulders ideally be positioned?

In front of the bar.

31
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Which of the following is NOT a typical benefit of bodyweight training?

It requires specialized equipment.

32
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The farther that an athlete's center of mass is away from the attachment point of a suspension trainer, the lower the resistance the athlete will encounter when doing the inverted row exercise.

False.

33
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Which of the following is the best exercise to train the anatomical core musculature in individuals who want to improve sport performance?

Back squat.

34
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Which of the following is an advantage of machine-based training?

Enhanced ability to target specific muscle groups.

35
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Which of the following does NOT occur when a ground-based free-weight training exercise is performed on an unstable surface?

The need to perform other exercises decreases.

36
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Which of the following exercises is most likely to offer a better core stability and athletic performance training stimulus?

Stable surface Olympic lifts.

37
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Which of the following would benefit an injured athlete more than a healthy uninjured athlete?

Tilt board perturbations.

38
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Which of the following factors is held constant during an accommodating resistance training exercise?

Speed of movement.

39
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Which of the following is an advantage of variable-resistance training?

It matches the changes in joint leverage.

40
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Which of the following are common implements used in variable-loaded resistance training?

Bands and chains.

41
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What should the barbell load be during a 5RM bench press of 300 lb (136 kg) if chains are used that contribute 0 lb at the bottom position and 16 lb (7 kg) at the top position?

284 lb (129 kg).

42
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Eccentric muscle actions can produce up to approximately _____% more force when compared to concentric muscle actions.

50%.

43
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Which of the following devices can be added to a bench press to overload the eccentric phase but disengage so the concentric phase is performed at a submaximal load?

Weight releasers.

44
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Which of the following loading strategies are more advanced and should be reserved for those with more training experience?

Accentuated eccentric loading and chains.

45
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When attempting to potentiate performance during the concentric phase of a plyometric jump, a load of _____% to _____% of body mass should be added to the eccentric phase.

20% to 30%.

46
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The applications of accentuated eccentric load are best suited for all of the following EXCEPT

Chest fly.

47
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Which of the following strategies would NOT be recommended for performing accentuated eccentric loading?

Using AEL on every repetition contained within the set.

48
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Which of the following training interventions can be categorized as a strongman implement?

Logs.

49
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What is the most common injury associated with tire flips?

Biceps tear.

50
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What position in the tire flip is most like the rugby scrum?

Shoulders-against-the-tire.

51
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Which of the following weighted carries best defines a yoke walk?

Carrying a heavy frame on the shoulders.

52
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Which of the following is most important for maintaining stability during loaded carry exercises, regardless of where the load is positioned?

Keeping the load aligned with the athlete's center of mass.

53
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The most common kettlebell exercise is the

Swing.

54
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Which of the following is NOT a difference between cast iron kettlebells and competition kettlebells?

Competition kettlebells are cast iron.

55
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Which of the following kettlebell handle types is best for holding chalk?

Bare steel.

56
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If a strength and conditioning professional wanted to obtain a postactivation potentiation enhancement in their sprinting athlete, the athlete should perform sled pulls approximately _____% of body mass.

75%. Research specifically found a 75% body-mass sled pull produced a potentiating effect on subsequent sprint performance, whereas 150% did not.

57
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Untrained, injured, or weaker athletes often exhibit _____, making unilateral training methods especially beneficial.

Bilateral deficits.

58
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The log clean and press is performed with what kind of grip?

Neutral grip.

59
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Which of the following muscle groups is a major muscle trained during the landmine rotation?

Rectus abdominis.

60
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The single-leg Romanian deadlift can be performed with the weight held in the hand of the same side of the body as the support leg, known as _____, or in the hand of the opposite side of the body as the support leg, known as _____.

Ipsilateral; contralateral

61
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Which of the following best describes the purpose of the needs analysis during the facility design process?

To identify specific space, equipment, and programming requirements aligned with departmental needs.

62
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What does the SWOT analysis provide during the predesign phase of a new facility?

Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.

63
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What is the primary aim of a feasibility study when designing a strength and conditioning facility?

To ensure that financial investments yield viable and sustainable returns.

64
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The inclusion of staff development and a hiring process plan should ideally be which aspect of the predesign phase?

Operational plan.

65
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Note: Staffing and staff development occur during the preoperation phase, while the operational plan is developed during predesign. Given your choices, "operational plan" is the intended answer.

66
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Which of the following is a recommended strategy when designing a small satellite training facility?

Install multipurpose equipment, and keep the center space clear for movement.

67
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Which of the following is a requirement for a minimally compliant strength and conditioning facility?

Compliance with building codes, including accessibility and safety standards.

68
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Which of the following is an important safety consideration for outdoor training spaces?

Ensuring proper traction and monitoring surface temperatures.

69
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Which of the following is the recommended minimum amount of floor space per individual within a strength and conditioning facility?

100 square feet (9.3 m²).

70
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If a strength and conditioning facility is not located on the ground floor, what is the minimum load-bearing capacity required to support heavy equipment and dropped weights?

100 pounds per square foot.

71
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Which of the following is a standard for safe and sufficient access to a strength and conditioning facility?

Rough strips on the edge of each step.

72
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Which of the following is the recommended ceiling height for a strength and conditioning facility?

12 to 14 feet (3.7-4.3 m).

73
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Which of the following is a recommended safety feature for weightlifting platforms in high-traffic strength and conditioning facilities?

Inlaid platforms flush with the floor to reduce tripping hazards.

74
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Which of the following are the optimal temperature and humidity settings, respectively, for a strength and conditioning facility?

68 to 74°F (20-23°C); less than 60% humidity.

75
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To optimally prevent odors and stagnant air, how often should room air be exchanged in a strength and conditioning facility?

8 to 10 times per hour.

76
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What is the recommended maximum sound volume in a strength and conditioning facility to ensure athletes can hear instructions and coaching cues?

90 decibels.

77
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Mirrors in a strength and conditioning facility should be positioned at what minimum distance from any equipment?

6 inches (15 cm).

78
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Ideally, racks should be organized where?

Along the wall.

79
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What is the minimum recommended distance between the ends of racked bars in a strength and conditioning facility?

36 inches (91 cm).

80
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Main walkway areas should be approximately 2 to 4 feet (0.6-1.2 m) in width.

False. Main walkways should generally be about 5 to 7 feet wide.

81
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Stationary circuit training machines should be at least _____ away from each other for safety.

30 inches (76 cm).

82
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Which of the following is the recommended amount of floor space for a treadmill within a strength and conditioning facility?

45 square feet (4.2 m²).

83
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Important: your answer choices say 53 square feet, but the NSCA-derived facility guidelines give 45 square feet. So none of the choices you provided exactly matches the NSCA value.

84
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Which of the following is NOT a recommendation for using suspension training devices?

An attachment point below 6 feet (1.8 m).

85
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In the United States, carabiners used for fall protection must meet OSHA standards, which specify a minimum tensile strength of 5,000 lbs.

True.

86
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If repair for a broken elliptical machine will be delayed, what should the strength and conditioning professional do with the machine during the delay?

Remove the machine from the floor and place it in storage.

87
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When planning the layout of a strength and conditioning facility, which guidelines will optimize traffic flow?

I, III, and IV only.

88
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Exercise surfaces, mats, and pads that contact skin should be cleaned _____ with germicidal cleaner.

Daily.

89
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Which of the following is NOT a recommended flooring safety and maintenance guideline for strength and conditioning facilities?

Moisture and chalk accumulation are acceptable on tile flooring.

90
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Mirrors should be placed a minimum of _____ off the floor in all areas to prevent weight plates from making contact with them.

20 inches (51 cm).

91
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Cleaning and lubricating the guide rods on selectorized resistance training machines should be performed how often?

Two to three times per week.

92
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Removing rust from floor, plates, bars, and equipment with a rust-removing solution should be performed how often?

As needed

93
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Policies in a facility are best described as

The rules and regulations that reflect the program's goals and objectives.

94
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Which of the following should be included in specific policies and procedures for a strength and conditioning facility to protect the program and employees from litigation risk?

Guidelines for supervision, instruction, and emergency action planning.

95
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All of the following are criteria for an effective mission statement EXCEPT

Narrow in scope.

96
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An effective strength and conditioning program should be based on which of the following to enhance performance and increase injury resistance?

Scientific principles tailored to the sport and athlete's position.

97
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Which of the following should be the LEAST likely to guide a strength and conditioning professional's conduct?

Their personal opinion.

98
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Program objectives are important in a strength and conditioning program because they

Specify how program goals will be achieved.

99
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The strength and conditioning director's responsibilities include all of the following EXCEPT

Medically clearing an athlete to return from surgery.

100
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The National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA) Division I adopted legislation "to specify that a strength and conditioning professional shall be certified and maintain current certification through a nationally accredited strength and conditioning certification program."

True.