Orthopedics Week 1

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Last updated 2:58 PM on 9/24/26
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251 Terms

1
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During gastrulation, the epiblast forms embryonic endoderm, intraembryonic mesoderm, and remaining embryonic ____.

ectoderm

2
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Nearly all musculoskeletal tissue is derived from ____.

mesoderm

3
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The three major MSK sources are paraxial mesoderm, lateral plate mesoderm, and ____ cells.

neural crest

4
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The notochord induces the neural tube and nearby mesoderm; its remnant becomes the ____.

nucleus pulposus

5
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Paraxial mesoderm forms somites, which contribute to the axial skeleton, skeletal muscle, and ____.

dermis

6
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Lateral plate mesoderm forms the somatopleure, which contributes to the anterior body wall and ____.

limbs

7
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The sclerotome is induced primarily by ____ from the notochord and ventral neural tube.

Sonic hedgehog (Shh)

8
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The dermomyotome is induced primarily by ____ from the dorsal neural tube and overlying ectoderm.

Wnt

9
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The dermomyotome divides into the myotome and ____.

dermatome

10
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The myotome gives rise primarily to ____ muscle.

skeletal

11
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The dermatome contributes primarily to the ____.

dermis

12
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The sclerotome forms vertebrae and the posterior ribs; its syndetome forms ____.

tendons

13
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The ZPA secretes ____ to establish anterior-posterior limb patterning and digit identity.

Sonic hedgehog (Shh)

14
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The AER secretes ____ to initiate and maintain proximal-distal limb outgrowth.

FGF8

15
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The primary growth stimulus for limb bud formation is ____.

FGF10

16
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HOX genes determine ____ along the body axis, while TBX genes help specify upper versus lower limb.

where the limb bud forms

17
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If the AER fails because FGF8 is not expressed, the result can be ____.

amelia

18
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Digit separation occurs when cells between the digital rays undergo ____.

apoptosis

19
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What is the Lachman test?

A test for ACL insufficiency using anterior tibial translation and endpoint feel.

20
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What is the posterior drawer test?

A test for PCL insufficiency by assessing posterior translation of the tibia.

21
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What is the valgus stress test?

A test for MCL laxity, performed at 0° and 30° of knee flexion.

22
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What is the varus stress test?

A test for LCL laxity, performed at 0° and 30° of knee flexion.

23
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What is McMurray testing?

A meniscal maneuver in which a painful click supports a meniscal tear.

24
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What is patellofemoral pain syndrome?

Anterior knee pain from dysfunction at the patella-trochlea articulation.

25
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What is prepatellar bursitis?

Inflammation/fluid accumulation in the prepatellar bursa, often from kneeling.

26
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What is patellar tendinopathy?

Pathology of the proximal patellar tendon from high tensile load and overuse.

27
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What is a popliteal (Baker) cyst?

A fluid-filled cystic swelling behind the knee, often secondary to joint pathology.

28
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What is osteoarthritis of the knee?

A degenerative joint disorder causing usage-related pain, stiffness, and cartilage loss.

29
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What is a synovial joint?

A joint with a fluid-filled cavity enclosed by fibrous and synovial membranes.

30
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What is an enthesis?

The specialized junction where a tendon, ligament, or capsule inserts into bone.

31
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What is acute compartment syndrome?

A limb-threatening rise in closed-compartment pressure that compromises tissue perfusion.

32
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What is a nonunion?

Failure of a fracture to consolidate by approximately 6–9 months.

33
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What is malunion?

Healing of a fracture in abnormal alignment or position.

34
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Phocomelia is characterized by hands or feet projecting directly from the shoulder or ____.

trunk

35
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Syndactyly results from failure or incomplete ____ between digital rays.

apoptosis

36
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Talipes equinovarus is another name for congenital ____.

clubfoot

37
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The Ottawa knee rules indicate knee x-rays after trauma for age ≥____ years.

55

38
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After traumatic knee injury, isolated patellar tenderness is an indication for ____.

x-rays

39
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A patient unable to bear weight both immediately and in the ED meets an Ottawa knee rule for ____.

x-rays

40
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A non-contact pivot with a sudden pop, swelling, and giving-way strongly suggests an ____ tear.

ACL

41
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The ACL primarily resists ____ translation of the tibia on the femur.

anterior

42
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The two ACL bundles are the anteromedial and ____ bundles.

posterolateral

43
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A Lachman with >10 mm translation is ____ grade.

III

44
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A Lachman endpoint described as absent, soft, or ill-defined is endpoint type ____.

B

45
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A Segond fracture is a bony avulsion of the ____ tibial plateau and is pathognomonic for ACL rupture.

lateral

46
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A fall onto a flexed knee or forced hyperflexion can injure the ____.

PCL

47
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Posterior sag and a positive posterior drawer suggest a ____ tear.

PCL

48
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A valgus force or lateral-to-medial blow most strongly suggests an ____ injury.

MCL

49
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MCL laxity at 30° suggests superficial injury, while laxity at 0° suggests ____ injury.

deep

50
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A varus force with or without hyperextension most strongly suggests an ____ injury.

LCL

51
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A varus thrust gait is associated with ____ injury.

LCL

52
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The unhappy triad consists of ACL, MCL, and ____ injury.

medial meniscus

53
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A twisting injury with the knee flexed and foot planted plus joint-line tenderness suggests a ____ tear.

meniscal

54
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A painful click during McMurray testing is the key positive finding; pain alone is ____.

not the finding

55
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The meniscal vascular zones are red, red-white, and ____.

white

56
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The outer red zone of the meniscus has better healing potential because it has a better ____ supply.

blood

57
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A normal meniscus on T2 MRI appears as a dark ____ triangle.

black

58
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A meniscal tear on T2 MRI requires bright signal to ____ the meniscal surface.

reach/penetrate

59
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Patellofemoral pain syndrome usually causes diffuse ____ knee pain worsened by stairs or squatting.

anterior

60
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Dynamic knee valgus involves knee abduction, femoral adduction, and ankle ____.

eversion

61
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Posterior hip external rotator strengthening is used to address ____ knee valgus biomechanics.

dynamic

62
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Prepatellar bursitis is associated with kneeling, manual labor, and ____ trauma.

penetrating

63
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If infectious prepatellar bursitis is suspected, aspiration can be evaluated with Gram stain and ____ crystals.

urate

64
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Patellar tendinopathy causes focal pain at the ____ patellar tendon.

proximal

65
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Chronic patellar tendinopathy is degenerative and is termed tendin____ rather than tendinitis.

osis

66
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Corticosteroid injection directly into a patellar tendon should be avoided because it can increase risk of ____.

rupture

67
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Patellar subluxation usually occurs in the ____ direction.

lateral

68
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A popliteal cyst is also called a ____ cyst.

Baker

69
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Knee osteoarthritis classically causes usage-related pain and morning stiffness lasting ≤____ minutes.

30

70
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For suspected knee arthritis, the x-ray gold standard uses ____-bearing views.

weight

71
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The Merchant/sunrise view is particularly useful for evaluating the ____ joint.

patellofemoral

72
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A weight-bearing AP knee x-ray is useful because joint-space narrowing is assessed under ____.

load

73
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The Rosenberg view is a weight-bearing, flexed-knee ____ view.

PA

74
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A suspected complex knee problem may require MRI, whereas ultrasound is mainly useful for detecting ____.

effusion

75
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For knee arthritis, severe medial compartment wear produces a ____ deformity.

varus

76
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Severe lateral compartment wear produces a ____ deformity.

valgus

77
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For a meniscus tear, the three diagnostic clues emphasized in the notes are joint-line tenderness, joint-line pain with deep flexion, and ____ test.

McMurray

78
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In a patient over 40 with suspected meniscal pathology, weight-bearing arthritis x-rays should be considered ____.

first

79
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In patients over 70, MRI meniscal tears are common even when patients are ____.

asymptomatic

80
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A locked knee or gross instability from a meniscal problem is treated as a medical ____.

urgency

81
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A synovial joint has a cavity enclosed by an outer fibrous membrane and an inner ____ membrane.

synovial

82
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Fibrous joints are connected primarily by dense ____ connective tissue.

fibrous

83
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Cartilaginous joints are united by ____ tissue.

cartilage

84
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The major function of synovial fluid is to reduce friction and permit ____ movement.

free

85
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Ligaments connect ____ to bone.

bone

86
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Tendons connect ____ to bone.

muscle

87
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Mature articular cartilage is ____ and therefore has very limited healing capacity.

avascular

88
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Flexion decreases the angle between articulating segments; extension ____ that angle.

increases

89
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Abduction moves a limb away from the body's midline; adduction moves it ____ the midline.

toward

90
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External rotation turns a limb away from the body around its vertical axis; internal rotation turns it ____.

toward the midline

91
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Regular exercise helps maintain joint health and can help delay age-related loss of ____.

joint function

92
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Aging is associated with reduced flexibility and progressive ____ of articular cartilage.

degeneration

93
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Acute tendon inflammation is called tendinitis, whereas chronic degenerative tendon pathology is called ____.

tendinosis

94
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The four tendon-continuum stages are reactive overload, tendon dysrepair, degeneration, and macroscopic ____.

rupture

95
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Osteoarthritis is primarily a ____ joint disease, while rheumatoid arthritis is systemic and inflammatory.

degenerative

96
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OA morning stiffness is typically ≤30 minutes; RA morning stiffness is generally ____.

30 minutes / prolonged

97
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Grade I ligament sprain has mild injury with little or no ____.

laxity

98
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Grade II ligament sprain represents a ____ tear with increased laxity but some remaining fibers.

partial

99
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Grade III ligament sprain represents a ____ tear with marked laxity and no firm endpoint.

complete

100
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HVLA is strictly contraindicated across joints with acute Grade ____ or Grade III ligament tears.

II