MSIII Midterm Exam Study Guide

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Last updated 8:12 PM on 6/24/26
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114 Terms

1
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What is the main risk factor for ankle sprains?

History of ankle sprains

2
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During AC separation, the clavicle pops:

Up and back

3
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Most common mechanism of injury for anterior shoulder dislocation:

Fall on an externally rotated arm

4
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Fracture of the anterior rim of the glenoid with the attached labrum

Bony bankart

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Tear of the superior labrum extending from anterior to posterior - may be associated with the long head of the biceps tendon and recurrent anterior stability

Hill-sachs

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Compression fracture of the posterolateral margin of the humeral head

SLAP Lesion

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De Quervain Tenosynovitis (All Peanut Lovers Eat Peanut Butter)

APL and EPB are affected

8
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Ulnar nerve injuries are characterized by a:

Claw hand deformity

9
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The claw hand deformity is a key characteristic of an:

Ulnar nerve injury, lower plexus injury, and Klumpky’s palsy

10
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Median nerve injuries are characterized by:

The Ape hand deformity or benediction sign

11
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What’s the cause of primary frozen shoulder?

No known cause

12
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What’s the cause of secondary frozen shoulder?

A period of pain or immobilization (RA, OA, trauma)

13
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Which patients have a higher likelihood of developing frozen shoulder?

40-65yo, women, diabetes mellitus, and thyroid disease

14
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Which stage of frozen shoulder (adhesive capsulitis) is characterized by pain at night that increases with movement and ER is limited?

Stage 1

15
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Which stage of frozen shoulder (adhesive capsulitis) is characterized by persistent and intense pain at rest and ROM is limited in all directions?

Stage 2

16
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Which stage of frozen shoulder (adhesive capsulitis) is characterized by pain only with movement, significant adhesions, and limited ROM in all directions?

Stage 3

17
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What is a common compensation for patient’s in stage 3 of frozen shoulder?

Excessive scapulothoracic movement

18
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Which stage of frozen shoulder (adhesive capsulitis) is characterized by minimal pain but significant capsular restrictions, motion is gradually improving

Stage 4

19
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Which motions are the most limited with Frozen Shoulder (Adhesive Capsulitis)

ER and abduction

20
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After an MUA surgery for frozen shoulder, which position is often required of pts to sleep in for up to 3 weeks?

Shoulder in passive abduction

21
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Which motions are restricted for post-op glenohumeral arthroplasty pts?

Extension past neutral, and apley internal rotation

22
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What muscle is it important not to stress following a TSA or an RTSA?

Subscapularis

23
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Compromise of the structural integrity of the musculocutaneous structures (vascular changes, collagen degeneration) is known as:

Intrinsic Impingement/rotator cuff disease/tendinopathy

24
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Which type of extrinsic impingement is characterized by an abdnormal acromion shape

Primary extrinsic impingement

25
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Which type of extrinsic impingement syndrome is characterized by hypermobility or instability of GH leading to increased translation of humeral head?

Secondary extrinsic impingement

26
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Which type of extrinsic impingement is characterized by mechanical entrapment of posterior supraspinatus tendon between humeral head & labrum due to repeated elevation, horizontal abduction, maximal ER (throwing position)

Internal extrinsic impingement

27
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Which special tests test for subacromial pain or impingement?

Neer impingement, Hawkin’s kennedy, empty can, painful arc, and anterior apprehension

28
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Which shoulder pathology is associated with an active inflammatory process in the bursa or tendons in the subacromial space?

Tendonitis/bursitis/Tendonalgia/Tenonopathy

29
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Which special tests detect bicipital Tendonitis/Tendonalgia

Speeds test and Yergason’s test

30
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<p>What is this a depiction of? </p>

What is this a depiction of?

Subacromial decompression

31
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Which procedure is designed to restore or increase the volume of the subacromial space

and provide adequate gliding room for the cuff tendons?

Subacromial decompression

32
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If the pt has inferior shoulder instability, what special test will they be positive for?

The sulcus sign

33
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Which direction of shoulder hypermobility/dislocation is due to a posteriorly directed force on distal humerus or forearm when humerus is in a position of elevation, ER, horizontal abduction?

Anterior dislocation

34
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Which direction of shoulder hypermobility/dislocation is due to a force applied to the arm when humerus positioned in flexion, ADD, IR (FOOSH)?

Posterior dislocation

35
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A fracture of the anterior rim of the glenoid with the attached labrum is called a…

Bony bankart

36
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A tear of the Superior Labrum extending from Anterior to Posterior – may be associated with tear of long head of biceps tendon & recurrent anterior instability of GH is called a…

SLAP lesion

37
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A compression fracture at the posterolateral margin of humeral head is called a…

hill-sachs fracture

38
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term image

Bony bankart

39
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What common nerve injury is associated with a humeral neck fracture?

Axillary nerve

40
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What nerve is compressed during a humeral shaft fracture?

Radial nerve

41
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Formation of bone in atypical locations of the body (muscle-tendon unit, capsule, ligaments)

Myositis Ossificans /Heterotopic Ossificans (HO)/ Ectopic Bone Formation

42
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In which scenario is a pt have about a 40% of developing Myositis Ossificans?

After an elbow fracture

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In which bone is it most common to develop Heterotopic Ossificans (HO)?

Brachialis

44
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Which tests would be positive in the presence of lateral elbow tendinopathy?

Mill’s test and Cozen’s test

<p>Mill’s test and Cozen’s test</p>
45
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Which muscles are most commonly involved in lateral epicondylalgia?

ECRB and ED

46
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Which muscles are involved in medial elbow tendinopathy/epicondylagia (golfer’s elbow)

The wrist flexors (common flexor tendon)

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  • Excessive repetitive use of wrist & forearm muscles

  • Strain exceeds of the strength of the tissues when demand EXCEEDS repair process

  • With repetitive trauma, collagen weakening occurs

  • Involved nerves may be sensitized

These are all possible causes/ characteristics of:

Tendinopathy

48
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True/false: Medial and lateral tendinopathy would be good pt scenarios to incorporate ULNT

True

49
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<p>What is the MOI for a Colle’s fracture? </p>

What is the MOI for a Colle’s fracture?

FOOSH

50
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What is the most commonly fractured carpal?

Scaphoid

51
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What is the main concern with a scaphoid fracture?

Avascular necrosis

52
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What is the main sign of a scaphoid fracture?

Tenderness & swelling in the anatomical snuff box

53
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Which muscles are involved is De Quervain Tenosynovitis?

APL and EPB

54
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Pathological breakdown of the tendon structure results from continued or repetitive loading of the involved muscle or tendon beyond its ability to adapt

De Quervain Tenosynovitis

55
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What is the most common ligament injury in the hand?

Thumb UCL sprain (gamekeeper’s thumb)

56
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What is the MOI for a thumb UCL sprain?

Traumatic valgus force to the thumb MCP

57
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What is the most common entrapment neuropathy in the UE?

Carpal tunnel syndrome

58
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Which pathology is characterized by sensory loss and motor weakness that occurs with entrapment of the median nerve?

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

59
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Which tests would be positive for carpal tunnel syndrome?

Phalan’s test and Tinel’s test

<p>Phalan’s test and Tinel’s test</p>
60
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What are the two key element of CRPS?

Disproportionate pain to the inciting incident, no other diagnosis that

explains signs & symptoms

61
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Which type of CRPS is characterized by NO nerve origin and abnormal sweating?

Type 1

62
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Which type of CRPS develops after a nerve injury?

Type 2

63
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What is the main indication that separates and ORIF from a THA?

Extracapsular hip fracture (ORIF) or Intracapsular hip fracture (THA)

64
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What is the underlying pathology that accounts for most total hip procedures?

Osteoarthritis

65
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Which surgical approach to THA has the highest incidence of dislocation?

Posterior/posterolateral

66
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Precautions for posterolateral THA:

Hip flexion >90, IR and adduction past neutral

67
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Which THA approach has a delayed recovery of abductors and normal gait?

Anterior/anterolateral

68
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Anterolateral THA precautions:

Hip flexion >90, extension, ER, and adduction past neutral

69
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“Pain typically presents in the mid-buttock area & may radiate through the sciatic nerve distribution – may also impact hip, coccyx, groin”

This describes:

Piriformis syndrome

70
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“May occur from acute (direct impact) or cumulative trauma (running with repetitive friction between ITB & greater trochanter) the lateral hip irritating the trochanteric bursa”

This describes:

Trochanteric Bursitis

71
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“Displacement of femoral head out of acetabulum – goal of treatment is to brace to reduce femoral head into acetabulum & maintain reduction”

This describes which pediatric pathology?

Congenital Hip Dyslasia

72
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“Portion of femoral head undergoes avascular necrosis →infarcts → necrotic bone absorbed & replaced – gradual & painful onset, relieved by rest & aggravated by WB”

This describes which pediatric pathology?

Legg-calve-perthes disease

73
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“Weakening of epiphyseal plate of upper femur → femoral neck displaces – treat with surgery (removable pins)”

This describes which pediatric pathology?

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

74
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If the patient has a tight IT band, which special test will they be positive for?

Ober test

<p>Ober test</p>
75
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If the patient has a hip flexor contracture, which special test will they be positive for?

Thomas test

<p>Thomas test</p>
76
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If the patient ha a tight rectus femoris, which special test will they be positive for?

Ely Test

<p>Ely Test</p>
77
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Which test will be positive in the case of hamstring contractures?

Tripod test

<p>Tripod test</p>
78
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Which test tests for limitation in general hip ROM?

FABER (Patrick) test

<p>FABER (Patrick) test</p>
79
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Which muscle may be tight/overactive in the case of trochanteric bursitis?

TFL

80
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With Trochanteric Bursitis, when would discomfort be experienced?

Asymmetrical standing

81
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Which type of fixation is most likely to loosen over time?

Cemented

82
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Which type of fixation may be followed by WB restrictions for up to 8 weeks?

Uncemented

83
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No ___ in ___-_____ position for 2 weeks after cemented and 4-6 weeks after uncemented TKA to avoid varus and valgus stressed to the operated knee.

SLRs in side-lying

84
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Embryologic synovial tissue remnant causes joint irritation.

What is this?

Plica Syndrome

85
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Irritation of infrapatellar fat pad from trauma or overuse.

What is this?

Fat Pad Syndrome

86
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Irritation of IT band as it passes over lateral femoral condyle – may be from tight TFL or glute max.

What is this?

IT Band friction syndrome

87
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Which syndrome is caused by prolonged kneeling or recruitment of minor trauma to the anterior knee

Prepatellar bursitis (housemaid’s knee)

88
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Osteochondritis dissecans of patella or femoral trochlea can cause:

Pain with squatting, stooping, ambulation, and stair. Joint may be loose.

89
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What is softening of the cartilaginous posterior surface of the patella called?

Patellar Chondromalacia

90
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Which PF pathology occurs during adolescence from overuse during rapid growth?

Apophysitis / Osgood-Schlatter disease

91
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During recovery from an ACL reconstruction, avoid squatting > __ degrees knee flexion

60

92
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During recovery for ACL reconstruction, avoid resistance on the _____ during hip or quad strengthening + avoid resisted extension < __ degrees

Tibia, 45

93
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After a PCL reconstruction, postpone ____ ___ _____ for 6-12 weeks in prone or standing

Active knee flexion

94
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Which part of the meniscus is the most vasularized/ has the most blood supply?

The lateral/outer portion

<p>The lateral/outer portion </p>
95
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Which special tests test the meniscus?

McMurray and Apley tests

<p>McMurray and Apley tests</p>
96
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Which special tests test the ACL?

Lachman, anterior drawer, and lateral pivot shift

<p>Lachman, anterior drawer, and lateral pivot shift</p>
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Which special tests test the PCL?

Posterior sag sign, and posterior drawer

<p>Posterior sag sign, and posterior drawer</p>
98
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Which special test tests for MCL knee injurie?

Valgus Abduction Stress test

<p>Valgus Abduction Stress test</p>
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Which special test tests for LCL knee injurie?

The Varus Adduction Stress test

<p>The Varus Adduction Stress test</p>
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Which special tests assess for swelling in the knee joint?

The brush test and patellar tap test