PSYC357 Forensic Psychology

0.0(0)
studied byStudied by 0 people
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
Card Sorting

1/183

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Study Analytics
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced

No study sessions yet.

184 Terms

1
New cards

What are the main ideas of Howitt's Preconditions Model of Paedophiles?

Emotional congruence with children (have need to dominate, lack self esteem and psychosocially immature)

Social arousal by children (hormonal imbalance, sexually socialised with child porn)

Blockages preventing adult contact (lack of social skills, regressive sexual socialisation in childhood and issues relating to adults)

Disinhibitions of norms against adult/child sex (senile, alcohol lower inhibitions, incest tolerant subculture)

2
New cards

Q: How does rational choice theory view crime and criminals?

That people are capable of rational decision making so criminals commit crime because they want to and freely choose to.

3
New cards

Q: How does critical thinking patterns theory view crime and criminals?

Criminals have cognitive distortions in the ways they think, primarily owing to entrenched patterns of thinking (belief systems) from early childhood/adolescence. The main cognitive distortions that lead to criminal behaviour centre on increased emphasis of self-centred attitudes, blame externalisation, and entitlement. The criminal commits crime by choice and their own free will. But their decision to do so is influenced by their cognitive distortions. Theory generally rejects sociological and environmental explanations of criminal behaviour.

4
New cards

Q: How does arousal theory view crime and criminals?

Criminals commit crime because of the thrill it gives them. The level of arousal created by stimulation in the environment is argued to explain the kinds of behaviours people will feel compelled to engage in.

5
New cards

Q: How does strain theory view crime and criminals?

Crime and criminals are the result of strain caused by structures in society that separate rich from poor. Poverty leads individuals to feel inadequate and financially deprived as they can't afford to attain the dominant mainstream norms and values (i.e., success is measured by a high paying job, a house, a car, etc. poor people can't afford this so they aren't successful - this creates strain which results in them trying to attain those items by criminal means).

6
New cards

Q: How does social control theory view crime and criminals?

Societal institutions regulate societies behaviour through the creation of social bonds. Laws are obeyed by to maintain social bonds, i.e., attachments to parents, attachment to peers, other social relationships. When social bonds aren't maintained they weaken, leaving little to no constraints on human behaviour. The less constraints there are, the less invested people are in their social bonds and the more likely they are to engage in criminal activity.

7
New cards

Q: What are the two main focus areas in victimology research?

The victim-offender interface.

Measuring the extent of victimisation.

8
New cards

Q: What is the focus of Positivist Victimology?

Predatory crime and burglary.

9
New cards

Q: What specific aspects of a victim does Positivist Victimology focus on?

1. The influences on non-random patterns of victimisation (victim proneness; victim lifestyle).

2. Interpersonal violence.

3. Victim precipitation (victim contribution to their own victimisation).

10
New cards

Q: What is the focus of Radical Victimology?

Power and equality among people and social classes.

11
New cards

Q: What is the focus of Critical Victimology?

The processes of becoming a victim, both in being labelled a victim and being denied that label.

12
New cards

Q: What are the four types of victim behaviour during a crime?

1. Forceful physical resistance.

2. Non-forceful physical resistance.

3. Forceful verbal resistance.

4. Non-forceful verbal resistance.

13
New cards

Q: PTSD is a common consequence of being a victim. What are some common symptoms of PTSD?

Intrusive flashbacks.

Profound depression.

Sleep disturbances.

Oversensitivity to noise.

Paranoia or fear.

14
New cards

Q: What is the definition of a victim?

Persons, individually or collectively, who've suffered harm, physical or mental, emotionally, economically, or substantial impairment of fundamental rights.

15
New cards

Q: What does revictimisation mean?

When a person is victimised more than once over a period of time.

16
New cards

Q: How does restorative justice help to reduce victimisation for the victim?

- It focuses on addressing the harm done to the victim.

- The victim is able to come face to face with the offender if they want.

- Allows victims to ask the offender questions.

- Allows the offender an opportunity to show remorse or offer and apology.

17
New cards

Q: What is the difference between Braithwaite's Disintegrative Shaming and Reintegrative Shaming?

Disintegrative shaming stigmatises and excludes (labelling theory).

Reintegrative shaming expresses social disapproval but then employ processes that seek to reintegrate the offender back into the community.

18
New cards

Q: What is the difference between murder and homicide?

Murder is where there is forethought. Intended to kill the victim.

Homicide is the umbrella term for the killing of one human by another both lawful and unlawful.

19
New cards

Q: Holmes & Holmes (1992) derived two overall types of murder.

a) What are the two types?

b) What differs between them?

a) Mass Murder & Multiple Murder.

b) Mass Murder: the killing of a number of people in the one place at the one time.

Multiple Murder: the killing of a number of people over a period of time.

20
New cards

Q: Holmes & Holmes (1992) described two overall types of murder. One type has two subs types beneath it. Identify and define the two sub types.

Serial Murder: had an emotional cooling off period between kills.

Spree murder: no cooling off between murders.

21
New cards

Q: What are the categorical features of a serial killer?

- Targets victims that match a set of characteristics (specific victim type).

- Motivation is usually intrinsic (for satisfaction rather than for a separate consequence).

- Typically does not want to be caught.

22
New cards

Q: What are the categorical features of a mass murderer?

- Typically do not worry a bout being caught (as the crime is a one off occurrence).

- Do not necessarily need a specific victim type.

23
New cards

Q: Holmes & Holmes (1992) outlines 5 typologies of a mass murderer. What are they?

1. The Disciple

2. The Family Annihilator

3. Pseudocommandos.

4. Disgruntled Employee.

5. Set and Run Killers.

24
New cards

Q: Holmes & Holmes (1992) outlines 5 typologies of a mass murderer. Describe the features of The Disiple typology.

- Follows a charismatic leader.

- Victim selection is done by the leader.

- Instructions to kill are given by the leader.

- Use mostly hand weapons.

- Victims are generally strangers.

25
New cards

Q: Holmes & Holmes (1992) outlines 5 typologies of a mass murderer. Describe the features of The Family Annihilator.

- Kills the entire family at one time

- May include the murder of the family pet

- Killer usually the senior male.

- Killer typically depressed - often with history of abuse and has bouts of great depression

- Motivated by feelings of helplessness; failure and isolation.

26
New cards

Q: Holmes & Holmes (1992) outlines 5 typologies of a mass murderer. Describe the features of Pseudocommandos.

- Preoccupied with weaponry

- Stockpile weapons in the home

- Long period of deliberation and planning before the attack

- Attack is usually to lash out at society.

- No real victim selection process - victims usually result from wrong place wrong time.

- Intrinsic motivation -some inner command or compelling

- Often wish to gain notoriety -infamy

27
New cards

Q: Holmes & Holmes (1992) outlines 5 typologies of a mass murderer. Describe the features of the Disgruntled Employee.

- Former Employee that was dismissed or placed on some form of medical leave or disability leave.

- Suffering a great personal injustice - beyond their control

- Often severe psychological problems.

- Selects a specific workplace - but will kill anyone in the vicinity

- Often lives in the same community as the company they worked for.

28
New cards

Q: Holmes & Holmes (1992) outlines 5 typologies of a mass murderer. Describe the features of the Set and Run Killer.

- Motive is typically revenge.

- Mean could be arson; tampering with food or medication products (needles in strawberries).

- Plans for escape before the attack - flees the scene

- Does not directly observe outcomes of their actions

- No specific victim selection.

- Motivation could be: monetary gain OR revenge motive (psychological gain).

29
New cards

Q: What are the models of domestic and family violence?

1. Single Perpetrator Model: partner A beats partner B and child.

2. Sequential Perpetrator Model: partner A beats partner B, then partner B beats the child.

3. Dual Perpetrator: partner A and partner B beat the child.

30
New cards

Q: What is coercive control?

A form of abuse involving repeated patterns of abusive behaviour - which can be physical, sexual, psychological, emotional, or financial abuse. The cumulative effect is to rob the victim of their autonomy and independence.

31
New cards

Q: What are the 4 legal element that reflect a stalker and cyber stalker?

Bonus points if you can identify the four clinical characteristics too.

1. Knowing and willful -with malicious intent (at least 3 times)

2. Specific Person -not a generalist

3. Person is perceived as threatened in eyes of the victim

4. Serves no legitimate purpose

Bonus:

a) Approx. chance they are unemployed.

b) Approx. half have a criminal history.

c) History of failed relationships.

d) Obsessions may be an attempt to ward off feelings of depression and loneliness.

32
New cards

Q: Mullen et al. (2006) identified 5 different stalking typologies. What are they?

a) Rejected Stalker

b) Resentful Stalker

c) The Intimacy Seeker Stalker

d) The Incompetent Suitor Stalker

e) The Predatory Stalker

33
New cards

Q: Mullen et al. (2006) identified 5 different stalking typologies. What are the context, victim, initial motivational, and sustaining motivational characteristics of the Rejected Stalker?

Context: Usually in the breakdown of a close relationship.

Victim: Overwhelmingly, victims of rejected stalkers is someone who was in a relationship with them. This can also be the breakdown of a very close relationship (family, friends). In rare cases, it can be the breakdown of a long-term therapeutic relationship with a therapist.

Initial Motivation: Breakup has just happened and the stalker wants to talk/reconcile.

Sustaining Motivation: The stalking starts to compensate for intimacy/closeness.

34
New cards

Q: Mullen et al. (2006) identified 5 different stalking typologies. What are the context, victim, initial motivational, and sustaining motivational characteristics of the Resentful Stalker?

Context: Emerges where the stalker feels they have been exposed to injustice or humiliation.

Victim: Someone who has attracted the stalker's enmity by their own actions or by being seen as a representative of an oppressing group.

Initial Motivation: The desire for revenge.

Sustaining Motivation: The satisfying sense of power and control that comes from harassing the victim. The stalker's sense of satisfaction is made particularly sweet by the novelty of the experience of for once feeling dominant and in control. The Resentful Stalker almost invariably feels justified in their actions and presents themselves as a victim fighting back against more powerful aggressors.

35
New cards

Q: Mullen et al. (2006) identified 5 different stalking typologies. What are the context, victim, initial motivational, and sustaining motivational characteristics of the Intimacy Seeking Stalker?

Context: Loneliness or a lack of love or connivance.

Victim: Stranger (public figure or causal contact) or acquaintance (e.g., professional, casual or workplace contact, or a neighbour).

Initial Motivation: To establish an intimate relationship.

Sustaining Motivation: The fantasised or delusional relationship becomes a substitute for a real relationship. The gratification comes from the sense of being in love, or believing oneself to have a friend, rather than the victim's actual behaviour.

36
New cards

Q: Mullen et al. (2006) identified 5 different stalking typologies. What are the context, victim, initial motivational, and sustaining motivational characteristics of the Incompetent Suitor Stalker?

Context: The stalking emerges in the context of loneliness or lust.

Victim: Strangers or acquaintances.

Initial Motivation: To establish contact, usually with a stranger, that they hope will lead to a friendship or a sexual relationship. Approaches tend to be crude an d insistent, individual is either indifferent or blind to the signs of disinterest or even distress their approaches evoke.

Sustaining Motivation: The lack of positive responses from the target of their unwanted attentions...

37
New cards

Q: Mullen et al. (2006) identified 5 different stalking typologies. What are the context, victim, initial motivational, and sustaining motivational characteristics of the Predatory Stalker?

Context: Deviant sexual interests and unusual practices.

Victim: Strangers, usually a female or a child who has stimulated their sexual interest. Just occasionally, a public figure or a contact that has attracted their murderous rage.

Initial Motivation: To gain information and prepare for an attack, usually sexual.

Sustaining Motivation: The pleasures obtained from the voyeurism; the rehearsal in fantasy of the coming attack whilst watching the victim; the sense of power derived from knowing their fate while the victim remains blissfully ignorant and helpless to prevent the oncoming disaster.

38
New cards

Q: What are the defining characteristics of a sociopath?

- Not typically able to function productively in society.

- Tend to be volatile, easily agitated, and prone to violence.

39
New cards

Q: What are the defining characteristics of a psychopath?

- Inability to feel emotion and attachment.

- Ability to mimic emotions.

- Tendency to be educated and hold stead jobs.

40
New cards

Q: Cleckley (1941/1988) and Karpman (1948) identified characteristics of Primary and Secondary psychopaths. What are the characteristics for a Primary Psychopath?

Shallow affect.

Callousness

Manipulative

Superficial charm

41
New cards

Q: Cleckley (1941/1988) and Karpman (1948) identified characteristics of Primary and Secondary psychopaths. What are the characteristics for a Secondary Psychopath?

Impulsive.

Lack of long-term goals.

Hostile behaviour/aggressive/violent.

High negativity.

42
New cards

Q: List the DSM-V criteria for Antisocial Personality Disorder.

Pervasive pattern of disregard for and violation of the rights of other since age 15 - in addition with 3 or more of:

- Repeated failure to conform to social-legal norms.

- Deceitfulness for personal profit or pleasure.

- Impulsivity.

- Irritability or aggressiveness.

- Reckless disregard for the safety of self or other.

- Consistent irresponsibility.

- Lack of remorse.

43
New cards

Q: What are the types of crime juvenile offenders commonly commit?

- Property crimes (vandalism/graffiti).

- Theft.

- Burglary.

- Sexual Assault.

44
New cards

Q: What does doli incapax mean?

Incapable of forming the necessary criminal intent.

45
New cards

Q: What types of problematic parenting are criminogenic factors for juveniles in their childhood?

- Role modelling of criminal behaviours

- Role modelling of dysfunctional coping behaviours

- Inconsistent parenting and punishments

- Abuse; cold; parental rejection; inadequate supervision; lack of affection; lack of parental involvement.

46
New cards

Q: What are Bowlby's (1988) 4 attachment styles?

Secure attachment

Anxious-ambivalent (resistant) attachment

Avoidant attachment

Disorganised attachment

47
New cards

Q: What are the 3 elements of the lifespan retrieval curve that effect memory retrieval for life events?

- Retention: time since event. There is more detail in memories for recent events.

- Childhood Amnesia: Sparse early memories, typically in the first few years of life.

- Reminiscence Bump: heightened period of recollection during adolescence and early adulthood.

48
New cards

Q: How do you effectively recover traumatic memories?

A: Most therapists use techniques such as trauma-focused cognitive behavioural therapy

49
New cards

Q: What did Freud see repression as?

A: It is a defence mechanism of the brain.

50
New cards

Q: Why were self-help books problematic in the 80/90's?

A: They persuaded many people that their psychological problems were due to repressed memories of abuse.

51
New cards

Q: Dangerous therapies tend to follow a typical chain of events when a recovered memory about abuse comes out. What are those events?

- Priori assumptions regarding abuse.

- Confirmation biases/ specific hypothesis testing

- Plausibility enhancing "evidence"

- Adopting and confirming belief in abuse

52
New cards

Q: When a true repressed memory (not a false/made up one) is recovered, the Three-Pronged Evidence Approach is used to verify its authenticity. What evidence does the Three-Pronged Evidence Approach require for a recovered repressed memory to be verified?

- Evidence that the abuse did take place (medical logs, witness).

- That the memory was forgotten and inaccessible for some time.

- That the memory was later remembered.

53
New cards

Q: What are the 3 types of repressed memory studies?

- Retrospective Studies.

- Prospective Studies.

- Case Studies.

54
New cards

Q: What are the 3 pieces of evidence given to showcase the existence of false memories?

- Impossibility of occurring psychologically, biologically, geographically, or factually.

- Retractors: allegations retracted due to their memory being incorrect.

- Laboratory Research: showcasing non-experienced events can be easily implanted.

55
New cards

Q: What is the "misinformation effect"?

Misleading information is provided to an individual that then influences that individuals memory of a previous event resulting in them potentially remembering the event incorrectly.

56
New cards

Q: What is required to implant a false memory into someone?

1. The Suggestion of the memory.

2. Either Plausibility, Belief, and/or Memory Construction,

3. Source Monitoring Error: the source information is forgotten resulting in true belief the false memory occurred.

57
New cards

Q: What 4 things increase the likelihood of an individual believing and adopting a suggested false memory?

1. Photos (fake and true ones)

2. Imagination inflation

3. The Media

4. Plausibility and script knowledge

58
New cards

Q: Define sexual assault

A person is forced, coerced or tricked into sexual acts against their will or without their consent, or if a child or young person under 18 is exposed to sexual activities.

59
New cards

Q: Define sexual harassment

Any unwanted, unwelcome or uninvited behaviour of a sexual nature which a person should expect will make the recipient feel humiliated, intimidated or offended.

60
New cards

Q: How are sex offenders different to other offenders?

Aetiology

Antecedents

Causes

Patterns of offending

61
New cards

Q: What are the 2 types of peadophillic disorder?

- Exclusive (to children)

- Non-exclusive (to children - can be attracted to adults too).

62
New cards

Q: What are the 3 conceptually distinct models of sex offenders?

1. General deviancy model - sexual offending occuring as a part of their general offending.

2. Specialist model of sex offenders - commits only sex crimes.

3. Specialisation within sex offending - specific victim type.

63
New cards

Q: How does the General Theory of Crime perspective (Gottfreson & Firschi, 1990) explain sexual offending and what trait is at the heart of its model?

Sex offending is manifestation of a broader and more pervasive antisocial character which involves both crime and other behaviours.

Low self control.

64
New cards

Q: What are the 6 rapist typologies?

- Power-reassurance

- Power-assertive rapist

- Anger retaliatory

- Anger excitement

- Gang Rape

- Opportunistic Rapists

65
New cards

Q: What is the definition, motivation and MO of the Power-Reassurance Rapist typology?

Define: Referred to as the gentleman rapist. Most common rapist and least violent. Takes souvenirs of the crime.

Motivation: reassure his masculinity, elevate his self-esteem and does not 'intend' to hurt victim

MO: minimal force, pre-selects victim, method of rape always the same, surprise attack, attacks in set location, victim lives near the rapist home or work

66
New cards

Q: What is the definition, motivation and MO of the Power Assertive Rapist typology?

Definition: Initially friendly but fighting causes violence to escalate.

Motivation: Wants to dominate victim to feel powerful.

MO: Chooses specific places/times for attack. Subjects victim to repeated sexual assaults.

67
New cards

Q: What is the definition, motivation and MO of the Anger Retaliation Rapist typology?

Define: Generally high levels of misplaced anger towards victim.

Motivation: to punish his victim/victim type.

MO: Includes degrading acts within the assault. They see the assault as a message of others. Leaves body behind if victim dies.

68
New cards

Q: What is the definition, motivation and MO of the Anger Excitement Rapist typology?

Define: Initially charming, very intelligent but is a sadist.

Motivation: Sexually gratified from victims suffering.

MO: Assault includes torture, inflicting physical and psychological pain, meticulously planned, typically lethal to the victim, and likely to hide the body.

69
New cards

Q: What is the definition, motivation and MO of the Gang Rapists typology?

There is little research regarding details of gang rape typology.

Some evidence for:

- A group leader.

- Victims and Offenders typically younger.

70
New cards

Q: What is the definition, motivation and MO of the Opportunistic Rapist typology?

Define: not pre-planned.

Motivation: sexual.

MO: rape is an afterthought usually during them committing another crime - the opportunity presence itself.

71
New cards

Q: Sexual offenders are a compilation of what 6 influences?

Biological, developmental, environmental, cultural, individual vulnerabilities, situational factors

72
New cards

Q: What are the 3 elements of Neuropsychological issues in rapists?

A:1.Motivation/Emotion: Impaired emotional control, poor emotional recognition, intimacy and attachment problems.

2. Action Selection and Control: Self-regulation problems-impulsivity, failure to inhibit negative emotions, poor problem solving

3. Perception and Memory: Cognitive distortions, attitudes and problematic interpretations of social encounters.

73
New cards

Q: What are some ecological dimensions of risk re sex offenders?

A: Adverse social/cultural circumstances, personal circumstances, physical environments confronted through life, exposure to antisocial models and learning maladaptive ways of solving problems

74
New cards

Define rape myths

The belief that the actions of the victim or their characteristics makes them complicit in their own rape:

-Alcohol

-Dress

-Place

75
New cards

Q: What is the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for Paedophilic Disorder?

A: Over a period of at least 6 months, recurrent, intense sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviors involving sexual activity with a prepubescent child or children (generally age 13 years or younger).

The individual has acted on these sexual urges, or the sexual urges or fantasies cause marked distress or interpersonal difficulty.

The individual is at least age 16 years and at least 5 years older than the child or children in Criterion A.

76
New cards

Q: Freud's psychosexual development theory classifies child molesters into 2 categories. What are they?

1. Fixated: Not matured beyond child sexual interests and so remain attracted to children as sexual objects.

Adult relationships not well developed.

Rarely married.

Victims tend to be strangers and/or acquaintances.

Will try to form 'trusting' relationships with victims.

2. Regressed:

Matured sexually to adult levels, but regressed back to child levels of sexual interests.

Often married; have had adult sexual relations.

Victims often friends/relatives (incestual).

May target a woman to get close to her children.

Will also target children outside current relationships and rape women.

77
New cards

Q: What are Howitt's 4 models of paedophiles?

1. Preconditions model

2. Psychotherapeutic / cognitive model

3. Sexualisation model

4. Pathways model

78
New cards

Q: What are the main ideas of Howitt's Psychotherapeutic/Cognitive Model of Paedophiles?

- Cognitive & behavioural steps involved in offending:

- Cognitive distortions / distorted thinking

- Grooming

- Planning through fantasy

- Denial - Can take several form

79
New cards

Q: What are the main ideas of Howitts Sexualisation Model of Pedophiles?

Paedophilic behaviours = a sexual orientation caused by early sexual experiences.

Victims of childhood sexual abuse

Reshapes norms and expectations of child-adult sexual relationships

BUT not all abused children become abusers themselves

80
New cards

Q: What are the main ideas of Howitts Pathways Model of Pedophiles? includes predisposing factors, proximal factors and 4 psychological mechanisms

Distal factors:

Predisposing factors

- Genetic

- Childhood development

- Long-term

Proximal factors:

- Environmental factors: Act on distal factors to encourage offending (triggers)

Four psychological mechanisms:

1. Intimacy & social skills deficits

2. Sexual scripts

3. Emotional dysregulation

4. Cognitive distortions

81
New cards

Q: There are 4 main types of Female Sex Offenders - what are they?

1. The young assaulter

2. The young rapist - Both of these usually are young solo offenders

3. Psychologically disturbed co-offender

4. Passive mother (usually older women) - Mostly abuse their own children with their male/intimate partner.

82
New cards

Q: What's the difference between Lie of Commission vs Lies of Omission?

- Lies of Commission = telling lies

- Lies of Omission = withholding truth

83
New cards

Q: What are the 4 components of deception?

1. It is deliberate

2. Occurs without prior warning

3. Is from the point of view of the liar (only they know if they are lying or not, and about what)

4. Involves at least 2 people

84
New cards

Q: Why can't most people tell when they're being lied to? 3 reasons.

1. Beliefs about lying - thinking that non-verbal cues will betray when someone is lying

2. Truth bias - we think people are telling us the truth most of the time

3. Over estimate our own abilities in telling when someone is lying

85
New cards

Q: Human lie detectors vulnerable to 2 common errors, what are they?

1. Othello Error: Physiological signs mistaken for guilt & lying, but could also be invoked by fear or stress.

eg: nervousness = fidgeting and sweating -but NOT because they are lying

2. The Idiosyncrasy error:

Failure to take into account individual differences in people and situations

eg: reduced eye contact may mean they are shy or from a culture where eye contact is disrespectful

86
New cards

Q: What are the 7 verbal characteristics that can indicate lying?

1. Negative statements

2. Plausible answers

3. Unsolicited irrelevant information

4. Over-generalised statements -never, everybody

5. Self-references - I would never lie to you, I'm an honest person

6. Direct answers

7. Response length - too short or too long

87
New cards

Q: What are the 2 principle components that can happen when lying?

1. Emotional response

- guilt, anxiety, fear, excitement

2. Cognitive load

- Lying can increase cognitive load -complexity of formulating & maintaining lying

88
New cards

Q: What are the 2 control approaches liars use?

1. Attempted behavioural control approach

- Liars will fail to show the emotions they pretend to experience in order to project an honest impression (emotional leakage)

2. Self presentation approach

- attempt to come across as an honest person

89
New cards

Q: What are the 3 things lie detection relies on?

1. Emotions - indications of anxiety or guilt

2. Cognitive Load - lying takes effort and concentration

3. Control - trying to behave normally

90
New cards

Q: What 3 things do polygraphs measure?

1. Blood pressure

2. Respiration rate

3. Galvanic skin reflex (GSR) -sweating

91
New cards

Q: How does the Relevant/Irrelevant Question Test work? And why is it problematic?

- 1st ask irrelevant question (truth is known) "Is today Monday?" the response = baseline for truth telling

- Then ask relevant question (usually related to the offence)

A lying person => stronger reaction to relevant question

- BUT being accused of any criminal activity can result in anxiety = sympathetic response = LIAR

- High number of false positives - innocent people accused of lying.

92
New cards

Q: How does the Control Question Test (CQT) work and why is it problematic?

1. Ask Relevant 'hot' questions -"Did you drive the getaway car?" Innocent people = reduced ANS response -truth

Guilty people = stronger ANS reactions -lying

2. Ask Irrelevant 'cold' questions -"Is your full name John Samuel Smith?"

3. Ask Control questions -"When you were a child, did you ever take anything that didn't belong to you?"

Control questions = basis for lying

- CQT was vulnerable to false positives -unacceptable - some studies say 50% of false positives

93
New cards

Q: How does the Guilty Knowledge Test (GKT) work and why is it problematic?

Multiple choice -derived from actual crime eg: "what weapon was used?"

A) knife; B) hatchet; C) gun; D) piece of 2 x 4

- Only one alternative correct -actual crime

- Only the guilty will know = increased ANS response

PROBLEMS:

- Questions -limited to those only suspect & examiner know answers to

- A person can still have knowledge of the crime -but be innocent of it

- Answers -limited to those an innocent person will NOT know which is difficult with broad media coverage of serious crimes

- Still false positives between 20 - 42%

94
New cards

Q: What are the 5 problematic assumptions of polygraphs?

1. Assumes that lying will result in physiological responses that can be measured, whereas truth-telling will not

2. Assumes everyone will respond to accusations of guilt or innocence

3. Assumes physiological changes = lying

4. Assumes examiners are objective

5. Assumes that the polygraph is right

95
New cards

Q: Truth detection methods: What are the 3 main elements of Statement Reality/Validity Analysis (SVA)? And what is it's main problem?

1. A structured interview

2. A criteria-based content analysis (CBCA)

- assesses contents against 19 criteria

3. Validity Checklist

- Evaluation of the CBCA analysis

Problem: heavily reliant on subjective judgement

96
New cards

What is the Strategic Use of Evidence technique (SUE)? and what is the main problem?

- Strategic Level (interview planning)

- Interviewer carefully plans -strategy to use incriminating evidence

- Guilty person will not voluntarily divulge any information that may link them to this fingerprint

- Tactical Level (when to present information & confrontation)

uInterviewer, at the end, confronts discrepancies in the statement

- This increases cognitive load on the liar

- Problems:

1. Extensive training required -but no guarantee of accuracy

2. Time and resource consuming

97
New cards

Q: What is the main issue with risk assessments?

It is depended upon the mental health professionals ability to make valid predictions regarding future antisocial conduct by the offender.

98
New cards

Q: What are the four major views of incarceration within risk assessment?

Isolation.

Punishment.

Deterrence.

Rehabilitation.

99
New cards

Q: Why is it important for risk assessments to take into account both the individuals strengths and weaknesses?

As mental health professionals can refer back to those when working with the individual to have the most positive outcome.

100
New cards

Q: What aspects of the individual are taken into account in a risk assessment?

History and Background.

Social Context.

Mental Health.

State of Mind.

Situational Triggers.

Substance Abuse.