Exam 2 study guide (simplified)

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Last updated 3:55 AM on 6/4/26
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155 Terms

1
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What organelles make up the endomembrane system?

ER, Golgi, endosomes, lysosomes, vesicles, plasma membrane.

2
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Rough ER is specialized for what?

Protein synthesis/processing.

3
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What are the four major processes of Smooth ER?

Drug detoxification, carbohydrate metabolism, calcium storage, steroid biosynthesis.

4
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What organelle modifies and sorts proteins after ER processing?

Golgi apparatus.

5
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What is the cis face of the Golgi oriented toward?

ER.

6
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What is the trans face of the Golgi responsible for?

Final sorting and trafficking.

7
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Lysosomes maintain what type of internal environment?

Acidic.

8
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Lysosomes primarily function in what process?

Macromolecule degradation.

9
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What is anterograde transport?

ER → Golgi → plasma membrane.

10
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What is retrograde transport?

Golgi → ER.

11
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COPII vesicles mediate what transport direction?

ER → Golgi.

12
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COPI vesicles mediate what transport direction?

Golgi → ER.

13
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Clathrin-coated vesicles are most associated with what processes?

Endocytosis and TGN trafficking.

14
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A defective COPII protein would MOST likely cause accumulation of proteins in what organelle?

ER.

15
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Why do cells use distinct vesicle coats?

Maintain compartmentalization and trafficking specificity.

16
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What recognizes ER signal sequences?

SRP (signal recognition particle).

17
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SRP brings ribosomes to what structure?

ER translocon/Sec61.

18
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Secreted proteins are synthesized on what type of ER?

Rough ER.

19
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What happens if SRP cannot bind signal sequences?

Secretory proteins remain in cytosol.

20
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What does a stop-transfer sequence do?

Anchors protein in membrane.

21
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Internal start-transfer sequences are used by what proteins?

Membrane proteins lacking N-terminal signal sequence.

22
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What is the function of KDEL tags?

Retrieval of ER proteins from Golgi.

23
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Mannose-6-phosphate targets proteins to what organelle?

Lysosome.

24
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KDEL and M6P are similar because they both what?

Bind receptors for trafficking/sorting.

25
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Constitutive secretion occurs how?

Continuous/unregulated.

26
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Regulated secretion requires what?

External signal.

27
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Neurotransmitter release is what type of secretion?

Regulated secretion.

28
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Receptor-mediated endocytosis uses what coat protein?

Clathrin.

29
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What proteins help form clathrin-coated pits?

Clathrin, adaptor proteins, dynamin.

30
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Dynamin functions in what step?

Vesicle pinching/scission.

31
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Phagocytosis internalizes what?

Solid particles.

32
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Pinocytosis internalizes what?

Liquids.

33
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v-SNAREs are located where?

Vesicle membrane.

34
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t-SNAREs are located where?

Target membrane.

35
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Rab GTPases function in what process?

Vesicle targeting/tethering.

36
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NSF and SNAPs function in what?

SNARE complex disassembly.

37
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A protein lacks an ER signal sequence. Where will it remain?

Cytosol.

38
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A protein is constitutively secreted. What vesicles must it pass through?

Anterograde vesicles.

39
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If retrograde transport failed, what proteins would be affected?

KDEL-tagged ER proteins.

40
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Neurons do what?

Transmit electrical signals.

41
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Glial cells function mainly in what?

Support/protection.

42
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Which cells form CNS myelin?

Oligodendrocytes.

43
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Which cells form PNS myelin?

Schwann cells.

44
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Resting membrane potential is normally positive or negative?

Negative.

45
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K⁺ concentration is highest where?

Inside cell.

46
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Na⁺ concentration is highest where?

Outside cell.

47
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The Na⁺/K⁺ pump moves how many Na⁺ out and K⁺ in?

3 Na⁺ out, 2 K⁺ in.

48
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Depolarization is mainly caused by movement of what ion?

Na⁺ influx.

49
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Repolarization is mainly caused by movement of what ion?

K⁺ efflux.

50
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Hyperpolarization occurs because what permeability remains high?

K⁺ permeability.

51
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Voltage-gated Na⁺ channels are responsible for what phase?

Depolarization.

52
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Voltage-gated K⁺ channels are responsible for what phase?

Repolarization.

53
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During absolute refractory period, Na⁺ channels are what?

Inactivated.

54
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Why can APs only move one direction?

Refractory periods.

55
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Saltatory conduction occurs in what type of axons?

Myelinated axons.

56
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APs "jump" between what structures?

Nodes of Ranvier.

57
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Neurotransmitters are released from what structure?

Synaptic bouton.

58
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Neurotransmitter release is triggered by influx of what ion?

Ca²⁺.

59
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Synaptotagmin binds what ion?

Ca²⁺.

60
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GABA is excitatory or inhibitory?

Inhibitory.

61
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Glutamate is excitatory or inhibitory?

Excitatory.

62
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Increased Cl⁻ permeability causes what effect?

Hyperpolarization/decreased excitability.

63
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Blocking voltage-gated Na⁺ channels would impair what?

Action potential propagation.

64
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Preventing Na⁺ channel inactivation would cause what?

Prolonged depolarization.

65
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What distance does endocrine signaling act over?

Long range.

66
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What distance does paracrine signaling act over?

Short range.

67
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What cell does autocrine signaling affect?

Same cell producing signal.

68
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How many transmembrane helices do GPCRs contain?

Seven.

69
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What are G proteins active when bound to?

GTP.

70
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What are G proteins inactive when bound to?

GDP.

71
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What enzyme does Gs activate?

Adenylyl cyclase.

72
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What second messenger does adenylyl cyclase produce?

cAMP.

73
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What kinase does cAMP activate?

PKA.

74
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What lipid does PLC cleave?

PIP2.

75
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What two second messengers does PLC generate?

IP3 and DAG.

76
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What ion does IP3 stimulate release of from the ER?

Ca²⁺.

77
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What kinase do DAG and Ca²⁺ activate?

PKC.

78
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What amino acid do RTKs phosphorylate?

Tyrosine.

79
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How do RTKs activate?

Dimerization/autophosphorylation.

80
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What is Ras active when bound to?

GTP.

81
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What kinase cascade does Ras activate?

MAPK cascade.

82
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What would a mutation preventing GTP hydrolysis by Gα cause?

Constitutive signaling.

83
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What second messenger decreases when blocking adenylyl cyclase?

cAMP.

84
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What second messengers decrease when blocking PLC?

IP3 and DAG.

85
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What are the three major cytoskeletal systems?

Microtubules, microfilaments, intermediate filaments.

86
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What proteins are MT subunits composed of?

α/β-tubulin heterodimers.

87
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What nucleotide is required for MT assembly?

GTP.

88
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Which MT end grows faster?

Plus end.

89
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What is treadmilling?

Addition at plus end/removal at minus end.

90
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What is dynamic instability?

Alternating growth/shrinkage.

91
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What is the MT shrinkage phase called?

Catastrophe.

92
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What is the return to growth phase called?

Rescue.

93
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What functions in MT nucleation?

γ-tubulin.

94
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What type of structure are centrosomes?

MTOCs.

95
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What does colchicine do?

Prevents MT assembly.

96
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What does taxol do?

Stabilizes MTs.

97
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What MT end do kinesins move toward?

Plus end.

98
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What MT end do dyneins move toward?

Minus end.

99
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What direction does kinesin mediate axonal transport?

Anterograde.

100
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What direction does dynein mediate axonal transport?

Retrograde.