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Which of the following is a pre-labour sign?
a. Full cervical dilation
b. Onset of regular contractions
c. Nesting and lightening
d. Placental delivery
Nesting and lightening
The latent phase of the first stage of labour is best described by:
a. Rapid cervical dilation from 4–10 cm
b. Delivery of the fetus
c. Cervical dilation of 0–3 cm with more effacement than dilation
d. Strong pushing contractions
Cervical dilation of 0-3cm with more effacement than dilation
The active phase of labour is characterized by:
a. Cervical dilation slowing down
b. Delivery of the placenta
c. Contractions becoming irregular
d. Rapid dilation and fetal descent
Rapid dilation and fetal descent
The second stage of labour begins with:
a. Cervix 4 cm dilated
b. Delivery of the placenta
c. Full cervical dilation
d. Regular Braxton Hicks contractions
Full cervical dilation
What event marks the third stage of labour?
a. Birth of the baby
b. Delivery of the placenta
c. Complete effacement
d. Onset of contractions
Birth of baby
During the fourth stage of labour, nursing priorities include:
a. Vaginal exams every 15 minutes
b. Preparing for a C-section
c. Stabilizing the birthing person
d. Initiating artificial rupture of membranes
Stabilizing the birthing person
A patient reports increased vaginal discharge and back pain. These symptoms most likely indicate:
a. Postpartum hemorrhage
b. False labour
c. Pre-labour
d. Placental abruption
Pre-labour
One key reason nurses assess amniotic fluid status after ROM is to:
a. Evaluate dilation
b. Confirm GTPAL score
c. Ensure fetal well-being
d. Rule out infection immediately
Ensure fetal well-being
Which of the following supports the onset of labour?
a. Full bladder
b. Inactivity
c. Cervical ripening and fetal descent
d. Breech presentation
Cervical ripening and fetal descent
What is the gold standard for confirming ROM?
a. Cervical dilation
b. Nitrazine or ferning test
c. Leopold's maneuver
d. Blood pressure change
Nitrazine or ferning test
What fetal heart rate is considered normal during labour?
a. 90–120 bpm
b. 110–160 bpm
c. 150–180 bpm
d. 130–180 bpm
110-160 bpm
What is resting tone in uterine monitoring?
a. Contraction strength
b. Time between contractions when uterus relaxes
c. Uterine rupture risk
d. Position of fetus
Time between contractions when uterus relaxes
Frequency of contractions is measured from:
a. End of one to start of the next
b. Peak to peak
c. Start of one to start of the next
d. Start to end of the same contraction
Start of one to start of the next
Effacement refers to:
a. Cervical softening
b. Cervical thinning, measured in percent
c. Descent of the fetus
d. Opening of the cervix in cm
Cervical thinning, measured in percent
A station of 0 indicates the fetal presenting part is:
a. Above the ischial spines
b. At the level of the ischial spines
c. Engaged in the pelvic inlet
d. Visible at the perineum
At the level of the ischial spines
Which of the following is a non-invasive way to monitor fetal heart rate?
a. Internal scalp electrode
b. External tocodynamometer
c. Intermittent auscultation with Doppler
d. Continuous intrauterine pressure catheter
Intermittent auscultation with Doppler
Leopold's maneuvers are used to:
a. Measure cervical dilation
b. Assess fetal presentation and position
c. Time contractions
d. Perform ROM
Assess fetal presentation and position
What assessment tool is used to monitor uterine contraction intensity?
a. Blood pressure cuff
b. Palpation and client description
c. Amniotic fluid COAT
d. Ultrasound
Palpation and client description
The most appropriate setting for a healthy pregnancy in pre-labour is:
a. In-patient unit
b. Hospital delivery suite
c. At home
d. Emergency department
At home
Which of the following is NOT assessed during a vaginal exam?
a. Fetal station
b. Effacement
c. Cervical dilation
d. Fetal heart rate
Fetal heart rate
Which factor most strongly impacts a birthing person’s comfort level?
a. Cervical dilation
b. Partner support and sense of control
c. Fetal station
d. Stage of labour
Partner support and sense of control
Which is a non-pharmacological intervention for labour comfort?
a. Morphine
b. Epidural
c. Effleurage
d. Nitrous oxide
Effleurage
What is the purpose of counterpressure during labour?
a. Induce contractions
b. Promote fetal descent
c. Alleviate back labour pain
d. Slow labour progression
Alleviate back labour pain
What is an appropriate nursing response when a labouring client expresses pain?
a. Encourage silence
b. Acknowledge discomfort and offer support
c. Tell them pain is normal and will go away
d. Delay intervention until fully dilated
Acknowledge discomfort and offer support
Pharmacological options for labour pain include all EXCEPT:
a. Acetaminophen
b. Nitrous oxide
c. Massage therapy
d. Epidural
Massage therapy
Imagery and visualization are used in labour to:
a. Increase uterine tone
b. Distract and promote relaxation
c. Monitor fetal descent
d. Measure contractions
Distract and promote relaxation
When a nurse provides warm compresses and supports breathing techniques, they are:
a. Promoting placental expulsion
b. Applying pharmacological therapy
c. Using evidence-based comfort strategies
d. Conducting fetal monitoring
Using evidence-based comfort strategies
Which of the following is part of COAT assessment for amniotic fluid?
a. Opacity
b. Appearance
c. Amount
d. Timing of contractions
Amount
Which intervention supports mother-baby friendly care?
a. Delayed skin-to-skin
b. Keeping infant in nursery
c. Immediate breastfeeding initiation
d. Routine formula feeding
Immediate breastfeeding initiation
The WHO’s 10 steps for respectful birthing care include:
a. Routine restriction of food and fluids
b. Use of verbal motivation to reduce pain
c. Freedom of movement and choice of birth partner
d. Early discharge regardless of mother’s condition
Freedom of movement and choice of birth partner
The second stage of labour begins with:
a. Cervical dilation of 4 cm
b. Complete cervical dilation and effacement
c. Delivery of the placenta
d. Onset of Braxton Hicks contractions
Complete cervical dilation and effacement
What characterizes the passive phase of the second stage of labour?
a. Intense pushing with every contraction
b. Waiting for a surgical team
c. Allowing the fetus to descend naturally
d. Delivering the placenta
Allowing the fetus to descend naturally
Encouraging the birthing person to push only when they feel the urge promotes:
a. Prolonged labour
b. Closed-glottis pushing
c. Open-glottis pushing
d. More use of epidurals
Open-glottis pushing
Closed-glottis pushing is associated with:
a. Improved fetal oxygenation
b. Decreased maternal fatigue
c. Increased risk of fetal hypoxia
d. Better pelvic floor outcomes
Increased risk of fetal hypoxia
Which nursing action is appropriate during the second stage of labour?
a. Encourage directed pushing
b. Administer oxytocin
c. Offer position changes and verbal support
d. Perform fetal delivery
Offer position changes and verbal support
A burning sensation during delivery of the head is likely due to:
a. Ruptured membranes
b. Perineal stretching
c. Contraction intensity
d. Breech presentation
Perineal stretching
What is a nursing priority during the delivery of the fetus?
a. Telling the birthing person to push harder
b. Inspecting the placenta
c. Promoting comfort with warm compresses
d. Delivering the baby
Promoting comfort with warm compresses
What should the nurse do immediately after visualizing the fetal head?
a. Prepare for placenta delivery
b. Tell the birthing person to hold their breath
c. Encourage relaxed breathing
d. Begin suturing
Encourage relaxed breathing
During the second stage, who confirms full dilation?
a. Nurse practitioner
b. Nursing student
c. Trained healthcare provider
d. Respiratory therapist
trained healthcare provider
What is one key reason for avoiding frequent vaginal exams during labour?
a. Increased fetal movement
b. Risk of infection
c. Cost of equipment
d. It is unnecessary
Risk of infection
Which of the following birth positions should be used?
a. Supine only
b. Lithotomy only
c. The one chosen by the birthing person when possible
d. Whatever is easiest for the provider
The one chosen by the birthing person when possible
Which cardinal movement occurs first during vaginal birth?
a. Internal rotation
b. Extension
c. Engagement and descent
d. External rotation
Engagement and descent
What is the nurse’s scope of practice during delivery of the fetus?
a. Cut the umbilical cord
b. Deliver the fetus
c. Promote comfort and explain what is happening
d. Inspect and suture the perineum
Promote comfort and explain what is happening
The most appropriate documentation during second stage labour includes:
a. Equipment location
b. Frequency of hospital meals
c. Fetal heart rate, contractions, and support provided
d. Newborn feeding plans
Fetal heart rate, contractions, and support provided
After delivery, the nurse should immediately:
a. Remove the baby to a warmer
b. Apply oxygen to the mother
c. Encourage skin-to-skin contact
d. Begin fundal massage
Encourage skin to skin contact
What natural trigger helps deliver the placenta?
a. Caffeine
b. Uterine rupture
c. Release of oxytocin
d. Supine positioning
Release of oxytocin
Skin-to-skin contact, breastfeeding, and nipple stimulation all:
a. Slow placenta delivery
b. Prevent postpartum depression
c. Stimulate oxytocin release
d. Increase risk of hemorrhage
Stimulate oxytocin release
Who is responsible for repairing the perineum after birth?
a. Nurse
b. Nurse practitioner
c. Delivering healthcare provider
d. Midwife assistant
Delivering healthcare provider
What is the typical time frame for placental delivery?
a. Within 5 minutes
b. 30–60 minutes
c. Within 15 minutes
d. Immediately after birth
Within 15 minutes
What might be a culturally sensitive question related to placenta care?
a. "Would you like us to dispose of the placenta for you?"
b. "Do you plan to ingest the placenta?"
c. "Are there any traditions you'd like to observe related to the placenta?"
d. "Do you know what the placenta is used for?"
Are there any traditions youd like to observe related to placenta
What is a traditional practice in some cultures regarding the placenta?
a. Cremation
b. Discarding it immediately
c. Burying it with ceremony
d. Storing it in the freezer for years
Burying it with ceremony
The fourth stage of labour begins with:
a. Cervical dilation
b. Delivery of the placenta
c. Rupture of membranes
d. Return of menstruation
Delivery of placenta
Which vital assessment is part of immediate postpartum care?
a. Fetal station
b. Bishop score
c. Fundus and lochia
d. GTPAL
Fundus and lochia
During the fourth stage, nurses must assess for:
a. Ectopic pregnancy
b. PROM
c. Postpartum hemorrhage
d. Breech position
Postpartum hemorrhage
How often should vital signs be assessed during the immediate postpartum period?
a. Once every shift
b. Only if the mother is symptomatic
c. Frequently, as per protocol (e.g., every 15 minutes)
d. After baby’s first feeding
Frequently, as per protocol
A priority nursing intervention before first ambulation postpartum is to:
a. Check blood glucose
b. Measure intake/output
c. Assess orthostatic hypotension risk
d. Apply abdominal binder
Assess orthostatic hypotension risk
A nurse is assessing the lochia and finds heavy bleeding with clots. What is the best initial response?
a. Document and reassess in 2 hours
b. Massage the fundus and call for assistance
c. Start IV fluids immediately
d. Administer pitocin
Massage the fundus and call for assistance
What is fundal assessment primarily evaluating?
a. Cervical position
b. Uterine tone and location
c. Fetal descent
d. Placental shape
Uterine tone and location
What is the expected fundal location immediately postpartum?
a. Two fingers below the umbilicus
b. At the symphysis pubis
c. At or just below the umbilicus
d. Midline thoracic area
At or just below the umbilicus
Why is bonding and breastfeeding encouraged in the fourth stage of labour?
a. It keeps the baby awake
b. It prevents maternal fever
c. It promotes oxytocin release and maternal-infant connection
d. It replaces pain medications
It promotes oxytocin release and maternal-infant connection