WGU D116 Advanced Pharmacology Unit 3 MASTERY GUIDE 2025: Neuropharmacology & Autonomic Nervous System – 93 Expert-Curated Q&A with Detailed Rationales, Drug Mechanisms, and Clinical Toxicology Applications

A patient asks his provider to explain what drug tolerance means.

The provider responds by telling the patient that when tolerance occurs, it means the patient __________.

may need increased amounts of the drug over time

When tolerance develops, a dose increase may be needed because a decreased response may occur with prolonged use

A group of nursing students asks a nurse to explain the blood-brain barrier.

The nurse would be correct to say that the blood-brain barrier __________.

Prevents some potentially toxic substances from crossing into the central nervous system

Infants are more sensitive to CNS drugs and require lower doses

Prevents highly ionized and protein-bound drugs from entering

Allows lipid-soluble drugs drugs and drugs that use specific transport systems to enter

A pregnant patient is in premature labor.

Which class of drug will she be given?

Beta 2 agonist (helper)

Part of the peripheral adrenergic receptor subtypes (epi/norepi)

Beta2 agonists cause relaxation of the uterine muscles, slowing or stopping the contractions that precipitate labor

Beta2 ANTagonist would increase constriction of the uterine muscles

What type of drug class has effects on the heart and arterioles?

Alpha1 agonist

Anticcholinergic drugs are given for what effects?

Urinary and GI tracts

They do not affect the urine muscles

A nurse is explaining the activation of beta-2 receptors to nursing students during a clinical rotation at the hospital.

Which statement by a student demonstrates a need for further teaching?

"Beta2 activation results in contraction of the uterine muscles"

Beta2 activation DOES result in vasodilation of skeletal muscles, bronchodilation, and glycogenolysis, and RELAXATION of uterine muscles

A provider is teaching a patient about a medication that alters the sympathetic nervous system functions. To evaluate understanding, the provider asks the patient to describe which functions the sympathetic nervous system regulates.

Which answer indicates the need for further teaching?

"The digestive functions of the body"

All apart of the sympathetic nervous system:

1. fight or flight

2. cardiovascular system

3. body temperature

A patient is experiencing toxic side effects from atropine, including delirium and hallucinations.

Which medication will the provider ask the nurse to administer?

Physostigmine (Mestinon, Regonol)

Drug of choice for treating poisoning from atropine and other drugs that cause muscarinic blockage ie: atropine (Muscarinic Antagonist)

What drug is used to treat Alzheimer's Disease?

Donepezil

A patient who has myasthenia gravis will be taking neostigmine.

What should the nurse emphasize when teaching this patient about the medication?

Take a supplementary dose before exercise

You have ordered pilocarpine. You understand that the drug stimulates muscarinic receptors.

Which action would you expect the drug to have?

Lowering of intraocular pressure in pts with glaucoma

Also used to treat dry mouth because it increases salivary glands "Rest and digest"

Muscarinic agents are related to parasympathetic response

You are teaching a nursing student about the two classes of adrenergic agonist drugs.

Which statement by the nursing student indicates understanding of the teaching?

Catecholamines often require continuous infusion to be effective

Catecholamines undergo rapid degradtion by monoamine oxidase MAO and COMT. Brief duration of action and continuous IV to be effective

They DO NOT cross the BBB, noncatecholamines do

Noncatecholamines can be given orally but catehcholamines can not

Because they cause vasoconstriction, alpha1-adrenergic agonists are especially useful for __________.

causing hemostasis in skin and mucous membranes

Example is epinephrine

These agents can increase BP but are not the primary drug used except in emergency situations

A nursing student asks you why epinephrine, and no other adrenergic agonists, is used to treat anaphylactic shock.

What will you tell the student?

Epinephrine has the ability to activate multiple types of adrenergic receptors

Beta 1 receptors increase CO and BP

Beta 2 receptors increase bronchodilation

Alpha 1 receptors causes vasoconstriction and increases HR and BP

Dopamine is administered to a patient who has been experiencing hypotensive episodes.

Other than an increase in blood pressure, which indicator would the nurse use to evaluate a successful response?

Increase in urine output because of the increase in cardiac output which was a result of the increase in BP

A patient is taking a beta-adrenergic antagonist medication for angina pectoris and asks the nurse how the drug works to relieve the discomfort associated with this condition.

Which statement by the patient after the nurse's teaching indicates understanding of the drug's effects?

Helps reduce the heart's oxygen needs

Blocking beta 1 receptors in the heart reduces cardiac work by reducing HR, force of contraction, and the velocity of impulse through the AV node

Beta blockers results in bronchoconstriction

CO decreased

A male patient is being treated for benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) and has stopped taking his alpha-adrenergic antagonist medication because of ejaculatory difficulties.

Which medication should you prescribe?

Alfuzosin

Does not interfere with ejaculation

What is true about phentolamine?

Acts on both alpha 1 and alpha 2 receptors

Blocks both epi and norepi mediated vasoconstriction

Alpha-Adrenergic antagonist!

Used to prevent tissue necrosis

Side effects are tachycardia and hypotension

What happens when alpha-adrenergic antagonists are administered?

Cardiac output is decreased as a result of the venous dilation cause by those drugs

Alpha-adrenergic antagonists block alpha 1 receptors on arterioles and veins

Venous dilation indirectly lowers arterial pressure

Arteriole dilation has a direct effect on arterial pressure

A patient has been taking clonidine for several weeks and complains of drowsiness and constipation. What should the nurse do?

Recommend the pt take most of the daily dose at bedtime

CNS depression and constipation are common side effects

Taking med at bedtime minimizes daytime sedation

Do not abruptly stop clonidine as it can cause rebound hypertension

A nurse is teaching a patient about a new prescription for reserpine for hypertension. Which statement by the patient indicates the need for further teaching?

"Depressive side effects are common and will improve over time"

Causes sever depression which may presist for months during therapy and after the drug is withdrawn

Can cause ulcers by stimulating the secretion of gastric acids

Can cause orthostatic hypotension

A nurse provides teaching for a patient with a newly diagnosed partial complex seizure disorder who is about to begin therapy with antiepileptic drugs (AEDs).

Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching?

"Even with an accurate dx of my seizures, it may be difficult to find an effective drug"

Many pt will have to try different antiepileptic drugs (AEDs)

A nurse is teaching a group of nurses about Parkinson medications. The nurse is correct to state that one side effect associated with pramipexole that is less likely to occur with other dopamine agonists is which of the following?

Sleep attacks

Few patients experience sleep attacks

Dizziness, hallucinations, and dyskinesias are side effects to be expected

A nursing student wants to know why a patient who has been taking levodopa for years will now receive carbidopa. As the provider, you explain the reasons that levodopa as a single agent is no longer available.

Which statement by the student indicates a need for further education?

"Combination products causes fewer dyskinesias and decreases psychosis"

Adding carbidopa to levodopa DOES NOT reduce the incidence of dyskinesias or psychosis

Carbidopa increases the availability of levodopa in the CNS

Carbidopa reduces the incidence of NV

Combination of products reduces peripheral cardiovascular side effects

A patient with Parkinson disease is taking carbidopa. The prescriber orders bromocriptine to treat dyskinesias. The nurse notes that the patient is agitated, and the patient reports having frequent nightmares.The nurse should contact the provider to discuss which of the following?

reducing the dose of bromocriptine

Used to treat levodopa-induced dyskinesias and has dose-dependent psychologic side effects

A hospitalized patient with Parkinson disease who is receiving apomorphine to treat episodes develops nausea and vomiting. As the patient's provider, the nurse should discuss the use of which medication with you?

Trimethobenzamide

Serotonin receptor agonists (ondansetron) and dopamine receptor antagonists (prochlorperazine) cannot be used because they increase the risk of serious postural hypotension

Giving levodopa would only increase N and V

A patient will begin taking a cholinesterase inhibitor for early Alzheimer disease. The provider is teaching the patient's spouse about the medication.

Which statement by the spouse indicates a need for further teaching?

"This drug significantly slows the progression of the disease"

Cholinesterase inhibitors produce modest improvements and may slightly delay the progression

GI symptoms are common

Cholinesterase inhibitors help neurons that are not already damaged to function better

People taking cholinesterase inhibitors should avoid taking antihistamines because they block cholinergic receptors and reduce therapeutic effects

A nurse is preparing to administer memantine to a patient and notes a slight elevation in the patient's creatinine clearance level.

What should the nurse order for this patient?

Reduce the dose

Patients with renal impairment will need a dose reduction

A nurse is caring for an older adult patient who has Alzheimer disease. The patient is taking a cholinesterase inhibitor drug. Which side effects should concern the nurse?

Slowed heart rate, low appetite, weight loss, and lightheadedness

Cardiovascular effects of cholinesterase inhibitor drugs are uncommon but cause the most concern

Dizziness, ha, n/vn and d, are all expected side effects

A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the use of memantine for Alzheimer disease (AD). Which statement by a student indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Memantine modulates the effects of glutamate to alter calcium influx into neurons

Used for moderate to severe AD

Only affects the influx of calcium

A patient with a form of epilepsy that may have spontaneous remission has been taking an antiepileptic drug (AED) for a year. The patient reports being seizure free for six months and asks the nurse when the drug can be discontinued.

What should the nurse tell the patient?

Withdraw the drug over a six to twelve week period

Need to be withdrawn slowly

AEDs do not need to be atken for life

A patient who has a seizure disorder is admitted to the hospital after an increase in seizure frequency, and the prescriber orders 100 mg of carbamazepine twice daily to be added to the patient's medication regimen. As you review the patient's medical history, you see in the notes that the patient is already taking 375 mg of lamotrigine twice daily.

Which action should you consider?

Increase the lamotrigine dose to 500 mg twice daily

Carbamazepine induces hepatic drug-metabolizing enzymes and can increase the rate at which lamotrigine and other drugs are metabolized which is why the dose needs to be increased

A patient who is taking oral contraceptives begins taking valproic acid for seizures. After a week of therapy with valproic acid, the patient tells the nurse that she is experiencing nausea. What should the nurse do?

Ask the pt if she is taking the valporic acid with food because taking the drug on an empty stomach can cause gastrointestinal side effects as well as nv, indigestion

Hyperammonemia can occur when valproic acid is combined with topiramate (AEDs, and also to prevent migraine headaches)

The provider counsels a patient who is to begin taking phenytoin for epilepsy. Which statement by the patient indicates an understanding of the teaching?

I should brush and floss my teeth regularly

Gingival hyperplasia can occur with phenytoin can be minimized with good oral hygiene

Rashes can be serious and should be reported immediately

Which patient should receive dantrolene with caution?

A 55 year old woman with MS

Dose-related liver damage is the most serious adverse effect of dantrolene and is most common in women older than 35 years old.

Dantrolene is used to treat spasticity associated with MS, cerebral palsy, and spinal cord injury

Which of the following medications would you prescribe for home use that has the lowest potential for adverse effects and abuse?

cyclobenzaprine (flexeril)

Not a scheduled substance and does not have a black box warning for hepatotoxicity

A nurse is caring for a patient in the immediate postoperative period after surgery in which a spinal anesthetic was used. The patient has not voided and complains of a headache. The patient has a pulse of 62 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 92/48 mm Hg.

Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

Lower the head of the bed to a ten-to fifteen-degree head-down position

Spinal anesthetics have several adverse effects, but the most significant is hypotension caused by the venous dilations that occurs from a blockage of sympathetic nerves.

Ephedrine and phenylephrine is used if the first measure fails

Spinal headaches are common

Concern if pt has not void after 8 hours

A patient receives an epidural anesthetic during labor and delivery. You put in the order for the nurse caring for the newborn in the immediate postpartum period and ask the nurse to observe the infant for which of the following?

Bradycardia

Local anesthetics can cross the placenta, causing bradycardia and CNA depression in infant

They do not affect blood glucose

Vasoconstrictors are combined with local anesthetics for which reasons?

To reduce the risk of toxicity

To prolong anesthesia

They DO NOT speed up the absorption process, prevent bradycardia, or shorten the duration of action

A patient who has biliary colic reports a pain level of 8 on a 1 to 10 pain scale with 10 being the most severe pain. The patient has an order for ibuprofen as needed for pain.

Which action by the nurse is correct?

request an order for meperidine

Opioids can induce spasm of the common bile duct and can cause biliary colic, morphine may intensity the pain

Meperidine causes less smooth muscle spasm

A patient with chronic pain has been receiving morphine sulfate but now has decreased pain. The prescriber changes the medication to pentazocine.

The nurse should monitor the patient for which of the following?

Yawning and sweating

Pentazocine is an agonist/antagonist opioid, and when given with a pt who is dependent on morphine can precipitate withdrawal

Yawning and sweating are early signs of opioid withdrawal

Which drug can properly be described as a partial opiate agonist?

Buprenorphine which is an opiate agonist/antagonist otherwise known as a partial opiate agonist

What is naltrexone?

An opiate antagonist

What is tramadol?

Centrally acting analgesic

What is naloxone?

Opiate antagonist

Which medications are used to treat menstrually associated migraines (MAM)?

Estrogen, frovatriptan, naproxen

A patient on the unit complains of cluster headaches. A new graduate nurse is asked to differentiate between a migraine headache and cluster headaches.

The graduate nurse is correct to state that manifestations and risk factors for a patient with cluster headaches include which of the following?

More common in males

Short in duration

Present as throbbing and piercing pain

Migraines: more common in females, n/v, have an aura

When the patient reaches the hospital, you want to administer a serotonin receptor agonist. What should be your largest concern?

Coronary vasospasm

Pt is already hypertensive

A patient with schizophrenia has been taking an oral first-generation antipsychotic (FGA) for one week. The patient has been taking the drug daily in two divided doses. The individual complains of daytime drowsiness. The patient's family reports a decrease in the person's hostility and anxiety but states that the patient remains antisocial with disordered thinking.

What should you tell the patient and family?

Some symptoms take months to improve

When pts begin therapy with antipsychotic medications, some symptoms resolve sooner than others.

A patient who is taking a first-generation antipsychotic (FGA) drug for schizophrenia comes to the clinic for evaluation. The nurse observes that the patient has a shuffling gait and mild tremors. The nurse communicates this observation to you (the provider).

What should be your course of action?

Give an anticholinergic medication

Patient is showing signs of parkinsonism which is an extrapyramidal effect associated with antipsychotic meds.

You provide a teaching moment for a patient about to begin taking a first-generation antipsychotic (FGA) drug for schizophrenia. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching about side effects of these drugs?

"Dry mouth and constipation are uncommon with this medication"

Anticholinergic effects are common with FGAs,

Neuroendocrine effects, orthostatic hypertension, and sedation can occur with FGAs

A patient has been taking a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant for major depression and reports having headaches and jaw pain. What should you tell the patient?

Bruxism is a side effect of SSRIs which results in headaches and jaw pain

Headaches and jaw pain are not s/s of extrapyramidal side effects

A patient is diagnosed with major depression with severe symptoms and begins taking an antidepressant medication. Three weeks after beginning therapy, the patient tells the nurse that the drug is not working.

The nurse should counsel this patient to ask the provider about which of the following?

Using nondrug therapies to augment the medication

Drug needs to be used to four to eight weeks before its efficacy can be assessed

A patient taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) is seen in the clinic with a blood pressure of 170/96 mm Hg. What should the nurse ask this patient?

To list all foods eaten that day

Pts taking MAOIs need to follow strict dietary restrictions and avoid all foods containing tyramine

Can experience a hypertensive crisis if they do

A patient who has recently begun taking carbamazepine for bipolar disorder reports having vertigo and headaches. Which action by the nurse is appropriate?

Reassure the patient that these side effects occur early in treatment and will resolve over time

A patient with bipolar disorder takes lamotrigine. Which statement by the patient would prompt the nurse to hold the drug and notify the prescriber for further assessment?

"I've broken out in a rash on my chest and back"

This could indicate the development of steven johnson syndrome

Dizziness and headaches are side effects of lamotrigine, they are not life-threatening

A patient who travels frequently for business reports occasional instances of being unable to fall asleep. The patient tells the provider that job demands require staying up late and getting up early for meetings.

Which medication should the provider prescribe for this patient?

Zaleplon

Works well for people who have a hard time falling asleep, has a short duration of action, can be taken late at night without causing next-day effects early in the morning

A patient reports having occasional periods of tremors, palpitations, nausea, and a sense of fear, which usually dissipate within 30 minutes. To treat this condition, the provider should prescribe a drug in which drug class?

SSRI

Pt is showing signs of panic disorder. SSRI are first-line drug

Tricyclic are second-line drugs

A patient who has been taking alprazolam to treat generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) reports recently stopping the medication after symptoms have improved but reports having feelings of panic and paranoia.

Which initial action by the nurse would be correct?

Ask the patient if the medication was stopped abruptly

A young adult begins taking clonidine to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) symptoms after suffering anorexia with methylphenidate.

What will the provider include when teaching this patient about taking clonidine?

Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication

Clonidine causes somnolence, which is made worse by alcohol

Insomnia and anorexia are not side effects of clonidine

Should not be crushed or chewed

A nurse working the night shift begins taking modafinil. The nurse is telling a coworker about the medication. Which statement is correct?

It will not interfere with my normal sleep

Does not disrupt nighttime sleep

Contraindicated during pregnancy

Increases heart rate and bp

A child is diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). The prescriber orders a central nervous system stimulant.

Which statement by the child's parent indicates a need for further teaching?

"This drug will make him less impulsive while he's at school"

Stimulants do not suppress negative behaviors

Act by improving attention and focus

Insomnia and poor appetite are common side effects and should be reported to provider

Stimulants improve focus and allow new, more positive behaviors to be learned

Which of the following drugs used for opioid use disorder is a partial opiate agonist?

Buprenorphine

A patient who is a heroin addict is admitted to a methadone substitution program. After administering the first dose of methadone, the nurse notes that the patient shows signs of euphoria and complains of nausea.

What will the nurse do?

Suspect that the patient exaggerated the amount of heroin used

Any patient entering a methadone substitution program must be carefully questioned about the amount of heroin used.

A nurse is caring for a patient who is addicted to barbiturates and who will begin receiving phenobarbital. The nurse discusses the care of this patient with a nursing student.

Which statement by the student indicates an understanding of the teaching?

"Phenobarbital has a long half-life and can be tapered gradually to minimize abstinence symptoms"

A patient is wheezing and short of breath. The nurse assesses a heart rate of 88 beats per minute, a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute, and a blood pressure of 124/78 mm Hg. The prescriber orders a nonspecific beta-agonist medication.

Besides evaluating the patient for a reduction in respiratory distress, the nurse should monitor for which side effect?

Tachycardia

Beta-agonists are used for asthma because of their beta2 effects on bronchial smooth muscle, causing dilation.

Beta1 effects cause tachycardia and hypertension

A patient is experiencing toxic side effects from atropine, including delirium and hallucinations. Which medication should the provider administer?

Physostigmine

Drug of choice for treating poisoning from atropine and other drugs that cause muscarinic blockage

A patient brought to the emergency department requires sutures. The prescriber orders a local anesthetic with epinephrine.

The epinephrine is ordered to ___________.

Allow a reduced dose of the anesthetic

Epinephrine prolongs absorption of the anesthetic because it is an alpha 1 agonist

A patient has been diagnosed with Parkinson disease (PD) and begins treatment with carbidopa. After several months of therapy, the patient reports no change in symptoms.

As the provider, you should do which of the following?

Reevaluate the dx

Pts beginning therapy with carbidopa should expect therapeutic effects to occur after several months of treatment

A patient who is taking oral contraceptives begins taking valproic acid for seizures. After a week of therapy with valproic acid, the patient tells the nurse that she is experiencing nausea.

What should the nurse do?

Ask the patient if she is taking the valproic acid with food because taking the drug on an empty stomach can cause gastrointestinal side effects

A patient with cerebral palsy who has been receiving baclofen via gastrostomy tube for three months is admitted to the hospital for evaluation of new-onset seizures.

What might you suspect to be the cause of these seizures?

Missed doses of baclofen

Baclofen does not appear to cause physical dependence, but abrupt discontinuation has been associated with adverse reactions

Abrupt withdrawal can cause visual hallucinations, paranoid ideation, and seizures and should be considered when a patient develops these symptoms

A nurse is preparing a patient to go home from the emergency department after receiving sutures for a laceration on one hand. The provider used lidocaine with epinephrine as a local anesthetic.

Which symptom in this patient causes the most concern?

Nervousness and tachycardia

A patient who has recurrent migraine headaches is prescribed sumatriptan. Which aspect of this patient's history is of concern when taking this drug?

Coronary artery disease

Serotonin receptor agonists can cause vasoconstriction and coronary vasospasm and should not be given to patients with CAD, angina, or uncontrolled HTN

A patient who has been taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) for depression for several months tells the provider that the medication has not helped with symptoms. You plan to switch the patient to an SSRI.

What should you instruct the nurse to teach this patient?

Stop taking the MAOI 2 weeks before starting the SSRI

MAOIs increase serotonin receptor availability, which can increase the risk of serotonin syndrome

SSRI and MAOIs should never be given at the same time

A patient is admitted to a hospital for treatment for first-time symptoms of mania and is exhibiting euphoric mania.

Which medication should you order?

Lithium

In almost all cases of mania, divalproex sodium is the drug of choice, except for euphoric mania symptoms

Lithium is used to treat euphoric mania

Olanzapine and risperidone are used to treat other symptoms that are associated with borderline personality disorder

A sympathomimetic drug would result in which of the following side effects?

Pupil dilation

Insomnia

Tachycardia

Think Fight or flight with sympathomimetic will have an adrenergic response

In an antagonist state, which receptor site will result in an adrenergic response?

Alpha 2

A patient presents to the urgent care in respiratory distress. The pt has a hx of seasonal allergies and eczema. On exam, the pt has prolonged expiratory wheezes throughout. Which medication will likely be given to this patient?

Albuterol which is a beta 2 agonist

A pt is prescribed albuterol meter-dosed inhaler and supplied with a spacer to use with medication administration. The patient is curious about how much time should elapse in between puffs of med. Best response would be?

When delivering puffs of medication with a MDI with same medication-1 minute is ideal

When delivering 2 different medications pt should wait 5 mints

Which 2 of the following receptors are located in the lungs?

Alpha 1

Beta 2

A parasympathomimetic drug would result in which of the following side effects?

Salivation

Bradycardia

Dizziness

In an agonist state, which of the receptor sites result in a cholinergic response?

Muscarinic

Nicotinic

Alpha 2

A pt with ADHD arrives to an urgent care with sore throat. The patient's vital signs were within a normal range except his heart rate measuring 52. Which of the following medications would account for the abnormal findings?

Clonidine

Alpha 1 antagonist

Which of the following drugs are contraindicated in a patient with COPD?

Propanolol

Metoprolol

Labetalol

A patient presents to an emergency room complaining of palpitations and irregular heartbeat. The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) places the patient on a cardiac monitor and observes atrial fibrillation. The APRN orders dofetilide.How should the APRN recommend this medication be taken?

With food or an empty stomach

Dofetilide is well absorbed (90%) both in the presence and absence of food

A 70-year-old male calls a clinic complaining of chest pain that started after having sexual activity. He took sildenafil 50 mg about eight hours ago. He has nitroglycerin 0.3 mg on hand.

How should the advanced practice registered nurse respond?

Do not take the nitro and call 911

Taking nitro is contraindicated for 24 hours after taking sildenafil. Can cause a drastic drop in bp, and the patient can become unstable

A patient diagnosed with bipolar disorder who is in a mental health clinic is discussing the possibility of beginning lithium with an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN). The patient expresses understanding and wishes to proceed with treatment. The APRN explains to the patient that this medication requires specific lab monitoring and wants to draw baseline labs. The patient asks why the test is needed.

Which explanation should the APRN provide to this patient?

Baseline BUN and CREA level needs to be drawn to assess kidney function prior to treatment

Lithium can cause decreased renal function

An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is reviewing the medications that will be commonly experienced with a new nurse to determine whether the drugs are safe for the patients. The new nurse is given a scenario where a patient is being prescribed sildenafil 25 mg po prn, a prototype drug for erectile dysfunction.

Which patient may take this drug safely?

a 54-year old male with a medical history of htn, mild eczema, and previous history of urolithiasis where all is well controlled and there are no current complications

A 30-year-old patient presents to a primary care clinic with a history of anxiety. The advanced practice registered nurse reviews the mechanism of action by which many neuropharmacological agents act and decides to prescribe citalopram.

What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

Influences receptor activity on target cells

A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of Huntington disease. On admission, the patient exhibits uncontrolled twitching, difficulty walking, trouble swallowing, confusion, and memory loss. The advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) prescribes baclofen.

What is the mechanism of action of this medication?

Inhibits neurotransmitter GABA

Huntington's disease involves a deficiency of the neurotransmitters ACH in the basal ganglia and extrapyramidal system

GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter

A 21-year-old patient accompanied by a parent comes to a clinic for an emergency visit with an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) following a seizure. Upon interviewing the patient and the parent, the APRN determines that the seizure is classified by marked impairment of consciousness and is followed by a period of central nervous system (CNS) depression.

Which type of seizure is this patient experiencing?

Tonic-clonic

Also called a convulsion

Can include muscle stiffness, LOC, and body jerking

A patient has been taking oral oxycodone every six hours for back pain during the past three years. The patient suddenly decides to stop taking the pain medication and is trying an alternative therapy without a clinician's approval.

Which risk is of clinical concern?

Physical dependence

An advanced practice registered nurse has diagnosed a 44-year-old male with depression. A plan is developed to start treatment with medication. The patient has a history of sexual dysfunction and is concerned about taking medication that may worsen this condition.

Which antidepressant has the benefit of enhancing libido?

Bupropion (Wellbutrin)

Treats depression, does not cause sexual dysfunction