Trauma Block Flashcards

What term describes the science of analyzing mechanisms of injury to predict injury extent?

Kinetics of trauma.

The energy contained in a moving body is known as _____ energy.

Kinetic.

What is the most common mechanism of injury (MOI)?

Falls.

Which mechanism of injury accounts for over one-third of all trauma-related deaths?

Vehicle collisions.

In a vehicle collision, what occurs during the first stage, known as the 'vehicle collision'?

The vehicle strikes an object.

What occurs during the 'body collision' stage of a car crash?

The occupant strikes the inside of the automobile.

What occurs during the 'organ collision' stage of a vehicle crash?

Internal organs strike the inside of the skull, chest, or abdomen.

A force that impacts the body but is not sharp enough to penetrate it causes _____ trauma.

Blunt.

What type of trauma produces a break in the continuity of the skin?

Penetrating trauma.

What are the three layers of the skin?

Epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous layer.

A soft tissue injury where there is no break in the skin's continuity is called a(n) _____ injury.

Closed.

What are the three specific types of closed soft tissue injuries?

Contusions, hematomas, and crush injuries.

What is the medical term for a bruise?

Contusion.

How does a hematoma differ from a simple contusion?

It involves damage to a larger blood vessel and a larger amount of tissue.

Where should a tourniquet be applied relative to a wound?

2−3 inches proximal to the injury on bare skin.

What is the primary risk associated with open soft tissue injuries besides bleeding?

Contamination and infection.

An open injury caused by scraping or rubbing away the epidermis is called a(n) _____.

Abrasion.

A break in the skin of varying depth caused by a sharp object is a(n) _____.

Laceration.

What is the difference between a linear and a stellate laceration?

Linear lacerations are regular/smooth, while stellate lacerations are irregular/jagged.

What term describes a loose flap of skin and underlying soft tissue that has been torn loose or pulled off?

Avulsion.

A disruption in the continuity of an extremity or other body part is called a(n) _____.

Amputation.

Why might a complete amputation bleed less than an incomplete one?

The elasticity of blood vessels allows them to retract and tamponade.

Burns are classified by depth into what three main categories?

Superficial, partial-thickness, and full-thickness.

A superficial (first-degree) burn involves which layer of the skin?

The epidermis.

What are the hallmarks of a superficial burn?

Pink to red skin, dryness, and tenderness without blisters.

A partial-thickness (second-degree) burn involves the epidermis and portions of the _____.

Dermis.

The presence of blisters is a hallmark sign of a _____ burn.

Partial-thickness.

What is a characteristic difference between superficial and deep partial-thickness burns regarding pressure?

Superficial ones blanch with pressure, whereas deep ones do not.

A burn involving all layers of the skin is classified as _____.

Full-thickness (third-degree).

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What term describes the tough, leathery dead soft tissue formed in a full-thickness burn?

Eschar.

Why are full-thickness burns usually painless in the center of the injury?

The nerve endings have been destroyed.

A burn that extends through the skin into tendons, ligaments, and bone is categorized as _____.

Fourth-degree.

Why are circumferential burns to the chest or extremities considered critical?

They cause circulatory compromise and can restrict breathing.

What connective tissue connects muscle to bone?

Tendons.

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What connective tissue connects bone to bone?

Ligaments.

What substance found at bone ends acts as a shock absorber and reduces friction during joint movement?

Cartilage.

A break in the continuity of a bone is defined as a(n) _____.

Fracture.

An injury to a muscle or tendon caused by overextension is a _____.

Strain.

An injury to a joint capsule and ligaments is a _____.

Sprain.

What is the displacement of a bone from its normal position in a joint?

Dislocation.

What term describes the sound or feeling of broken bone ends rubbing together?

Crepitus.

What is a degenerative bone disorder characterized by loss of minerals and increased susceptibility to fractures?

Osteoporosis.

An injury that occurs at the point of impact is caused by _____ force.

Direct.

Injury caused some distance away from the point of impact results from _____ force.

Indirect.

Which musculoskeletal injury typically presents with immediate pain but delayed discoloration?

Sprain.

What is the term for numbness or tingling in the extremities?

Paresthesia.

When should you attempt to align a joint injury with gentle traction?

When the distal extremity is cyanotic or lacks a pulse.

What is 'Battle sign' and what does it indicate?

Ecchymosis over the mastoid process indicating a basilar skull fracture.

Ecchymosis around the eyes in the absence of direct eye trauma is called _____.

Raccoon sign.

Why is the 'halo test' no longer considered a reliable field test for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

Other fluids like saline or nasal secretions can produce a similar halo effect.

What is the hallmark characteristic of a concussion?

Effects appear immediately or soon after impact and then gradually disappear.

A brain injury at the point of impact is 'coup,' while injury on the opposite side is _____.

Contrecoup.

What is the 'Cushing reflex' (triad) seen in severe head injuries?

Increased systolic blood pressure, decreased heart rate, and irregular respirations.

How can an EMT distinguish clear fluid leaking from the nose as CSF rather than nasal secretions?

CSF contains glucose, whereas nasal secretions do not.

A GCS score of 3−8 indicates what level of head injury severity?

Severe.

What is the 'setting sun' sign in infants with head injuries?

A bilateral downward gaze of the eyes with inability to move them upward.

What is the most common cause of traumatic brain injury (TBI) in combat veterans?

Improvised Explosive Devices (IEDs).

What is the difference between a spinal column injury and a spinal cord injury?

Column injury is a bone/vertebral fracture; cord injury involves the nervous tissue.

What does the acronym SCIWORA stand for?

Spinal Cord Injury Without Radiologic Abnormality.

In a _____ spinal cord injury, there is total loss of motor and sensory function below the level of injury.

Complete.

Which incomplete spinal cord syndrome presents with greater weakness in the upper extremities than the lower?

Central cord syndrome.

Priapism in a trauma patient is a classic sign of which type of injury?

Cervical spinal injury.

Diaphragmatic breathing (abdominal breathing only) is an indicator of injury to which spinal area?

Cervical spine.

What is the recommended maneuver to open the airway of a suspected spinal injury patient?

Jaw-thrust maneuver.

A fall from what height is considered a significant mechanism for spinal injury?

Greater than 10 feet.

What is the term for keeping the spine in anatomic alignment to prevent further injury?

Spine motion restriction (SMR).

What posture involves a patient arching their back and flexing arms inward toward the chest?

Flexion posturing (decorticate posturing).

What condition involves two or more adjacent ribs fractured in two or more places?

Flail segment.

The space located below the diaphragm that extends to the top of the pelvis is the _____.

Abdominal cavity.

What is the term for abdominal organ protrusion through an open wound?

Abdominal evisceration.

A persistent erection of the willy due to spinal nerve injury is called _____.

Priapism.

Where should the head of the bed be positioned for a patient with a severe head injury?

Elevated to 30 degrees.

Should a patient with a traumatic brain injury be hyperventilated?

No, hyperventilation must be avoided.

What is 'diplopia'?

Double vision.

A patient complaining of the 'worst headache of their life' may be suffering from a(n) _____.

Subarachnoid hemorrhage.

What are the early signs of deterioration in a head-injured patient?

Confusion, agitation, drowsiness, vomiting, and severe headache.

What is the primary emergency care step for any soft tissue injury?

Stop any major bleeding.

What is the purpose of assessing 'CPMS' in an injured extremity?

To evaluate Circulation, Pulse, Motor, and Sensory function.

Which type of fracture has no obvious sign and is a simple crack in the bone?

Hairline fracture.

What is the 'Rule of Nines' used for?

Calculating the percentage of Body Surface Area (BSA) burned.

At what point in the patient assessment is the mechanism of injury (MOI) considered for transport decisions?

Third, following physiological indicators and anatomical injury types.

Why should an EMT suspect significant trauma based on a fall from a two-story building even if vital signs are currently normal?

The mechanism of injury (MOI) provides a high suspicion of injury before assessment findings may manifest.

Which specific mechanism of injury is responsible for over one-third of all trauma-related deaths?

Vehicle collisions.

In the 'MARCH' algorithm used for primary surveys, what does the letter 'M' stand for?

Massive hemorrhage.

Describe the physiological presentation of the pulse in a patient experiencing early shock.

The pulse is typically rapid and thready.

What is the significance of a narrowing pulse pressure in a trauma patient?

It is a sign of poor perfusion and potential shock.

According to the CDC Trauma Triage Guidelines, what category of assessment findings is the primary indicator for making a transport decision?

Physiological indicators (e.g., GCS, systolic blood pressure, respiratory rate).

Under what clinical condition should an EMT assume a trauma patient is in shock even before blood pressure falls?

When the patient has pale, cool, clammy skin and a significant mechanism of injury or altered mental status.

How should an EMT adjust oxygen therapy for a shock patient if the SpO2​ is not available?

Provide oxygen at 15 lpm via a nonrebreather mask.

What is the risk of hyperventilating a patient in shock?

It makes the blood alkalotic, which reduces the off-loading of oxygen from hemoglobin to the tissues.

Differentiate the skin presentation between distributive shock and cardiogenic shock.

Distributive shock presents with warm, flushed skin; cardiogenic shock presents with pale, cool, clammy skin.

What is the formula for the lowest acceptable systolic blood pressure in children aged 1 to 10 years?

systolic BP=(age in years×2)+70.

In the prehospital setting, what is the primary method for controlling external bleeding?

Direct pressure.

When should an EMT remove original dressings to apply direct pressure directly to a bleeding vessel?

When severe bleeding persists despite direct pressure applied over the initial dressings.

Where should a hemostatic agent be utilized if direct pressure fails to stop bleeding?

In areas where a tourniquet cannot be applied, such as junctional wounds.

What is the minimum duration direct pressure should be maintained after packing a wound with hemostatic gauze?

3 minutes.

How should an EMT manage a large laceration to the neck to prevent air embolism?

Apply direct pressure followed by a nonporous dressing taped on all four sides.

What is the appropriate emergency care for an abdominal evisceration?

Apply a moist sterile dressing covered by a nonporous dressing taped on four sides.

Under what two circumstances is it permissible to remove an impaled object?

If the object is impaled in the cheek or is obstructing ventilation in the neck.

How should a completely amputated part be prepared for transport?

Wrap in dry sterile gauze, place in a plastic bag/wrap, and keep cool on ice without direct contact or freezing.