Large Animal Pre-Post Test

Horses ingest approximately __% of their body weight per day while grazing.

2%

What percentages of fat, protein, and carbs does a horse need in its diet?

• 5% fat

• 7-12% protein

• 80% carbs

In the horse, the ___ is resposible for the fermintation of structural carbohydrates to volatile fatty acids, which is resposible for 50% of ME.

the large intestine

How much water do horses drink on average per day?

25 Liters

What is the most important nutrient in any mammalian species?

water

What can cause hyperkalemic periodic paralysis in horses?

excess of potassium

Deficiencies in ____ are known to cause white muscle disease in horses

selenium

Deficiencies in ____ can cause equine degenerative myeloencephalopathy and motor neuron disease.

vitamin E

_____ are considered the foundation to an equine feeding program

roughages

As a rule of thumb, concentrate to roughage ratio should not exceed ____

50:50

The rumen of a cow ca hold ___ gallons

42.5

Dairy cows require ___ gallons of water to produce 1 gallon of milk

3-5 gallons

_____ deficiencies are most often seen in pregnant animals and have been correlated with increases in stillbirths

iodine

Horses are known as ___ breeders

long day

Horses have peak estrus activity in what month?

June

Puberty in horses occurs at what age?

1-2 years

____ - when a stallion curls his upper lip, exposing his vomeronasal organ to the female’s pheromones.

flehmen response

Fertility in horses is highest within ___ hours of ovulation and then decreases rapidly.

12 hours

It is best is sperm are present within the oviduct (before or after) ovulation.

before

What is the universal birthday for foals?

January 1st

Abnormalities of the vulva may allow air and fecal material to enter the vagina, resulting in infection. The surgical repair for this condition is called ____

Caslick’s surgery

What is the gestation period for horses?

320 to 360 days

What drug can be given to induce a horse?

oxytocin

____ - the appearance of small,s sticky, bead-like drops of dried first milk (colostrum) on the ends of the mare’s teats

waxing

Stage II of parturition begins with the rupture of the chorioallantois. Once this occurs, the fetus should be outside the birth canal within ___ minutes.

70

What is foal heat?

the first postpartum estrus

Foal heat occurs within ___ days of partuition

18 days

How long is bovine gestation?

9 months

Sheep and goats are ____ polyestrous

seasonally

In the examination of semen, rapid forward progressive movement indicates excellent motility. A finding of ___% of more of progressively motile sperm is desireable.

70%

PO = ___

orally

NPO = ___

nothing by mouth

____ medication is a liquid veterinary treatment given orally to livestock like sheep, goats, and cattle.

drench

T or F: Mineral oil should never be given via drench because it can be fatal if inhaled.

True

____ are commonly used to accomplish oral tablet administration among cattle, sheep, and goats.

balling guns

Administration of a drug by any route can result in an anaphylactic reaction, and treatment with ____ may be indicated.

epinephrine

T or F: Administering irritating drugs intot he coccygeal vein can cause thrombosis of the vein and sloughing of the tail

True

When injecting the ____ vaccine, to ensure that no drug is accidentally injected into the person administering the drug, the technician should refrain from tenting the skin.

Brucella

What are the two locations for an epidural?

• the cranial epidural is located at the lumbosacral junction (between L6 and S1)

• the caudal epidural is located between S5 and C1 or C1 and C2

Arterial blood samples are commonly obtained for ___ analysis

blood gas

____ is commonly referred to as “dummy foal” or “equine maladjustment syndrome” and is believed to result from oxygen deprivation during the birthing process.

Hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy

____ is caused by Neorickettsia risticii

potomac horse fever

What is the normal respiratory rate of a horse?

8-20 breaths per minute

____ refers to chronic airway inflammation caused by sensitivity to environmental irritants.

equine asthma

____ is a common, highly contagious respiratory disease of horses caused by the bacterial pathogen Streptococcus equi equi

strangles

What causes equine rhinopneumonitis?

equine herpesvirus type 1 and type 4

_____ is a persistent viral disease of horses that causes anemia, fever, and weight loss.

eqine infectious anemia

____ is a highly fatal neurological disease in horses characterized by a stiff gait, hyper excitability, seizure, and coma

tetanus

Equine ____ is also known as moon blindness and is the most common cause of blindness in horses.

recurrent uveitis

Dermatophilosis is also known as what?

rain scald or rain rot

T or F: Sqamous cell carcinomas are found on dark pigmented horses and melanomas are found on light skinned horses.

False, Sqamous cell carcinomas are found on light skinned horses and melanomas are found on dark skinned horses

The most common form of pigeon fever causes swelling where?

the pectoral region

PPID is also known as what?

Equine cushing’s disease

Acute renal failure in horses is most often the result of exposure to what?

toxins

Polydipsia in horses is defined as drinking water greater than __% of their body weight.

10%

How often should IV catheters be flushed?

every 6 hours

Lactate or lactic acid is produced by cells undergoing anerobic metabolicm as a result of lack of what?

oxygen

Is normal equine urine alkaline or acidic?

alkaline

Normal equine urine contains many ____ crystals.

calcium carbonate

Horses normally have yellow serum as a result of a high serum bilirubin level compared with other species because they do not have ____

gallbladders

Enterotoxemia is caused by what?

C. perfringens

Small ruminants are considered highly susceptible to enterotoxemia and should be vaccinated how often?

every 6 months

Scours is also known as what?

diarrhea

Rumen fluid pH less than 5.5 is suggestive of what?

grain overload

Is grain overload considered an emergency situation?

Yes

Exposure of pregnant cattle to the noncytopathic strain of BVDV between the days ___ and ___ of gestation may result in abortion or an infected fetus

30 and 120

Mycobacterium paratuberculosis is also called what?

Johne disease

____ disease in small ruminants is a chronic wasting disease

Johne disease

Bovine Respiratory Disease Syndrome is also known as what?

shipping fever

____ mastitis refers to an infection of the mammary gland but no clinical change in milk.

subclinical

____ mastitis refers to an infection of the mammary glands with change to the milk

clinical

Postpartum uterine infection is also known as what?

metritis

____ is usually seen in high-producing dairy cows during the first few months of lactation if they are unable to meet the energy demands of lactation

ketosis

____ is the most common neoplastic disease of cattle and is most likely to occur in cattle 2 to 6 years of age

lymphosarcoma

T or F: Sheep are more prone than goats to the development of copper toxicity

True

____ disease occurs in cattle when they are moved to high altitudes and pulmonary hypertension develops as a result of increased work load.

Brisket Disease (mountain sickness)

Polioencephalomalacia is a CNS disease which results from underlying ____ deficiency

thiamine

T or F: PPV is present in nearly 100% of swine herds worldwide and is a common cause of infectious infertility.

True

Porcine stress syndrome is also known as what?

malignant hyperthermia

Hepatic lipidosis is also known as what?

fatty liver disease

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