VTHT 2209 Food Animal Management Final Exam Review

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Last updated 3:53 AM on 9/8/26
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169 Terms

1
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Cattle who have no horns are polled.

True

2
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A carousel is a type of milking barn that may ne used for milking large number of cows at once.

True

3
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Another name for the reticulum is the "Honeycomb"

True

4
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Female cattle who have had multiple calves are called heifers

False. Heifers are young cows that have not had calves yet

5
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Eructation is another name for "cud-chewing"

False. Eructation is belching

6
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Bos Taurus cattle are characterized by a hump over the shoulder, drooping ears, and large dewlaps

True

7
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Which hormone is responsible for milk letdown?

oxytocin

8
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What is the term for the first milk produced after an animal gives birth?

colostrum

9
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How many days is ideal for a dairy cow to dry before calving?

45-50 days

10
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According to producers, what is the ideal age a dairy cattle cow should have her first calf?

21-22 months

11
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Which are the by-products of fermentation in ruminants?

- volatile fatty acids

- gas

- ammonia

12
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What is a heifer?

an immature female that has not had a calf

13
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What is the purpose of the reticular groove?

Allows milk to pass directly into the abomasum in calve

14
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Where is the switch located in cattle?

At the end of the tail

15
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How many upper incisors do cattle have?

0

16
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List the dental formula for cattle

2(I 0/4, C 0/0, PM 3/3, M 3/3) = 32

17
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A steer is a cow without horns

False. A steer is a castrated male

18
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What is the gestation length for cattle?

283 days

19
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Which part of the ruminant stomach is considered the true stomach?

The abomasum

20
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Limousine are polled

False

21
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Polled means that an animal has horns

False

22
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How is a Red Angus created?

It is a recessive gene from the Black Angus

23
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Which breed of cattle is from crossbreeding Herefords, Shorthorns, and Brahmans?

Beefmaster

24
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Maine-Anjou are horned

True

25
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A dairy cattle is usually first bred at what age?

13-15 months

26
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List parts of the milking unit.

- Teat Cup Assembly

- Claw/Suspension Cup

- Connecting Air

- Milk tubes

27
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Which breed of dairy cow ranks first in milk production?

Holstein

28
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Which grade milk can only be used for liquid consumption?

Grade A

29
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Which dairy breed ranks second in milk production?

Brown Swiss

30
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Which dairy breed ranks third in milk production?

Ayrshire

31
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What is the most common milk parlor used today?

Herringbone

32
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A dairy cow is allowed to "dry cow" for how many days?

45-50 days

33
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How long is a cow expected to lactate before she is allowed to be a "dry cow"?

300-315 days

34
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Which dairy breed ranks second in milk-fat production?

Guernsey

35
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What vitamin needs to be added to reduced fat and skim milk?

Vitamin A

36
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The flavor of milk comes from the milk fat.

True

37
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What is Homogenization?

Breaks down fat molecules to remain evenly suspended in milk; prevents milk from separating and forming cream layer

38
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What two products are made during butter production?

Butter and buttermilk

39
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Grade A and B milk can be used for liquid consumption.

False; only Grade A can be used for liquid consumption

40
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Goat milk has a higher lactose content than cow milk.

False; Goat milk has 9g of lactose, while Cow's milk has 12g of lactose

41
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Feta and Ricotta cheese comes from what species?

Sheep

42
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Kumis comes from what animal?

Horse

43
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What two products are produced when making cheese?

Curds and whey

44
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What percentage of water is removed from condensed milk?

60%

45
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Which product is a dairy product?

Cream, Butter, Buttermilk, Yogurt, Cheese, Curds and Whey, Cottage Cheese, Cream Cheese, Ice Cream

46
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The rumen and reticulum are not separate compartments, but separate areas in the stomach.

True

47
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What problem can alfalfa cause in ruminants?

Bloat

48
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What purpose do lipids serve?

they are fat preserves

49
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Roughages are also known as forage

True

50
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Select all that are considered nutrients

Carbohydrates

Lipids

Proteins

Vitamins

Minerals

Water

51
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Legumes are proteinaceous roughages.

True

52
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About 90% of health-related disease in large animals can be related to improper nutrition.

True

53
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Water makes up 45%-60% of an animal's body weight at birth.

False; 65%-85% at birth, 45%-60% at maturity

54
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Which forage is considered grass hay?

Alfalfa

Orchardgrass

Timothy Hay

Smooth Bromegrass

55
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Animal origin protein is regularly fed to cattle.

False

56
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What digestive system do cattle, sheep, and goats have?

Ruminants

57
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Which part of the male reproductive tract is responsible for sperm maturation, storage, and transport?

Epididymis

58
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Electroejaculator

a probe and power source used to apply current to the nerves that promote ejaculation

<p>a probe and power source used to apply current to the nerves that promote ejaculation</p>
59
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What volume ejaculate should a bull give?

3-5ml

60
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Which hormone helps maintain pregnancy?

progesterone

61
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Stage 3 is indicated by

placenta being expelled

62
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Which are the accessory sex glands in the male?

seminal vesicles, prostate gland, and the bulbourethral glands

63
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Which hormone affects luteolysis?

estrogen

64
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Cows are seasonally polyestrous.

False; they are Polyestrous

65
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Which can be post-partum complications?

Retained Placenta

Ketosis

Milk Fever

Uterine Prolapse

Acetonemia

Pregnancy Toxemia

Displaced Abomasum

Mastitis

66
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How many stages of labor are there

3 stages

67
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A calf jack is also safe to use on mares who have dystocia.

False; not designed for horses as they may cause unnecessary trauma to the reproductive tract

68
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A dystocia is an emergency

True

69
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Which factors can affect scrotal circumference?

- age

- breed

- time of year

- ovulation of females in herd

70
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Scrotal circumference is correlated with sperm production in bulls

True

71
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What are the three parts of the oviduct?

infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus

72
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Which disease causes a cow to metabolize body fat faster than ketones can be eliminated, leading to increased ketones in the blood?

Ketosis

73
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Which disease causes hypocalcemia?

Postparturient Paresis

Milk Fever

74
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The FAMCHA system determines the level of anemia caused by what parasite in goats?

Haemonchus contortus aka Barberpole worm

75
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crutching/facing in sheep and goats is performed before

fly season

76
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Uroliths are commonly found where in bucks and wethers?

Urethral process

77
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List at least 4 different types of parasite preventatives for food animals

fly traps, injectables, pasture rotation, dips

78
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The Brucellosis vaccine is recommended to be given at what age?

Heifers between 4-12 months

79
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Milk fever is also known as hypomagnesemia

False. It is known as hypocalcemia

80
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What bacteria causes Lumpy Jaw?

Actinomyces bovis

81
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Mammals other than swine can be affected by pseudorabies

True

82
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Moraxella bovis causes what disease?

Infectious Bovine Keratoconjunctivitis; Pinkeye

83
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Bluetongue is highly contagious amongst sheep.

False

84
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What bacteria causes malignant edema?

Clostridium septicum

85
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Johne's disease is also known as Tuberculosis

False

86
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What bacteria causes wooden tongue?

Actinobacillus lignieresii

87
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Anthrax is also known as Splenic Fever.

True

88
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Calves who were infected in utero with Bovine Viral Diarrhea have the possibility of developing what problem?

- cerebral hypoplasia; calf is ataxic

- oral erosions, intestinal ulcers, and some respiratory issues seen as well

89
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Brucella abortus can be found on

infected placenta, feedstuffs, fetuses, tissue, milk, or uterine discharge

90
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Which disease may be linked to feeding contaminated silage?

Listeriosis

91
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Brucellosis is caused by a virus

False

92
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Cattle are the indicator host for foot mouth disease

True

93
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List 3 zoonotic diseases in food animals

Rabies, Brucellosis, Leptospirosis

94
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Which parasite is a reportable disease in all the United States?

Screwworm

95
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For a diagnosis, you must necropsy if anthrax is suspected.

False

96
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Which disease is caused by a virus?

rabies

97
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List 4 reportable diseases of food animals

BSE, IVD, Leptospirosis, Rabies, Anthrax

98
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What is the scientific name for the Screwworm?

Cochliomyia hominivorax

99
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Which is a reportable disease caused by a bacteria?

Leptospirosis

100
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List 3 different clostridial diseases.

- Clostridium septicum

- Clostridium chauvoei

- Clostridium perfringens