Biology CH 9, 10, 11, 12

HeLa cells proved particularly useful to biologists because they_________.

A.) Are among the largest cells known.

B.) Differentiate into virtually any cell type when stimulated with the proper hormones.

C.) Are multinucleated.

D.) Divide continuously in contrast to the limited number divisions seen with typical calls.

D.) Divide continuously in contrast to the limited number divisions seen with typical cells.

Which of the following choices is not a function of mitosis?

A.) Replacement of old or dead cells.

B.) Healing wounds.

C.) Increases in body size during growth.

D.) Formation of gametes.

D.) Formation of gametes

The DNA in chromosomes is organized by wrapping around proteins called _________.

A.) Histones.

B.) Nucleosomes.

C.) Centrosomes.

A.) Histones.

When first visible at the beginning of mitosis, the chromosome _________.

A.) Consists of a single chrimatid.

B.) Has lost its histones in anticipation of division.

C.) Is duplicated.

D.) Is contained within the nucleosome.

C.) Is duplicated.

A cell copies its DNA during _________.

A.) G1.

B.) S.

C.) Mitosis.

D.) G2.

B.) S.

During G2, a cell produces _________.

A.) The bipolar spindle.

B.) Newly synthesized DNA.

C.) Proteins that drive mitosis.

D.) Daughter cells.

C.) Proteins that drive mitosis.

A human body cell that has 46 chromosomes goes through mitosis and produces two daughter cells that each have _________ chromosomes.

A.) 23.

B.) 92.

C.) 46.

D.) 2.

C.) 46.

Which of the following statements about diploid organisms is false?

A.) Except for X and Y chromosomes, both members of any chromosome pair carry the exact same information.

B.) Individuals receive one member of each chromosome pair from each parent.

C.) Diploid organisms have two sets of genetic information.

D.) Members of each chromosome pair have the same length and shape.

A.) Except for X and Y chromosomes, both members of any chromosome pair carry the exact same information.

Some cells, such as those in mature muscle, do not divide; these cells are arrested in _________.

A.) G1.

B.) G2.

C.) M.

D.) S.

E. J

A.) G1.

Which of the following mitotic structures is found in animal cells but not plant cells?

A.) Centrosomes.

B.) Microtubules.

C.) Bipolar spindle.

D.) Kinetochores.

A.) Centrosomes.

During which of the following phases of mitosis does a centrosome move to the opposite pole of the cell?

A.) Anaphase.

B.) Metaphase.

C.) Telophase.

D.) Prophase.

D.) Prophase.

During which of the following phases of mitosis do sister chromatids move to the opposite poles of the cell?

A.) Prophase.

B.) Metaphase.

C.) Anaphase.

D.) Telophase.

C.) Anaphase.

Which set of terms is associated with animal cell division?

A.) Cell wall, membrane, cleavage furrow.

B.) Cell plate, formation, cellulose, vesicles.

C.) Contractile ring mechanism, cleavage furrow, actin.

D.) Cellulose, actin, mitosis.

C.) Contractile ring mechanism, cleavage furrow, actin.

The vesicles that initiate formation of a cell plate in plant cells are formed from plasma membrane and _________.

A.) Rough endoplasmic reticulum.

B.) Golgi body.

C.) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

D.) Lysosomes.

B.) Golgi body.

The visible indentation that forms on the exterior of a dividing animal cell is called the _________.

A.) Contractile ring.

B.) Cell plate.

C.) Cleavage furrow.

D.) Gray crescent.

C.) Cleavage furrow.

The plane in which cytoplasmic division will occur in a plant cell is marked by a(n) _________.

A.) Cleavage furrow.

B.) Contractile ring.

C.) Cell plate.

D.) Actin-freeze zone.

C.) Cell plate.

Tumor suppressors are _________.

A.) Mutant checkpoint genes.

B.) Mutant oncogenes.

C.) Checkpoint genes for proteins that stimulate mitosis.

D.) Checkpoint genes for proteins that inhibit mitosis.

D.) Checkpoint genes for proteins that inhibit mitosis.

Epidermal growth factor _________.

A.) Is a signal to start mitosis.

B.) Activates a kinase.

C.) All of the choices.

D.) Invited gene transcription.

C.) All of the choices.

Some kinases inhibit the cell cycle and mitosis _________.

A.) By activating other proteins that stop the cell cycle.

B.) By inducing cell death.

C.) All of the choices.

D.) When DNA is broken or incomplete.

D.) When DNA is broken or incomplete.

Which of the following choices is not a characteristic of cancer cells?

A.) Altered plasma membrane and cytoplasm.

B.) Abnormal growth and division.

C.) Increased capacity of adhesion.

D.) Mutated.

C.) Increased capacity for adhesion.

If a horticulturist breeding gardenia succeeds in having a single plant with a particularly desirable set of traits, which of the following would be her most probable and efficient route to establishing a line of such plants?

A.) Backtrack through her previous experiments to obtain another plant with the same traits.

B.) Breed this plant with another plant with much weaker traits.

C.) Clone the plant asexually to produce an identical one.

D.) Force the plant to self-pollinate to obtain an identical one.

E.) Add nitrogen to the soil of the offspring of this plant so the desired traits continue.

C.) Clone the plant asexually to produce an identical one.

Which of the following defines a genome?

A.) Representation of a complete set of a cell’s polypeptides.

B.) The complete set of an organism’s polypeptides.

C.) A complete set of a species’ polypeptides.

D.) A karyotype.

E.) The complete set of an organism’s genes.

E.) The complete set of an organism’s genes.

Which is the smallest unit containing the entire human genome?

A.) One human somatic cell.

B.) One human chromosome.

C.) All of the DNA of one human.

D.) The entire human population.

E.) One human gene.

A.) One human somatic cell.

If an organism is diploid and a certain gene is found in the organism has 18 known alleles (variants), then any given species can/must have which of the following?
A.) At most, 2 alleles for that gene.

B.) Up to 18 chromosomes with that gene.

C.) Up to 18 genes for that trait.

D.) A haploid number of 9 chromosomes.

E.) Up to, but not more than, 18 different traits.

A.) At most, 2 alleles for that gene.

Which of the following is a true statement about sexual vs. asexual production?

A.) Asexual reproduction, but not sexual reproduction, is a characteristic of plants and fungi.

B.) In sexual reproduction, individuals transmit 50% of their genes to each of their offspring.

C.) In asexual reproduction, offspring are produces by fertilization without meiosis.

D.) Sexual reproduction requires that parents be diploid.

E.) Asexual reproduction produces only haploid offspring.

B.) In sexual reproduction, individuals pass on 50% of their genes to each of their offspring.

At which stage of mitosis are chromosomes usually photographed in the preparation of a karyotype?

A.) Prophase.

B.) Metaphase.

C.) Anaphase.

D.) Telophase.

B.) Metaphase.

What do we mean when we use the terms monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross?

A.) A monohybrid cross involves a single parent, whereas a dihybrid cross involves two parents.

B.) A monohybrid cross produces a single progeny, whereas a dihybrid cross produces two progeny.

C.) A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are heterozygous for two characters, and a monohybrid cross involves one.

D.) A monohybrid cross is performed for one generation, whereas a dihybrid cross is performed for two generations.

E.) A monohybrid cross results ina 9:3:3:1 ratio, whereas a dihybrid cross gives a 3:1 ratio.

C.) A dihybrid cross involves organisms that are geteroxygous for two characters, and a monohybrid cross involves one.

What was the most significant conclusion that Gregor Mendel drew from his experiments with pea plants?

A.) There is considerable genetic variation in garden peas.

B.) Traits are inherited in discrete units, and are not the results of “blending.”

C.) Recessive genes occur more frequently in the F1 generation than they do in dominant ones.

D.) Genes are composed of DNA.
E.) An organism that is homozygous for many recessive traits is at a disadvantage.

B.) Traits are inherited in discrete units, and are not the results of “blending.”

How many unique gametes could be produces through independent assortment by an individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE?

A.) 4.

B.) 8.

C.) 16.

D.) 32.

E.) 64.

B.) 8.

The individual with the genotype AaBbCCDdEE can make many kinds of gametes. Which of the following is the major reason?

A.) Segregation of maternal and paternal alleles

B.) Recurrent mutations forming new alleles.

C.) Crossing over during Prophase I.

D.) Different possible assortment of chromosomes into gametes.

E.) The tendency for dominant alleles to segregate together.

D.) Different possible assortment of chromosomes into gametes.

Why did Mendel continue some of his experiments to the F2 or F3 generation?

A.) To obtain a larger number of offspring on which basis statistics.

B.) To observe whether or not a recessive trait would reappear.

C.) To observe whether or not the dominant trait would reappear.

D.) To distinguish which alleles were segregating.

E.) To be able to describe the frequency of recombination.

B.) To observe whether or not a recessive trait would reappear.

When Thomas Hunt Morgan crosses his red-eyed F1 generation flies to each other, the F2 generation included both red and white-eyed flies. Remarkably, all the white-eyed flies were male. What is the explanation for this result?

A.) The gene involved is the Y chromosome.

B.) The gene involved is on the X chromosome.

C.) The gene involved is on an autosome, but only in males.

D.) Other male-specific factors influence eye color in flies.

E.) Other female-specific factors influence eye colors in flies.

B.) The gene involved is on the X chromosome.

Which of the following is the meaning of the chromosome theory of inheritance as expressed in the early 20th century?

A.) Individuals inherit chromosomes attached to genes.

B.) Medelian genes are at specific loci on the chromosome and in turn segregate meiosis.

C.) Homologous chromosomes give rise to some genes and crossover chromosomes to other genes.

D.) No more than a single pair of chromosomes can be found in a healthy normal cell/

E.) Natural selection acts on certain chromosome arrays rather than on genes.

B.) Mendelian genes are located at specific loci on chromosomes and in turn segregate during meiosis.

Males are more often affected by sex-linked traits than females because _________.

A.) Male hormones such as testosterone often alter the affects of mutations on the X chromosome.

B.) Female hormones such a as estrogen often compensate for the effects of mutations on the X chromosome.

C.) X chromosomes in males generally have more mutations than X chromosomes in females.

D.) Males are hemizygous for the X chromosome.

E.) Mutations on the Y chromosome often worsen the effects of X-linked mutations.

D.) Males are hemizygous for the X chromosome.

SRY is best described in which of the following ways?

A.) A gene present on the X chromosome that triggers females development.

B.) An autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the Y chromosome.

C.) A gene region present on the Y chromosome that triggers male development.

D,) An autosomal gene that is required for the expression of genes on the X chromosome.

E.) A gene required for development, and males or females lacking the gene do not survive past early childhood.

C.) A gene region present on the Y chromosome that triggers male development.

In cats, black fur color is caused by an X-linked allele; the other allele at this locus causes orange color. The heterozygote is tortoiseshell. What kinds of offspring would you expect from the cross of a black female and an orange male?

A.) Tortoiseshell females; tortoiseshell males.

B.) Black females; orange males.

C.) Orange females; orange males.

D.) Torroiseshell females; black males.

E.) Oragne females; black males.

D.) Tortoiseshell females; black males.

Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked trait in humans. Two people with normal color vision have a color-blind son. What are the genotypes of the parents?

A.) XnXn and XnY.

B.) XnXn an XNY.

C.) XNXN and XnY.

D.) XNXN and XNY.

E.) XNXn and XNY.

E.) XNXn and XNY.

Cinnabar eyes is a sex-linked trait recessive characteristic in fruit flies. If a female having cinnabar eyes is crossed with a wild-type male, what percentage of the F1 males will have cinnabar eyes?

A.) 0%.

B.) 25%.

C.) 50%.

D.) 75%.

E.) 100%.

E.) 100%

Normally, only one female cats have the tortoiseshell phenotype because _________.

A.) All the males die during embryonic development.

B.) A male inherits only one allele of the X-linked gene controlling hair color.

C.) The Y chromosome has a gene blocking the orange coloration.

D.) Only males can have Barr bodies.

E.) Multiple crossovers on the Y chromosome prevent orange pigment production.

B.) A male inherits only one allele of the X-linked gene controlling hair color.

Sex determination in mammals is due to SRY region of the Y chromosome. An abnormality of this region could allow which of the following to have a male phenotype?

A.) Turner syndrome, 45, X.

B.) Translocation of SRY to an autosome of a 46, XX, individual.

C.) A person with an extra X chromosome.

D.) A person with one normal and one shortened (deleted) X.

E.) Down syndrome, 46, XX.

B.) Translocation of SRY to an autosome of a 46, XX, individual.

In humans, clear gender differentiation occurs not at fertilization, but after the second month of gestation. What is the first event of this differentiation?

A.) Formation of testosterone in male embryos.

B.) formation of estrogens in female embryos.

C.) Anatomical differentiation of a penis in male embryos.

D.) Deactivvation of SRY in male embryos and masculinization of gonads.
E.) Activation of SRY in females and feminization of the gonads.

D.) Deactivation of SRY in male embryos and masculinization of gonads.

Dunchenne muscular dystrophy is a serious condition caused by a recessive allele of a gene on the human X chromosome. The patients have muscles that weaken over time because they have absent or decreased dysrophin, a muscle protein. They rarely live past their 20s. How likely is it for women to have this condition?

A.) Woman can never have this condition.

B.) One-half of the daughters of an affected man would have this condition.

C.) One-fourth of the daughters of an affected father and a carrier mother could have this condition.

D.) Very rarely; it is rare that an affected male would mate with a carrier female.

E.) Only if a woman is XXX could she have this condition.

D.) Very rarely; it is rare that an affected male would mate with a carrier female.

All female mammals have one active X chromosome per cell instead of two. What causes this?

A.) Activation of the XIST gene on the X chromosome that will become the Barr body.

B.) Activation of the VARR gene on one X chromosome, which then becomes inactive.

C.) Crossing over between the XIST gene on one X chromosome and a related gene on an autosome.

D.) Inactivation of the XIST gene on the X chromosome derived from the male parent.

E.) Attachment of methyl (CH3) groups to the X chromosome that will remain inactive.

A.) Activation of the XIST gene on the X chromosome that will become the Barr body.

Which of the following statements is true of linkage?

A.) The closer two genes are on a chromosome, the lower the probability that a crossover will occur between them.

B.) The observed frequency of recombination of two genes that are far apart from each other has a maximum value around 100%.

C.) All of the traits that Mendel studied—seed and flower color, pod shape, and others—are due to genes linked on the same chromosome.

A.) The closer two genes are on a chromosome, the lower the probability that a crossover will occur between them.

The word that means requires oxygen is ______________.

aerobic

How many ATP are produced during ETC?

34

What did Hand Krebs discover?

Krebs Cycle

When oxygen is not present, it is known as ______________.

anaerobic

Where does the Krebs Cycle take place?

Matrix of the mitochondria

Who received a Nobel Prize for their discovery?

Hans Krebs

What does ATP stand for?

Adenosine triphosphate

What is the first stage of cellular respiration?

Glycolysis

What is fermentation called in muscle cells?

Lactic acid fermentation

How many ATP are produced during the Krebs Cycle?

2

What is energy currency used by all cells?

ATP

What is the third stage of cellular respiration?

Electron Transport Chain

Glucose split into two molecules of Pyruvic Acid and ______________.

Pyruvate

What does ATP supply you with?

Energy

Where does cellular respiration take place (both answers)?

Cytoplasm and mitochondria

During what process is ATP made in your body?

Cellular respiration

What occurs when oxygen is not present?

Fermentation

Where does Glycolysis take place?

Cytoplasm

What are the folds called in the mitochondria?

Cristae

What is the space inside the cristae called?

Matrix

In what order does cellular respiration take place?

Glycolysis, Krebs cycle, Electron transport chain.

What does Glycolysis result in?

3 carbon sugars and 4 ATP are produced. Results in a net of 2 ATP.

What does ETC produce?

Water and more ATP than anywhere else.

What does the Krebs Cycle produce?

CO2, 6 carbon dioxide. CoA is produced as well as 2 carbon dioxide, 2 NADH, and 1 ATP.

In what order does mitosis take place?

Prophase (DNA condenses), Prometaphase (Microtubules attach to chromosomes), Metaphase (chromosomes align), Anaphase (chromosomes separate), and Telophase (membranes form around the chromosomes).

What are the stages of interphase?

G1 (first growth in stage), S (DNA duplicates), and G2 (cell stops growing).

What is the difference between mitosis and meiosis?

Mitosis results in two identical daughter cells, while meiosis produces four genetically diverse gametes. Mitosis is for somatic cell division, and meiosis is for producing sex cells.

What is the difference between monohybrid and dihybrid cross?

A monohybrid cross involves one trait with two alleles, while a dihybrid cross examines two traits with four alleles. Monohybrid crosses yield a phenotypic ratio of 3:1, whereas dihybrid crosses yield a 9:3:3:1 ratio.Wh

What is the difference between the cell plate and the cleavage furrow?

The cell plate is formed during cytokinesis in plant cells, while the cleavage furrow is created in animal cells. The cell plate develops from vesicles that fuse at the equator of the cell, whereas the cleavage furrow is an inward pinching of the cell membrane.

What and where is the cleavage furrow?

The cleavage furrow is the indentation that forms during cytokinesis in animal cells, resulting from the contraction of the actin ring. It gradually deepens until the cell is pinched into two separate daughter cells.