CS2 Exam 2: Infectious Disease/Fecal/GU Testing

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Last updated 8:04 PM on 6/7/26
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471 Terms

1
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What is tuberculosis?

bacterial infection of the lungs

<p>bacterial infection of the lungs</p>
2
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What is the agent of tuberculosis?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

3
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What is the gram and shape of tuberculosis?

- G +

- rod

- aerobe

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How is tuberculosis spread?

airborne droplets

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How is tuberculosis stained?

acid-fast bacillus staining

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What are the 2 stages of tuberculosis?

1. primary (active and latent)

2. secondary (reactivation)

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What primary active TB?

- bacteria not contained by macrophages

- bacteria replicates

- symptomatic contagious

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What is primary latent TB?

- bacteria contained by macrophages

- bacteria do not replicate

- non-contagious

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What is secondary TB?

Immunity wanes --> contained TB in macrophages deteriorates --> Bacteria begin to replicate --> symptomatic contagious

10
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What is extrapulmonary tuberculosis?

- infection outside the lungs

- active infection goes untreated or hematogenous spread

<p>- infection outside the lungs</p><p>- active infection goes untreated or hematogenous spread</p>
11
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What is miliary tuberculosis?

the development of active tubercles throughout the body

<p>the development of active tubercles throughout the body</p>
12
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What are 2 screening options for tuberculosis?

- PPD

- Quantiferon Gold /T-spot

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What is 1 diagnostic option for tuberculosis?

AFB culture

14
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What are the 4 screening AND diagnostic options for tuberculosis?

- PCR/NAAT

- CXR

- AFB smear

- IgG antibodies

15
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What is the QuantiFERON TB GOLD test?

- blood measurement of cell-mediated immune reactivity of M. tuberculosis

- preferred testing over PPD in ages OVER 5 years old

- whole blood specimen

16
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What are the advantages of the QuantiFERON TB GOLD test?

- can be performed on patients with prior Bacille Calmette-Guerin vaccination

- no reader bias/error

- 1 visit

-no cross rxn with other mycobacterium species

- 24 hour results

17
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What are the disadvantages of the QuantiFERON TB GOLD test?

- cannot differentiate active from latent disease

- higher cost

- false - are possible

18
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What is a PPD test?

a purified protein derivative of tuberculin was injected intradermally, and if a patient has active or latent disease, it would cause a localized inflammatory reaction (can take 6 weeks to become positive after infection)

19
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What is a PPD test known as?

- tuberculin skin test

- Mantoux text

- tine test

20
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Explain how to administer a PPD test?

- 0.1 mL PPD solution injected to form a 1 cm wheal

- do not bandage

- come back in 48-72 hours

- measure diameter of the INDURATION ONLY

21
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What should only be measured with the PPD test?

induration (the raised surface not the redness)

22
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What are advantages of PPD test?

inexpensive

23
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What are the disadvantages of the PPD test?

- cannot diff active from latent

- reader error is possible

- repeat testing is needed

- cross reaction with other mycobacterium species

- cannot be given with the BCG vaccine

24
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What are the contraindications of the PPD test?

- previous severe reaction to TST

- patient with documented TB

- patient who received BCG vaccine

25
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What are the ways of getting a false (-) on the PPD test?

- subcutanously instead of intradermally

- immunocompromised patient

- improper storage/dosage of PPD

- waning rxn

26
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In what patients is 5mm induration considered (+)?

- HIV (+)

- close contacts with TB

- CXR consistent with healed TB granulomas

- organ transplant recipient/immunosuppressed

27
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In what patients is 10mm induration considered (+)?

- immigrants within the past 5 years

- IV drug users

- nursing home/prison resident

- medical personelle

- high-risk populations

28
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In what patients is 15mm induration considered (+)?

all other populations

29
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What is seen on a CXR with tuberculosis?

- ceaseating granulomas

- apical caviations

- ranke complex

<p>- ceaseating granulomas</p><p>- apical caviations</p><p>- ranke complex</p>
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What is the difference between a Ghon Lesion and Ghon Complex?

- lesion = granuloma alone

- complex = granuloma + enlarged hilar lymph nodes

31
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What is an AFB smear?

- acid fast bacillus stain

- a way of identifying TB since it needs a special culturing medium

32
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What is the main collection for AFB smear?

- sputum culture (deep cough from lungs after waking)

- get at least 3 specimens

33
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AFB smear has a 50% false ___ rate.

(-)

1 multiple choice option

34
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Can AFB smear be used to diagnose tuberculosis?

- no

- start empiric therapy

- monitor treatment efficacy

1 multiple choice option

35
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What is the gold standard diagnostic test for tuberculosis?

culture

36
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How long does a tuberculosis culture take?

4-6 weeks

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What is the collection of a tuberculosis culture?

sputum culture (deep cough x 3)

38
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What are 2 techniques to evaluate tuberculosis culture?

- BACTEC

- PCR/NAAT

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What is BACTEC, and how long does it take?

- method of culture that quantifies the amount of CO2 produced by a bacteria

- takes 1 week

- differentiates M. tuberculosis from other mycobacteria types

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What is PCR/NAAT, and how long does it take?

- method of culture that identifies mycobacterium DNA

- takes 24-48 hours for pulmonary specimens

41
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What tests will be (+) for LATENT TB infection?

- PPD

- QuantiFERON

42
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What tests will be (-) for LATENT TB infection?

- culture

- smear

- PCR/NAAT

43
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What tests will be (+) for ACTIVE TB infection?

- PPD

- QuantiFERON

- culture

- smear

- PCR/NAAT

44
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Where do atypical mycobacterium usually reside?

soil and water

45
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What are 5 diagnostics for atypical mycobacterium?

- CXR

- AFB smear

- AFB culture (high rate false -)

- PCR/NAAT of tissue (confirmatory)

- biopsy

46
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What is hepatitis?

inflammation of the liver that can lead to liver cell death via necrosis and triggering of apoptosis

47
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What 6 tests reflect liver function?

- Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)

- Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)

- Albumin

- Alk Phosphatase

- Prothrombin Time

- Bilirubin

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What does an AST: ALT ratio < 1 indicate?

viral hepatitis

49
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What are the types of viral hepatitis?

- HAV

- HBV

- HCV

- HDV

- HEV

- Epstein Barr Virus

- Cytomegalovirus

50
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What is acute viral hepatitis?

- hepatocellular injury lasting < 6 months

- Viral agent attacks hepatocyte

- Incubation period

- Inflammation

- Changes in liver function studies

- Signs and symptoms appear

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What is chronic viral hepatitis?

- > 6 months of hepatocellular injury

- immune-mediated attack of the liver secondary to persistent viral hepatitis

52
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What kinds of viral hepatitis have the potential to become chronic?

- Hepatitis B

- Hepatitis C

- Hepatitis D

- Hepatitis E

53
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What are the 3 diagnostics for Hep A?

1. HAV-IgM ab

2. HAV-IgG ab

3. HAV RNA

54
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What diagnostic test for hepatitis A is first to rise, peaks 1 month after exposure, and appears 5-10 days before clinical symptoms?

HAV-IgM antibody

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What diagnostic test for hepatitis A signifies lifelong immunity or vaccination?

HAV-IgG antibody

56
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What diagnostic test measures the hepatitis A viral load in patients with suspected acute infection but it's too soon for IgM to be detected?

Hepatitis A Virus RNA

57
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What IgM/IgG indicates an acute Hep A infection?

- IgM positive

- IgG +/-

58
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What IgM/IgG indicates a previous Hep A infection or vaccination?

- IgM negative

- IgG positive

59
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What is the anatomy of the Hep B virus?

- DNA virus

- outer capsule = surface antigen

- inner core = core antigen and envelope antigen

60
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What are the diagnostics for Hep B?

1. HBsAg & HBsAb

2. HBcAg & HBcAb

3. HBeAg & HbeAb

4. HBV DNA

61
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What hepatitis B diagnostic is the first to increase?

Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)

62
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What diagnostic indicates an active HepB infection?

Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)

63
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What diagnostic indicates resolved infection, natural immunity, and vaccination immunity for HepB?

Hepatitis B surface antibody (HBsAb)

64
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What are the two types of hepatitis B core antibody (HBcAb)?

- IgM HBcAb

- total HBcAb

65
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What diagnostic indicates acute infection of HepB?

IgM HBcAb

66
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What diagnostic indicates previous infection of HepB?

total HBcAb

67
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What diagnostic indicates early and active disease as well as predicts the development of chronic hepatitis of HepB?

Hepatitis B envelop antigen (HBeAg)

68
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What diagnostic indicates the end of the acute infection phase of HepB?

Hepatitis B envelop antibody (HBeAb)

69
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What diagnostic is a direct measurement of HBV viral load for HepB?

HepB DNA

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What is hepatitis B DNA test helpful in terms of treatment?

Determining candidacy for antiviral therapy & disease monitoring

71
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What are the 2 diagnostics for Hep C?

1. anti-HCV ab

2. HCV RNA

72
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What is the initial screening for hepatitis C?

Anti-HCV antibody

73
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What diagnostic indicates HCV recombinant core antigen for HepC?

Anti-HCV antibody

74
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What diagnostic indicates viral load for HepC as well as monitors response to therapy?

HCV RNA

75
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What are the 2 diagnostics for HepD?

1. HDV RNA

2. Anti-HDV Antibody

76
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What does HepD require for infection?

HepB

77
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Are there any HepE diagnostics available?

- tests not commercially available in the US

- Anti-HEV IgM & IgG

- HEV RNA

78
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What is autoimmune hepatitis?

chronic, inflammatory disease of the liver characterized by circulating autoantibodies and elevated serum globulin levels

79
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What does the diagnostics of autoimmune hepatitis look like?

- Elevated AST/ALT (10-20X the normal limit)

- Elevated of gamma globulins: IgG

- Presence of autoantibodies

80
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What are the autoantibodies present in autoimmune hepatits?

- Antinuclear antibody (ANA)

- anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA)

- antimitochondrial antibody (AMA)

- atypical perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (p-ANCA)

- anti soluble liver antigen (anti-SLA)

- anti-double-stranded DNA antibody (anti-dsDNA)

81
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What are the screening recommendations for HIV?

- adolescents 13-64

- adults with risk factors

- pregnant women

- newborns with HIV + mom or mom with unknown status

82
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What are the screening options for HIV?

1. p24 antigen

2. HIV-1/HIV-2 Antibodies

3. combined p24 + HIV-1/HIV-2 Antibodies

83
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What is a confirmation test for HIV?

NAAT

84
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What is the p24 antigen?

an HIV protein that is elevated within as early as 2-6 weeks after a person becomes infected

85
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What's the technology utilized for a p24 antigen?

ELISA like assay that

detects protein p24

86
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When does p24 antigen rise?

- 2-6 weeks post-infection

- can detect HIV infection before antibody seroconversion

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When is the p24 antigen used?

- evaluate the antiviral activity of anti-HIV treatment

- support active neonatal HIV infection

- screen donated blood

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What are the two strains of HIV?

HIV-1 and HIV-2

89
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What are the methods of HIV collection?

1. traditional blood draw

2. point of service rapid antibody screening

3. oral mucosa transudate

4. urine antibody test

90
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What is the collection of rapid POC antibody test for HIV?

finger prick or saliva

91
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What do you need in addition to a rapid POC antibody test for HIV confirmation?

NAAT

92
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What is the collection of oral mucosal transudate antibody tests for HIV?

- oral mucosa

- the saliva will contain the antibodies for the virus, not the virus itself

93
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Why is there always one line visible with oral mucosal transudate antibody test for HIV?

- control line

- (+) result will have 2 lines

94
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What is collection for urine sample antibody test for HIV?

- urine specimen

- detects HIV antibodies

95
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Which mode of antibody collection for HIV is best?

serum

96
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What is the confirmatory tests for HIV?

NAAT test

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What is the MOA of NAAT test for HIV?

quantifies HIV RNA viral load

98
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What is the clinical use of the NAAT test for HIV?

- differentiates true newborn HIV infection from passive antibodies

- confirms a true HIV infection

99
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What are false positives for HIV serology?

- Technical errors

- Assay with reduced specificity

- HIV-1 trial vaccine

- Hypergammaglobulinemia

100
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What are false negatives for HIV serology?

- Technical errors

- Early incubation stage

- Delayed seroconversion

- Immunosuppression