Neo/Peds quiz 3

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Last updated 3:39 PM on 6/18/26
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96 Terms

1
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Smooth muscle contraction occurs when?

Calcium enters the smooth muscle cell causing vasoconstriction.

2
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Smooth muscle relaxation occurs when?

Calcium is prevented from entering or removed from the cell causing vasodilation.

3
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What is maladaptation pulmonary hypertension?

Structurally normal pulmonary vessels that remain constricted.

4
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What lung diseases commonly cause maladaptation?

MAS, RDS, and pneumonia.

5
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What is excessive muscularization?

Remodeling of pulmonary vessels causing increased smooth muscle.

6
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What is hypoplastic vasculature?

Underdeveloped pulmonary blood vessels.

7
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What is the main effect of nitric oxide (NO)?

Pulmonary vasodilation.

8
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What second messenger does nitric oxide increase?

cGMP.

9
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What is the effect of prostaglandins?

Increase cAMP causing pulmonary vasodilation.

10
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What is the effect of endothelin?

Increases calcium and causes vasoconstriction.

11
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What do PDE inhibitors do?

Prevent breakdown of cAMP and cGMP, promoting vasodilation.

12
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What is the first-line treatment for pulmonary hypertension?

Oxygen.

13
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How can mechanical ventilation help pulmonary hypertension?

Corrects acidosis and improves pulmonary vascular tone.

14
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What inhaled pulmonary vasodilator is FDA approved for newborn hypoxic respiratory failure?

Inhaled nitric oxide (iNO).

15
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What is the FDA-approved indication for iNO?

Newborn hypoxic respiratory failure with OI > 25.

16
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What is the Oxygen Index formula?

OI = MAP Ă— (FiO2 Ă· PaO2) Ă— 100.

17
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What Oxygen Index is associated with ECMO consideration?

OI > 40.

18
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How does inhaled nitric oxide improve oxygenation?

Redirects blood flow to ventilated alveoli.

19
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Why are inhaled vasodilators preferred over systemic vasodilators?

They improve V/Q matching and reduce shunt.

20
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What is a major disadvantage of IV vasodilators?

Systemic hypotension and V/Q mismatch.

21
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What congenital heart condition is a contraindication to iNO?

Ductal-dependent congenital heart lesions.

22
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What is the starting dose of inhaled nitric oxide?

20 ppm.

23
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Why are higher doses of iNO generally avoided?

They increase side effects without improving outcomes.

24
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What is the most common cause of iNO treatment failure?

Inadequate lung inflation.

25
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Why must nitric oxide be weaned slowly?

To prevent rebound pulmonary hypertension.

26
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What is rebound pulmonary hypertension?

Worsening pulmonary hypertension after abrupt discontinuation of iNO.

27
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What toxic gas forms when nitric oxide combines with oxygen?

Nitrogen dioxide (NOâ‚‚).

28
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What blood abnormality can occur with prolonged iNO doses >40 ppm?

Methemoglobinemia.

29
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What should be monitored while a patient is receiving iNO?

FiO2, NO, NO2, SpO2, methemoglobin levels, blood gases, and tank pressure.

30
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What is the normal methemoglobin level?

0.2-0.6%.

31
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What does ECMO stand for?

Extracorporeal Membrane Oxygenation.

32
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What is ECMO?

Blood is removed, oxygenated outside the body, and returned to the patient.

33
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What is the purpose of ECMO?

Provide temporary cardiac and/or pulmonary support.

34
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What mortality risk is typically associated with ECMO candidates?

Approximately 80%.

35
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What neonatal diagnoses commonly require ECMO?

PPHN, MAS, RDS, sepsis, CDH, and air leaks.

36
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What gestational age is generally required for neonatal ECMO?

Greater than 32 weeks.

37
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What pediatric P/F ratio is associated with 80% mortality?

Less than 75.

38
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What is ECPR?

ECMO initiated during or after cardiopulmonary arrest.

39
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What are the two major ECMO modes?

Venoarterial (VA) and Venovenous (VV).

40
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What does VA ECMO support?

Both heart and lung function.

41
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What does VV ECMO support?

Lung function only.

42
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What vessel returns blood during VA ECMO?

An artery.

43
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What vessel returns blood during VV ECMO?

A vein.

44
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Which ECMO mode is most efficient?

VA ECMO.

45
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Which ECMO mode preserves pulsatile blood flow?

VV ECMO.

46
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What oxygen saturation is commonly seen on VV ECMO until lung recovery?

80-85%.

47
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What are the major ECMO circuit components?

Cannulas, tubing, pump, oxygenator, heat exchanger, sweep gas system, alarms, and pressure monitors.

48
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Why is COâ‚‚ used during ECMO priming?

To displace air from the circuit.

49
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Why is albumin used during priming?

To coat the circuit and reduce clotting.

50
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What determines COâ‚‚ removal across the ECMO membrane?

Sweep gas flow and driving pressure.

51
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What increases COâ‚‚ removal?

Increased sweep gas flow.

52
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What determines oxygen transfer across the ECMO membrane?

FiOâ‚‚, blood flow, membrane surface area, and blood path thickness.

53
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What happens if blood moves too quickly through the oxygenator?

Reduced oxygen transfer.

54
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What should be monitored to assess ECMO circuit function?

Temperature, flow, pressure, clots, bubbles, and gas exchange.

55
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What laboratory values help assess organ perfusion during ECMO?

Lactate, creatinine, electrolytes, and SvOâ‚‚.

56
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What ACT range is commonly targeted during ECMO?

180-200 seconds.

57
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What anticoagulant is most commonly used during ECMO?

Heparin.

58
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What imaging is commonly used to monitor neurologic status during ECMO?

Cranial ultrasound.

59
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What is the average ECMO duration?

4-6 days.

60
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How is VV ECMO commonly weaned?

Decrease and discontinue sweep gas.

61
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How is VA ECMO commonly weaned?

Increase ventilator support and decrease ECMO blood flow.

62
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What is the most common complication of ECMO?

Neurologic complications.

63
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What are common patient complications of ECMO?

Hemorrhage, IVH, embolism, seizures, arrhythmias, and infection.

64
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What are common mechanical complications of ECMO?

Clots, air emboli, pump failure, oxygenator failure, tubing rupture, and cannula problems.

65
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What is the greatest cause of adverse events during transport?

Communication failures.

66
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What organization accredits medical transport programs?

CAMTS.

67
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What does CAMTS stand for?

Commission on Accreditation of Medical Transport Systems.

68
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What is the purpose of CAMTS accreditation?

Ensure quality and safety standards.

69
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What information should be gathered before transport?

Age, weight, diagnosis, history, vital signs, medications, treatments, and lines.

70
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What is the purpose of a pre-transport assessment?

Determine destination, staffing, equipment, and monitoring needs.

71
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What does "Stay and Play" mean?

Stabilize before transport.

72
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What does "Scoop and Run" mean?

Rapid transport with minimal stabilization.

73
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When is ground transport typically preferred for critical patients?

Less than 30 miles.

74
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When is ground transport preferred for stable patients?

Less than 80 miles.

75
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What transport mode is generally used for distances of 30-150 miles?

Helicopter (rotor wing).

76
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What transport mode is generally used for distances greater than 120 miles?

Fixed wing aircraft.

77
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What is a major advantage of ground transport?

Can operate in poor weather and carry more equipment.

78
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What is a major disadvantage of ground transport?

Traffic delays.

79
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What is a major advantage of helicopter transport?

Rapid response.

80
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What is a major disadvantage of helicopter transport?

Limited space and weather restrictions.

81
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What is a major advantage of fixed wing transport?

Long distance travel with cabin pressurization.

82
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What personnel may be included on pediatric transport teams?

RN, RT, EMT, NP, physician, and safety officer.

83
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Which patients often require an RT during transport?

Ventilated patients and patients needing ≥60% oxygen.

84
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What certifications are commonly required for transport personnel?

BLS, ACLS, PALS, NRP, and STABLE.

85
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What does STABLE stand for?

Sugar, Temperature, Airway, Blood Pressure, Lab Work, Emotional Support.

86
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What communication format is recommended during transport?

SBAR.

87
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What does SBAR stand for?

Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation.

88
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What monitoring equipment should accompany transported patients?

ECG, BP, SpOâ‚‚, and EtCOâ‚‚ monitoring.

89
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What respiratory equipment should accompany transported patients?

Ventilator and manual resuscitator.

90
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What medical gases may be required during transport?

Oxygen, air, nitric oxide, and heliox.

91
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What law explains gas expansion at altitude?

Boyle's Law.

92
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What happens to gas volume as altitude increases?

Gas expands.

93
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What law explains reduced oxygen availability at altitude?

Dalton's Law.

94
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What happens to oxygen partial pressure as altitude increases?

It decreases.

95
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What can happen to an endotracheal tube cuff during air transport?

It expands.

96
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What can happen to a pneumothorax at altitude?

It expands and worsens.