Genes, Chromosomes, Inheritance & Epigenetics – Unit 2 AOS 1

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A comprehensive set of Q&A flashcards covering DNA structure, genes, chromosomes, karyotypes, meiosis, inheritance patterns, genotype vs phenotype, as well as environmental and epigenetic influences on gene expression.

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90 Terms

1
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What is the primary function of DNA in an organism?

To act as the genetic blueprint that codes for and determines an organism’s physical, behavioural and physiological characteristics.

2
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Describe the basic structure of a DNA molecule.

Double-stranded nucleic acid composed of repeating nucleotides arranged in a double helix.

3
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Name the three components of a nucleotide.

A phosphate group, a deoxyribose sugar and a nitrogen-containing base.

4
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Which nitrogen bases pair together in DNA?

Adenine with thymine, and guanine with cytosine.

5
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Define gene.

A sequence of DNA nucleotides that codes for a specific protein and contributes to a particular trait.

6
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Define allele.

An alternative form of the same gene with small differences in nucleotide sequence.

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How many alleles for each gene does a diploid organism inherit?

Two—one from the mother and one from the father.

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Define genome.

The sum total of all genes in an organism, measured by the number of base pairs in a haploid set.

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Approximately how many base pairs make up the human genome?

About 3 billion base pairs.

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What is a chromosome?

A linear structure of tightly coiled DNA wrapped around histone proteins (chromatin).

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Name four key parts of a duplicated chromosome.

Telomere, centromere, chromatid, and locus.

12
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Differentiate unduplicated vs duplicated chromosome.

Unduplicated: one chromosome, one chromatid; Duplicated: one chromosome, two sister chromatids.

13
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Define haploid (n).

A cell containing one copy of each chromosome; found only in gametes.

14
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Define diploid (2n).

A cell containing two copies of every chromosome; found in somatic cells.

15
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How many chromosomes are in human haploid and diploid cells?

n = 23; 2n = 46.

16
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What happens to telomeres after each mitotic division?

They shorten, contributing to cellular ageing and eventual cell death.

17
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What enzyme maintains telomere length in gametes?

Telomerase.

18
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What are homologous chromosomes?

A pair of chromosomes of similar length, centromere position, and gene loci—one maternal, one paternal.

19
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Define karyotype.

A visual display of all the chromosomes in a cell, arranged in decreasing size.

20
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Distinguish autosomes from sex chromosomes.

Autosomes (chromosomes 1–22) carry most body-function genes; sex chromosomes (X or Y) determine biological sex and related traits.

21
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Define aneuploidy.

Addition or loss of a single chromosome within the genome.

22
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Define polyploidy.

Presence of three or more complete sets of chromosomes in the genome.

23
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What chromosomal change causes Turner syndrome?

Monosomy of the sex chromosome (XO).

24
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What chromosomal change causes Down syndrome?

Trisomy of chromosome 21.

25
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What chromosomal change causes Klinefelter syndrome?

An extra X chromosome (XXY).

26
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What is tetrasomy X?

Presence of two extra X chromosomes (XXXX).

27
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Why is polyploidy usually lethal in humans but beneficial in some plants?

Human development cannot tolerate extra sets; plants often gain size and hardiness from them.

28
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State the purpose of meiosis.

To produce haploid gametes for sexual reproduction, ensuring chromosome number is halved.

29
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How many daughter cells result from meiosis and are they identical?

Four genetically different haploid daughter cells.

30
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List two events in meiosis that create genetic diversity.

Crossing over (prophase I) and independent/random assortment (metaphase I).

31
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What is crossing over?

Exchange of DNA segments between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes at chiasmata during prophase I.

32
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Define recombinant chromatid.

A chromatid that contains a new combination of alleles after crossing over.

33
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What is independent (random) assortment?

Random orientation of homologous chromosome pairs on the metaphase plate in metaphase I.

34
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Approximately how many chromosome combinations can independent assortment create in humans?

About 8 million.

35
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Compare mitosis and meiosis in terms of daughter cells produced.

Mitosis: two identical diploid cells; Meiosis: four non-identical haploid cells.

36
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What is nondisjunction?

Failure of chromosomes to separate properly during anaphase, leading to gametes with abnormal chromosome numbers.

37
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Define genotype.

The combination of alleles an organism carries for a particular gene, usually written as two letters.

38
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Define phenotype.

The observable physical, physiological or behavioural traits of an organism.

39
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What is complete dominance?

A pattern where a dominant allele fully masks a recessive allele in the heterozygote phenotype.

40
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What is codominance?

Both alleles are equally and simultaneously expressed in the heterozygote phenotype.

41
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What is incomplete dominance?

The heterozygote phenotype is a blend of the two alleles.

42
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Give the three zygosity terms and their meanings.

Homozygous dominant (AA), heterozygous (Aa), homozygous recessive (aa).

43
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Which human blood group alleles are codominant?

IA (A) and IB (B).

44
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Which blood group allele is recessive?

i (O).

45
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What genotype produces blood type AB?

IAIB.

46
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What is a sex-linked gene?

A gene located on a sex chromosome (X-linked or Y-linked).

47
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Why are X-linked recessive traits more common in males?

Males have only one X chromosome, so any allele present is expressed.

48
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Explain heterozygote advantage with the sickle cell example.

Ss genotype confers malaria resistance without causing full sickle cell anaemia, giving a survival benefit in malaria regions.

49
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State the formula for phenotype influence.

Phenotype = genes + environment (+ epigenetics).

50
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Define proportionate heritability.

The ratio that quantifies how much of a trait is due to genetic versus environmental factors.

51
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Provide the approximate proportionate heritability for human height.

70–80% genes, 20–30% environment.

52
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Give an environmental factor that alters phenotype and an example.

Temperature—Himalayan rabbit fur turns darker in cool body regions.

53
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Define epigenetics.

Study of heritable changes in gene expression that do not alter the DNA sequence.

54
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Name three major epigenetic mechanisms.

DNA methylation, histone methylation, histone acetylation.

55
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How does DNA methylation affect transcription?

Adds methyl groups to DNA, decreasing transcription and silencing genes.

56
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What effect does histone methylation have on DNA packaging?

Tightens DNA around histones, decreasing transcription.

57
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What effect does histone acetylation have on gene expression?

Loosens DNA wound around histones, increasing transcription.

58
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What is somatic epigenetic inheritance?

Transmission of epigenetic marks from parent cell to daughter somatic cells during mitosis.

59
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Define transgenerational epigenetic inheritance.

Epigenetic changes that escape reprogramming in gametes and are passed to offspring.

60
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What are endocrine-disrupting chemicals (EDCs)?

Compounds that interfere with hormone signalling and can cause epigenetic changes.

61
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List two common EDCs and one epigenetic effect of each.

BPA—early puberty & obesity risk; Phthalates—low sperm count & developmental issues.

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Which historical drug (DES) caused transgenerational epigenetic effects?

Diethylstilbestrol, linked to cancers and reproductive issues in descendants.

63
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Why do identical twins become more different with age?

Accumulated unique environmental exposures lead to divergent epigenetic modifications.

64
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Name two lifestyle choices that slow telomere shortening.

Mediterranean diet rich in antioxidants and regular physical activity.

65
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What cellular change occurs when tomato DNA methylation decreases?

Ripening genes are activated, leading to fruit ripening.

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How can hypermethylation contribute to cancer?

It can silence tumour-suppressor genes, allowing uncontrolled cell growth.

67
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What is the charge relationship between DNA and histones?

DNA is negatively charged; histones are positively charged, enabling binding.

68
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During which meiotic phase do homologous chromosomes separate?

Anaphase I.

69
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During which meiotic phase do sister chromatids separate?

Anaphase II.

70
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Which two meiotic stages immediately follow prophase I and II respectively?

Metaphase I follows prophase I; metaphase II follows prophase II.

71
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What arrests female oocytes during fetal development?

They stop in prophase I until puberty.

72
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Which meiotic division completes just before ovulation in females?

Completion of meiosis I.

73
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What is the centromere’s role?

Holds sister chromatids together and provides attachment for spindle fibres.

74
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Define telomere.

A protective cap at chromosome ends that prevents fusion with other chromosomes.

75
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What is a locus?

The specific physical location of a gene on a chromosome.

76
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Explain why chromosome number does not equal genetic complexity.

Gene count varies; e.g., tomatoes (24 chromosomes, 32 000 genes) vs chickens (78 chromosomes, 17 000 genes).

77
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What is chromatin?

DNA wrapped around histone proteins, forming the material of chromosomes.

78
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Which phase of the cell cycle duplicates chromosomes before meiosis?

Interphase (S phase).

79
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What is a chiasma?

The physical point where crossing over occurs between non-sister chromatids.

80
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How many different paternal/maternal combinations can meiosis create before considering crossing over?

About 8 million due to random assortment alone.

81
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What symbol set represents normal colour vision vs colour blindness in X-linked notation?

XR = normal; Xr = red-green colour blindness.

82
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Which genotype is homozygous dominant for widow’s peak?

HH.

83
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Give an example of incomplete dominance in flowers.

Red (CRCR) × white (CWCW) producing pink (CRCW) offspring.

84
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Which genotype yields type O blood?

ii.

85
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What percentage of normal human somatic cells typically divide before telomere-driven senescence?

Approximately 45–50 divisions.

86
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Why must telomerase activity be tightly regulated?

Excessive activation is linked to cancer cell immortality.

87
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What is the molecular basis of the heterozygote advantage against malaria?

Presence of some sickle-shaped red cells hinders Plasmodium infection.

88
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Which epigenetic change generally increases gene expression?

Histone acetylation.

89
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What is the consequence of adding methyl groups to histones?

Reduced transcription due to tighter DNA winding.

90
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How can environment lead to epigenetic changes?

Factors like diet, toxins or stress modify DNA/histone marks, altering gene activity.