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1. What does the medical suffix "-penia" indicate?

"-penia" means a deficiency or decrease in number.
Example: Leukopenia = low white blood cell count.

1. What does an elevated ST segment on an EKG suggest?

A portion of the heart muscle is not receiving enough blood due to a complete blockage in a coronary artery.

• may indicate heart attack

1. Which organ produces bile, and what is its function?

the liver

1. What is the difference between ischemia and infarction?

• Ischemia = insufficient blood flow to tissue, leading to oxygen shortage.

• Infarction = tissue death due to prolonged ischemia.

1. Which cranial nerve is associated with vision?

The optic nerve (Cranial Nerve II) is responsible for vision.

1. How is hemolysis diagnosed, and what are its causes?

is the destruction of red blood cells (RBCs) before their normal lifespan is over.

Blood tests showing elevated LDH, low haptoglobin, elevated indirect bilirubin, and reticulocytosis.

Causes:
• Autoimmune diseases (e.g., autoimmune hemolytic anemia)
• Infections (e.g., malaria)
• Medications or toxins
• Genetic conditions (e.g., sickle cell, G6PD deficiency)

1. What does the Glasgow Coma Scale assess in patients?

evaluates level of consciousness in patients with brain injury.

It assesses Eye opening (E), Verbal response (V), and Motor response (M) — total score ranges from 3 (deep coma) to 15 (fully alert).

1. What is the role of the hypothalamus in homeostasis?

regulates body temperature, hunger, thirst, sleep, emotional activity, and hormone release (via the pituitary), maintaining internal balance (homeostasis).

1. Define "tachyarrhythmia" and list common symptoms.

• any abnormally fast and irregular heart rhythm (usually >100 bpm).

• Common symptoms:
  • Palpitations
  • Dizziness or lightheadedness
  • Shortness of breath
  • Chest discomfort
  • Syncope (fainting)

1. What is a critical step in preparing documents for HIPAA compliance?

• De-identification: Remove all identifying info so the data can't be traced back to a person.

• Access Controls: Keep PHI safe by allowing only certain people to access it, and using tools like encryption, passwords, and secure systems.

1. What does a positive Brudzinski’s sign indicate?

1. suggests meningeal irritation, often due to meningitis.
   → Sign: When the neck is passively flexed, the patient involuntarily flexes the hips and knees.

1. Explain the condition "pneumothorax" and its symptoms.

2. is the presence of air in the pleural space, causing lung collapse.
   → Symptoms:
   • Sudden, sharp chest pain
   • Shortness of breath
   • Decreased breath sounds on affected side
   • Tachycardia
   The pleural space is a thin, fluid-filled gap between two layers that surround your lungs:

   1. Visceral pleura – stuck to the lungs

   2. Parietal pleura – stuck to the chest wall

1. What is atrial fibrillation, and how is it detected?

is an irregular and often rapid heart rhythm originating in the atria.
→ Detected by:
• ECG: shows irregularly irregular rhythm with no distinct P waves
• May also be suspected in patients with palpitations, fatigue, or dizziness

1. How is chronic kidney disease different from acute kidney injury?

• Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD):
  • Gradual, progressive loss of kidney function over ≥3 months
  • Often irreversible
  • Common causes: diabetes, hypertension

• Acute Kidney Injury (AKI):
  • Sudden decline in kidney function over hours to days
  • Often reversible with prompt treatment
  • Causes: dehydration, toxins, ischemia, obstruction

1. What diagnostic test confirms pleural effusion (abnormal amount of fluid in the pleural space) ?

Chest X-ray is the most common initial test.

1. How do you document a suspected stroke in a SOAP note?

S (Subjective):
• Patient reports sudden weakness, slurred speech, or vision changes.
O (Objective):
• Facial droop, arm drift, speech impairment
• Vital signs, neurological exam findings
A (Assessment):
• Suspected acute ischemic stroke (or hemorrhagic if indicated)
P (Plan):
• Immediate stroke code activation
• STAT CT brain
• Neurology consult
• Monitor ABCs, establish IV access, check glucose

1. What is thrombocytopenia, and what are the potential dangers?

low platelet count (<150,000/µL)
→ Dangers:
• Increased bleeding risk (gums, nose, GI tract, skin)
• Petechiae or purpura (ig they are like lil spots on the skin)
• In severe cases, internal bleeding or hemorrhagic stroke

1. Describe the process of gas exchange in alveoli.

• You inhale oxygen-rich air into the alveoli.

• Oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into the blood.

• Carbon dioxide (a waste gas) diffuses from the blood into the alveoli.

• You exhale carbon dioxide out of the body.

1. What is an ABG test, and why is it ordered?

ABG (Arterial Blood Gas) measures pmeasures the levels of oxygen (O₂), carbon dioxide (CO₂), and acidity (pH) in arterial blood.

Why is it ordered?

• To assess lung function and how well oxygen is getting into the blood

• To evaluate acid-base balance in the body (detect acidosis or alkalosis)

• To check for respiratory or metabolic problems like COPD, asthma, kidney failure, or sepsis

• To guide treatment decisions in critically ill patients

1. What does the term "cyanotic congenital heart defect" mean?

is a heart abnormality present at birth that results in poorly oxygenated (blue) blood entering systemic circulation, causing cyanosis (bluish skin/lips).

1. How would a scribe document findings of an abdominal mass in the Objective section?

“Abdominal exam reveals a palpable, firm, non-tender mass approximately 5 cm in diameter located in the right lower quadrant. Mass is fixed with minimal mobility. No overlying skin changes or rebound tenderness noted.”

1. What is the function of the vomer bone in the human body?

the inferior part of the nasal septum, dividing the nasal cavity into two halves, which helps direct airflow and supports the structure of the nose.

1. What are the signs and symptoms of peripheral artery disease?

• (calf pain during walking)

• Cold, pale, or bluish extremities

• Weak or absent pulses in legs/feet

• Non-healing wounds or ulcers on lower limbs

• Numbness or weakness in legs

• Hair loss on legs and feet

1. Define "normal sinus rhythm" and its implications for cardiac health.

s the normal, healthy heart rhythm that originates from the sinus node (the heart’s natural pacemaker).

• Heart rate: 60–100 beats per minute

• Rhythm: Regular (evenly spaced beats)

• P wave: Present before every QRS complex

• P wave axis: Upright in leads I and II

• PR interval: Normal (0.12–0.20 sec)

1. What is the primary organ affected in cirrhosis?

The liver is the organ affected; cirrhosis causes scarring and impaired liver function.

1. What does the term "idiopathic" mean?

means a disease or condition arising spontaneously or from an unknown cause.

1. What is the significance of a D-dimer test in diagnosing pulmonary embolism?

helps rule out pulmonary embolism in low-risk patients; a negative result makes PE unlikely, but Pulmonary embolism (PE) is caused by a blood clot in the lungs

• A high D-dimer suggests there may be significant clot formation and breakdown in the body

1. How is sepsis different from septic shock?

sepsis: A life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by the body’s extreme response to infection

septic shock: A severe form of sepsis with dangerously low blood pressure and organ failure

1. What is the standard treatment for a myocardial infarction (MI)?

• Aspirin

• Nitroglycerin

• Oxygen (if hypoxic)

• Morphine (for pain)

• Reperfusion therapy (PCI or thrombolytics)

• Beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, statins as adjuncts

1. What neurological symptoms are associated with multiple sclerosis?

A disease in which the immune system eats away at the protective covering of nerves.

• Muscle weakness and spasticity

• Numbness or tingling

• Vision problems (optic neuritis)

• Coordination and balance issues

• Fatigue

• Cognitive impairment

• Bladder and bowel dysfunction

1. How can an endoscopy assist in diagnosing gastrointestinal bleeding?

An endoscopy allows direct visualization of the esophagus, stomach, and duodenum (upper GI tract) using a flexible camera.

1. What is the medical abbreviation for a fasting blood sugar test?

FBS = Fasting Blood Sugar
It measures blood glucose levels after 8–12 hours of fasting to help diagnose diabetes or prediabetes.

1. How do corticosteroids affect the body’s immune response?

Corticosteroids are immunosuppressive and anti-inflammatory.
They:

• Inhibit cytokine production

• Suppress T-cell and B-cell activity

• Reduce inflammation and immune cell migration

1. What is the difference between hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism?

1. hyperthyroidism Excess (↑ T3/T4)

2. hypothyroidism Deficient (↓ T3/T4)

1. Which muscles are primarily responsible for inspiration during breathing?

• Diaphragm (main muscle of inspiration)

• External intercostal muscles (elevate ribs and expand chest)
  During forced inspiration, accessory muscles include:

• Sternocleidomastoid

• Scalene muscles

1. What are the key findings of a complete blood count (CBC) test in anemia?

A CBC (Complete Blood Count) checks your blood.
In anemia, it shows:

• Low red blood cells (RBCs)

• Low hemoglobin (the part of blood that carries oxygen)

• Low hematocrit (how much of your blood is made of red cells)

1. How are sprains categorized by severity?

A sprain = stretched or torn ligament (what connects bones).

Sprains come in 3 levels:

• Grade 1 (mild) – a little stretched, minor pain.

• Grade 2 (moderate) – partially torn, more pain and swelling.

• Grade 3 (severe) – fully torn, big swelling, can’t use the joint well.

1. What is a lumbar puncture, and when is it performed?

A lumbar puncture (also called a spinal tap) is when a needle is put into the lower back to collect spinal fluid.

Doctors use it to:

• Check for infections (like meningitis)

• Look for bleeding in the brain

• Measure pressure in the brain

1. What does the acronym “LOC” stand for in a clinical setting?

Level of Consciousness
It tells how awake and alert a person is.
Example:

• "Alert" = fully awake

• "Unresponsive" = not waking up

1. What are the risks and benefits of anticoagulant therapy?

Blood thinners (anticoagulants) help prevent clots that can cause strokes or heart attacks.

• Benefits: They lower the risk of dangerous clots.

• Risks: They can cause bleeding, like nosebleeds or worse, internal bleeding.

1. What are common causes of hyponatremia?

= low sodium in the blood.

It can happen from:

• Too much water in the body

• Vomiting or diarrhea

• Certain medications (like water pills/diuretics)

• Heart, kidney, or liver problems

1. How is COPD different from asthma in terms of symptoms and management?

COPD (Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease.)= Mostly from smoking

Constant cough, trouble breathing,

Inhalers, oxygen, stop smoking

asthma = Often from allergies or triggers

Comes and goes, triggered by things

Inhalers, avoid triggers

1. Define “palliative care,” and provide an example of its application.

medical care to help people feel better when they have a serious illness.

• Focuses on comfort, pain relief, and support — not curing the illness.

1. What is pruritus, and what are potential underlying causes?

pruritus = itching
Causes:

• Skin problems (like eczema)

• Liver or kidney disease

• Allergies

• Some cancers (like lymphoma)

1. What is the medical significance of rebound tenderness?

rebound tenderness = when you press on the belly and it hurts more when you let go.

It could mean:

• The lining of the belly is inflamed.

• Seen in serious conditions like appendicitis.

• Doctors take it seriously.

1. How does a PET scan differ from an MRI?

• PET scan (Positron Emission Tomography):

  • Shows how the body is working — like metabolism or activity in organs or tissues.

  • Often used to detect cancer, check brain function, or see heart damage.

  • Uses a small amount of radioactive material.

• MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging):

  • Shows detailed pictures of structures inside the body.

  • Great for soft tissues like the brain, spinal cord, joints, etc.

  • Uses magnets and radio waves, no radiation.

• PET = function/activity; MRI = structure/anatomy

1. What is the role of albumin in maintaining oncotic pressure?

• Albumin is a protein in the blood.

• It helps hold water inside blood vessels by creating oncotic pressure (a type of pressure that pulls fluid into the bloodstream).

• Without enough albumin, fluid can leak into tissues → swelling/edema.

1. How is an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) diagnosed clinically?

AMI = heart attack.
Diagnosed using 3 main things:

1. Symptoms: Chest pain, shortness of breath, sweating, nausea.

2. ECG (Electrocardiogram): Looks for changes like ST elevation.

1. What are the critical functions of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)?

CSF is a clear fluid around the brain and spinal cord.
It:

• Protects the brain/spinal cord (acts like a cushion),

• Removes waste,

• Helps maintain pressure and balance in the brain,

• Delivers nutrients.

1. What does the medical term “anosmia” refer to?

Anosmia = loss of sense of smell.

It can be caused by:

• Colds, sinus infections,

• Head injury,

• Neurological diseases (e.g., Parkinson’s),

• COVID-19.

1. What is venous thromboembolism, and how is it treated?

VTE = a blood clot in a vein.

There are two main types:

• DVT (Deep Vein Thrombosis): Usually in the leg.

• PE (Pulmonary Embolism): Clot travels to the lungs — life-threatening.

Treatment:

• Anticoagulants (blood thinners like heparin, warfarin, or DOACs),

• Compression stockings (for DVT),

• In severe cases: clot-busting drugs or surgery.

1. Which diagnostic tool is most useful in identifying heart valve disease?

Echocardiogram (heart ultrasound)

• Shows how the heart valves open and close,

• Detects leaky valves, narrow valves, or abnormal heart flow.

1. What does the suffix "-megaly" indicate, and give an example.

“-megaly” = enlargement

cardiomegaly

1. Define oliguria, and list two conditions where it might be observed.

Oliguria = low urine output

(Typically less than 400–500 mL in 24 hours in adults)

• Kidney failure

• Severe dehydration

• Also can occur in shock or after major surgery.

1. How does magnetic resonance angiography (MRA) aid in diagnosing strokes?

MRA = special type of MRI that looks at blood vessels.

• It shows blockages or narrowing in arteries going to the brain.

• Helps find the cause of a stroke — especially if it's from a clot or reduced blood flow.

1. What is the defining feature of an obstructive lung disease like emphysema?

Airflow blockage — especially when exhaling.

• In emphysema, the air sacs in the lungs are damaged.

• Air gets trapped in the lungs → harder to breathe out.

• trouble getting air OUT

1. What is the difference between macroscopic and microscopic hematuria?

• Macroscopic hematuria:
  Blood is visible in urine (urine looks red or brown).

• Microscopic hematuria:
  Blood is not visible, but found on urine test (urinalysis) under a microscope.

Both mean there’s blood in the urine, but only microscopic needs lab tools to detect.

1. What does a high erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) indicate?

ESR is a blood test that shows inflammation in the body.

maybe cancer

maybe lupus

maybe autoimmune disease

1. What is a myocardial perfusion scan, and what does it evaluate?

This is a special heart test using a small amount of radioactive dye.

🫀 It shows:

• Blood flow to the heart muscle,

• Blocked or narrowed arteries,

• Areas of the heart not getting enough oxygen (especially during exercise).

Used to check for coronary artery disease or damage from a past heart attack.

1. How does a medical scribe document a patient’s mood or affect?

Usually in the Psychiatric or Mental Status section of the note.

You’d write:

• Mood = how the patient says they feel (“patient states they feel anxious”)

• Affect = how they seem to the provider (e.g., “flat,” “tearful,” “appropriate,” “labile”)

📝 Example scribe note:

“Patient reports feeling sad; affect is flat.”

1. What is the medical term for painful urination?

Dysuria = painful or uncomfortable urination

Common in:

• Urinary tract infections (UTIs)

• STIs

1. What abnormalities might you expect in an ECG of a patient with hyperkalemia?

hyperkalemia = high potassium levels in the blood.

An ECG (or EKG) is a test that shows the electrical activity of the heart.
It helps doctors see if the heart is beating normally.

1. Peaked T waves

The QRS is just the part of a heart test (called an ECG or EKG) that shows when your heart is squeezing (pumping blood out).

2. Widened QRS complex

• The QRS is the part that shows the ventricles contracting.

• In hyperkalemia, this gets wider (slower electrical signal).

3. Flat or missing P waves

4. maybe cardiac arrest

1. What is a tension pneumothorax, and why is it a medical emergency?

It’s a type of collapsed lung where air gets trapped in the chest and can't escape.

🔴 What happens:

• Pressure builds up,

• Pushes the heart and other lung out of place,

• Stops the heart from pumping properly.

🚨 Life-threatening → needs immediate needle decompression or chest tube.

1. Define "cachexia" and its association with chronic diseases.

Cachexia = extreme weight loss and muscle wasting, even if the patient is eating.

Seen in:

• Cancer

• Heart failure

• Chronic kidney disease

• Advanced infections (like HIV)

1. How is viral meningitis diagnosed and differentiated from bacterial meningitis?

• Meningitis = infection of the layers around the brain and spinal cord.

• Doctors do a spinal tap (lumbar puncture) to take some fluid from around the spine.

• Then they test the fluid to see if the infection is caused by a virus or bacteria.

Viral Meningitis: Usually slower and less severe, Lots of immune cells called lymphocytes, sugar levels in fluid normal, slightly high protein in fluid, usually gets better on its own.

bacterial meningitis: Starts quickly, very serious, Lots of immune cells called neutrophils (more aggressive), Low (bacteria eat sugar), protein levels high, needs antibiotics right away

• Viral meningitis = usually less serious, no antibiotics needed.

• Bacterial meningitis = emergency, antibiotics are a must.

1. What is an AAA scan, and what does it detect?

Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
An AAA scan is usually an ultrasound of the abdomen that checks the size of the aorta (the body’s biggest artery).

• It looks for a bulge or swelling in the aorta, called an aneurysm.

• If the aneurysm gets too big, it could burst, which is life-threatening.

📝 Common finding:

"AAA measuring 4.8 cm, no evidence of rupture."

1. How would a scribe document Glasgow Coma Scale findings in a SOAP note?

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a score from 3 to 15 that shows how awake and responsive a person is after a head injury or if they’re unconscious.

It has 3 parts:

• Eye response (E)

• Verbal response (V)

• Motor response (M)

📝 How to write it in a note:

“GCS 14 (E4, V4, M6) — patient opens eyes spontaneously, confused speech, obeys commands.”

Put this in the Objective section of the SOAP note.

1. What laboratory test measures kidney function through creatinine clearance?

Creatinine Clearance Test

• Measures how well the kidneys filter waste from the blood.

• Usually involves:

  • A 24-hour urine collection,

  • A blood sample for creatinine.

🧪 Creatinine is a waste product from muscles — if the kidneys aren’t working, it builds up

1. How does anaphylaxis progress, and what is the first-line treatment?

Anaphylaxis = a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction.

🔥 What happens:

• Starts with things like:

  • Itching

  • Swelling (especially face or throat)

  • Trouble breathing

• Can get worse fast → low blood pressure, fainting, even death.

🥇 First-line treatment = epinephrine (EpiPen)

• Stops the reaction fast

• Always given right away into the muscle (usually thigh)

1. What is the mechanism of action of beta-blockers in arrhythmia management?

Beta-blockers (like metoprolol or propranolol) help control abnormal heart rhythms (arrhythmias).

⚙ How they work:

• Block beta receptors in the heart

• This slows down the heart rate

• Makes the heart beat more regularly

• Also lowers blood pressure

1. What is included in a patient’s PMH (Past Medical History)?

PMH = A list of the patient’s past or ongoing medical conditions.
Examples:

• High blood pressure (hypertension)

• Diabetes

• Asthma

• Surgeries (like appendix removal)

• Past hospitalizations

🔹 As a scribe, you'll often write: “PMH: HTN, DM, asthma.”

1. Define “polypharmacy” and the risks it presents in elderly patients.

Polypharmacy = When a patient is taking many medications (usually 5+).
Risks for elderly patients:

• More side effects

• Drug interactions

• Falls

• Confusion

🔹 You might hear: “The patient is at risk due to polypharmacy.”

1. What vital sign abnormalities indicate septic shock?

Septic shock = A dangerous response to infection.
Look for:

• Low blood pressure (even after fluids)

• High heart rate (tachycardia)

• Fever OR low body temp

• Fast breathing (tachypnea)

• Low oxygen

🔹 Vitals will look abnormal. You may write: “Patient hypotensive, febrile, tachycardic — concern for sepsis.”

1. What body system does Guillain-Barré Syndrome affect?

It affects the nervous system — specifically the peripheral nerves.
Symptoms:

• Weakness that starts in legs and moves upward

• Can lead to paralysis in severe cases

🔹 You might note: “Patient reports ascending weakness — concern for GBS.”

1. What are the causes and therapy options for pleuritic chest pain?

Pleuritic pain = Sharp chest pain that gets worse with deep breathing.
Causes:

• Pneumonia

• Pulmonary embolism (PE)

• Pleuritis (inflammation of lung lining)
  Treatment: Depends on the cause (antibiotics, blood thinners, pain meds)

🔹 “Patient with pleuritic chest pain — r/o PE vs pneumonia.”

1. How would a scribe record test results for a positive blood culture?

You’d write something like:

🔹 “Blood cultures positive for gram-positive cocci in clusters — likely Staphylococcus.”
Or just:
🔹 “Positive blood culture — organism pending.”

A blood culture is a lab test that checks your blood for germs (like bacteria or fungi). 9Positive meaning they found some

1. What does a troponin level indicate in a suspected MI case?

Troponin = A protein released when heart muscle is damaged.
High levels = likely heart attack (MI)

🔹 “Elevated troponin — consistent with myocardial injury.”

1. What does the medical term “aphasia” refer to?

Aphasia = Trouble speaking, understanding, reading, or writing due to brain damage (like from a stroke).

1. What are indicators of a lower GI bleed versus an upper GI bleed?

Upper GI bleed : Vomiting blood (bright red or coffee-ground), black/tarry stool

Lower GI bleed: Bright red blood in stool (hematochezia)
GI bleed means bleeding somewhere in your digestive system (also called the GI tract).

1. What is tympanic membrane perforation, and how is it diagnosed?

Tympanic membrane perforation = A hole in the eardrum.
Causes: Ear infections, trauma (like loud noise or poking ear).
Diagnosis:

• Ear exam with otoscope (shows the hole)

• May have hearing loss or drainage

1. What is the significance of pH imbalance in arterial blood gases?

Arterial pH tells us if the blood is too acidic or basic, which reflects how well the lungs and kidneys are working.

• Low pH (<7.35) = Acidosis → too much acid

• High pH (>7.45) = Alkalosis → too much base

1. What does “orthopnea” indicate in respiratory distress documentation?

Orthopnea = Trouble breathing when lying flat.
Often seen in heart failure — fluid backs up into lungs when lying down.

1. Why is timely administration of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) critical in strokes?

• tPA is a medicine that breaks up blood clots.

• It helps people who are having a stroke caused by a clot (called an ischemic stroke).

• It must be given fast—within a few hours after symptoms start.
  Faster treatment = better brain recovery, less damage.

1. What is the gold standard imaging test for diagnosing a pulmonary embolism?

CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA) = Best test to find a clot in the lungs.

1. How is ascites managed in patients with liver cirrhosis?

Ascites = Fluid buildup in the belly (from liver failure).
Treatment:

• Low-salt diet

• Diuretics (e.g., Lasix, spironolactone)

• Paracentesis = drain the fluid with a needle

1. What is the difference between embolism and thrombosis?

Thrombosis: A clot that forms in place (e.g., in a leg vein)
Embolism: A clot or material that travels and blocks blood flow elsewhere (e.g., PE = embolism in lungs)

1. What conditions are commonly associated with hypercalcemia?

Hypercalcemia = High calcium in blood.
Common causes:

• Hyperparathyroidism

• Cancer (especially bone or lung)

• Too much vitamin D or calcium intake

1. What is uremia, and how is it identified in lab results?

Uremia = Build-up of toxins in the blood when kidneys stop working.
Labs:

• High BUN (blood urea nitrogen)

• High creatinine

• Low GFR (poor kidney function)

1. How would a medical scribe document findings of ecchymosis (bruising)?

Ecchymosis = Medical term for bruising (discoloration from bleeding under skin).

“Ecchymosis noted to left forearm, approx. 5cm in diameter, non-tender.”

1. What is the significance of the term “regurgitation” in cardiology?

Regurgitation = A leaky heart valve — blood flows backward.
Common types:

• Mitral regurgitation

• The mitral valve (between the left atrium and left ventricle) is leaky.

• Aortic regurgitation

• The aortic valve (between the left ventricle and the aorta) is leaky.

1. How are Z-scores used in assessing pediatric growth charts?

A Z-score shows how far a child's growth measurement (like height or weight) is from the average for their age and sex.

• Z = 0 → average

• Z < -2 or > +2 → might indicate a growth problem

🔹 “Weight-for-age Z-score -2.1 — indicates underweight.”

1. What are the characteristic symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)?

IBS is a chronic gut condition with:

• Abdominal pain

• Bloating

• Changes in bowel habits: diarrhea, constipation, or both

• No visible damage on colonoscopy

1. Define “neutropenia” and list common causes.

Neutropenia = Low levels of neutrophils, a type of white blood cell.
This makes it harder to fight infections.
Common causes:

• Chemotherapy

• Bone marrow disorders

• Autoimmune diseases

1. What distinguishes diastolic heart failure from systolic heart failure?

Systolic- Heart can't pump well ↓ Low EF

Diastolic- Heart can't fill properly Normal EF

1. What is the standard treatment protocol for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)?

DKA = Serious diabetes complication with high blood sugar + ketones + acidosis
Treatment involves:

1. IV fluids (rehydration)

2. IV insulin (lower blood sugar/stop ketones)

3. Electrolyte replacement (especially potassium)

4. Monitor blood glucose and labs closely

1. How does a pulse oximeter work, and what does it measure?

A pulse oximeter clips to the finger and measures:

• Oxygen saturation (SpO₂) → % of oxygen in the blood

• Normal = 95–100%
  It uses light to detect oxygen levels in red blood cells.

1. What are the signs and symptoms of hypovolemic shock?

Hypovolemic shock = Too little blood/fluid in the body.
Signs:

• Low blood pressure (hypotension)

• Fast heart rate (tachycardia)

• Pale, cool skin

• Weakness, confusion

• Low urine output

1. How is cerebrovascular accident (stroke) evaluated in an emergency setting?

1. FAST exam (Face, Arms, Speech, Time)

2. Non-contrast head CT (rule out bleeding)

3. Neuro exam (NIH Stroke Scale)

4. Blood tests and vitals

5. If ischemic, consider tPA within the treatment window

1. How do CT and MRI scans differ in diagnostic applications?

CT (Computed Tomography),

Bones, trauma, bleeding, lungs, '

Quick, uses X-rays

use radiation

MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)

Soft tissue, brain, spinal cord, joints

Slower, no radiation

1. What does the term “necrosis” mean in a medical context, and list two examples.

Necrosis = Tissue death due to lack of oxygen or blood supply.

Examples:

• Myocardial infarction (heart muscle dies from blocked artery)

• Gangrene (skin/tissue dies from infection or poor circulation)