Second Year Comps Review – Digestive, Respiratory, Nervous Systems & General Pharmacology

A comprehensive set of 71 question-and-answer flashcards covering key facts from the lecture on digestive, respiratory, nervous systems and general pharmacology to aid exam preparation.

What enzyme is secreted in the mouth to begin carbohydrate digestion?

Salivary amylase

During swallowing, what structure closes to prevent food from entering the larynx?

The epiglottis

Where is the esophagus located relative to the trachea?

Posterior to the trachea

In which organ does protein digestion begin?

The stomach

What two substances are secreted by the parietal cells of the stomach?

Hydrochloric acid (HCl) and intrinsic factor

What protein-digesting enzyme is secreted by chief cells of the stomach?

Pepsin

What condition results from weakness or transient relaxation of the gastroesophageal sphincter?

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

List four common symptoms of GERD.

Retrosternal burning pain 30–60 min after eating, belching, foul breath/sour taste, hoarseness or asthma-like symptoms

What anatomic defect increases the risk of GERD by allowing the stomach to herniate through the diaphragm?

Hiatal hernia

Name two drug classes commonly used to reduce gastric acidity in GERD.

Antacids and proton pump inhibitors

The pyloric sphincter is located between which two parts of the digestive tract?

The stomach and the small intestine

What are the three sections of the small intestine in order?

Duodenum, jejunum, ileum

What is the main function of the villi and microvilli in the small intestine?

Absorption of nutrients by increasing surface area

What autoimmune disease causes blunting of intestinal villi due to gluten sensitivity?

Celiac disease

Name the three accessory organs that release digestive secretions into the duodenum.

Liver, gallbladder, and pancreas

What is the primary function of bile produced by the liver?

Emulsification of lipids to increase surface area for digestion

Which plasma proteins are synthesized by the liver? Give at least two examples.

Albumin, clotting factors, complement proteins

How does the liver detoxify ammonia produced from amino acid breakdown?

Converts ammonia to urea for renal excretion

Besides the liver, what other tissue stores glycogen?

Skeletal muscle

What laboratory findings suggest hepatitis?

Elevated bilirubin (jaundice) and increased AST/ALT

What term describes severe fluid accumulation often seen in end-stage cirrhosis?

Ascites

Describe the classic patient profile and main symptom of gallstones (cholelithiasis).

Female, fat, fertile, forty with colicky right upper-quadrant pain worsened by fatty meals

List the four main pancreatic exocrine secretions.

Amylase, lipase, trypsin, and bicarbonate

Why can alcohol precipitate an attack of pancreatitis?

It can cause spasm or blockage of the sphincter of Oddi, leading to enzyme backup and autodigestion

Which two blood tests are most elevated in acute pancreatitis?

Serum amylase and serum lipase

Arrange the sections of the large intestine in order starting with the cecum.

Cecum → ascending colon → transverse colon → descending colon → sigmoid colon → rectum

What is the primary function of the large intestine?

Water absorption

Crohn’s disease primarily affects which layer of the GI tract and what is its characteristic appearance?

The submucosal layer; cobblestone pattern with skip lesions

How does ulcerative colitis differ from Crohn’s disease in distribution and bleeding?

Ulcerative colitis forms one continuous lesion confined to the colon and produces bloody diarrhea

What distinguishes irritable bowel syndrome from inflammatory bowel diseases?

No inflammation or structural abnormalities; symptoms are related to nervous system/stress factors

What life-threatening complication can result from ruptured diverticulitis?

Peritonitis leading to septic shock

Where is pain typically located in appendicitis?

Lower right quadrant of the abdomen

What screening procedure is recommended after age 50 to detect precancerous colon polyps?

Routine colonoscopy

In the respiratory tract, what structure houses the vocal cords?

The larynx

Where is the trachea located relative to the esophagus?

Anterior to the esophagus

List three hallmark systemic symptoms of influenza.

High fever, chills, and significant body aches (headache, fatigue, etc.)

How do decongestants relieve nasal congestion and what sympathetic side effects can they produce?

They constrict blood vessels; side effects include anxiety, hypertension, palpitations, tachycardia, and insomnia

What immune cells and antibody class are involved in allergic asthma within the bronchioles?

Mast cells/basophils bearing IgE antibodies

What is the purpose of surfactant in the alveoli?

To decrease surface tension, preventing alveolar collapse and increasing lung compliance

Differentiate pleural effusion from pneumonia.

Pleural effusion is fluid between pleural membranes; pneumonia is infection/inflammation with fluid inside the alveoli

Define pneumothorax and list two common symptoms.

Air in the pleural cavity causing lung collapse; symptoms include sudden chest pain and shortness of breath

What causes a pulmonary embolism and what key symptom pattern does it produce?

A deep-vein thrombosis travels to the lungs; sudden chest pain worsened by inhalation, SOB, possible cyanosis

How does emphysema differ pathologically from chronic bronchitis?

Emphysema destroys alveolar elastic tissue causing air trapping; chronic bronchitis involves bronchial swelling and mucus accumulation

What is the basic structural and functional unit of the nervous system?

The neuron

How does a nerve differ from a neuron?

A nerve is a bundle of axons from many neurons in the peripheral nervous system

Which neuroglial cell creates myelin in the peripheral nervous system?

Schwann cell

What are the four major parts of the brain?

Cerebrum, diencephalon, cerebellum, and brainstem

Which brain region coordinates equilibrium, proprioception, and muscle memory?

The cerebellum

What vital centers are located in the medulla oblongata?

Respiratory, cardiac, and vasomotor centers

Broca’s area controls which function, and where is it located?

Speech production; frontal lobe of the cerebrum

What autonomic effect does the sympathetic nervous system have on the pupils and heart rate?

Dilates pupils and increases heart rate

List the three meningeal layers from deep to superficial.

Pia mater → arachnoid mater → dura mater

Where is cerebrospinal fluid formed and where is it reabsorbed?

Formed in the choroid plexus; reabsorbed by arachnoid villi into the venous circulation

Explain the naming rule for spinal nerves in the cervical region.

Each cervical nerve is named for the vertebra below it (e.g., nerve between C3 and C4 is C4)

Which cranial nerve conveys the sense of smell?

Cranial nerve I – Olfactory nerve

What is the photoreceptor layer in the eye responsible for vision?

The retina

Which cranial nerve controls most extraocular movements, raises the eyelid, and constricts the pupil?

Cranial nerve III – Oculomotor nerve

Which cranial nerve provides facial sensation and motor innervation for chewing?

Cranial nerve V – Trigeminal nerve

Damage to which cranial nerve causes Bell’s palsy?

Cranial nerve VII – Facial nerve

What sensory modalities are carried by cranial nerve VIII?

Hearing and equilibrium (balance)

What inner-ear structure contains the receptor for hearing?

The organ of Corti within the cochlea

What three classic symptoms characterize Ménière’s disease?

Tinnitus, vertigo/dizziness, and hearing loss (often with nausea and nystagmus)

Which cranial nerve is the main parasympathetic supply to thoracic and abdominal organs?

Cranial nerve X – Vagus nerve

What muscles are innervated by the accessory nerve (XI)?

Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles

What is the therapeutic index of a drug?

The ratio between the toxic dose and the therapeutic dose, indicating safety margin

Why must clinicians be cautious with highly protein-bound drugs?

Only the free (unbound) portion is active; displacement can raise active levels and toxicity

Name three bacterial infections commonly treated with antibiotics.

Streptococcal throat infection, gonorrhea, and Lyme disease (others acceptable)

Give two examples of fungal infections that require antifungal drugs.

Ringworm (tinea) and candidiasis (yeast infection)

List two viral illnesses for which antiviral medications may be prescribed.

Influenza and herpes simplex (cold sores)

What class of drugs is commonly used to treat anxiety disorders?

Benzodiazepines

Which antidepressant class works by inhibiting serotonin reuptake?

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)