Ciulla: Clinical Chemistry 1 (1-211)

1. Which of the following lamps provides a continuous spectrum of radiant energy in the visible, near IR, and near UV regions of the spectrum?

A. Tungsten-filament
B. Hydrogen
C. Deuterium
D. Mercury Vapor

1. Which of the following lamps provides a continuous spectrum of radiant energy in the visible, near IR, and near UV regions of the spectrum?

A. Tungsten-filament
B. Hydrogen
C. Deuterium
D. Mercury Vapor

A. Tungsten-filament

2. Which of the following isolates light within a narrow region of the spectrum?
A. Photomultiplier tube
B. Monochromator
C. Photovoltaic cell
D. Detector

B. Monochromator

3. Which of the following is not descriptive of a photomultiplier tube?
A. Emits electrons proportionally to initial light absorbed
B. Must be shielded from stray light
C. Cannot be used with a chopper
D. Amplifies the initial signal received

C. Cannot be used with a chopper

4. Which of the following is false about a photomultiplier tube?
A. Converts radiant energy (light) to electrical energy (current)
B. Amplifies the current significantly
C. Has a very rapid response time
D. Is composed of an iron plate and a layer of selenium

D. Is composed of an iron plate and a layer of selenium

5. Which type of photodetector employs a linear arrangement that allows it to respond to a specific wavelength resulting in complete UV/visible spectrum analysis?
A. Photomultiplier tube
B. Phototube
C. Barrier layer cell
D. Photodiode array

D. Photodiode array

6. When performing spectrophotometer quality assurance checks, what is the holmium oxide glass filter used to assess?
A. Linearity
B. Stray light
C. Absorbance accuracy
D. Wavelength accuracy

D. Wavelength accuracy

7. In spectrophotometric analysis, what is the purpose of the reagent blank?
A. Correct for interfering chromogens
B. Correct for lipemia
C. Correct for protein
D. Correct for color contribution of the reagents

D. Correct for color contribution of the
reagents

8. In regard to bichromatic analysis, which
of the following is false?
A. Absorbance is measured at the spectral absorbance peak for a blank and the sample using the same wavelength.
B. Eliminates background interferences
C. Sample concentration determined from difference in two measured absorbances
D. Functions as a reference blank for each sample

A. Absorbance is measured at the spectral absorbance peak for a blank and the sample using the same wavelength.

9. The bandpass of a spectrophotometer is 10 nm. If an installment is set at 540 nm, the wavelengths that are permitted to impinge on the sample will be within what wavelength range?
A. 530-540 nm
B. 530-550 nm
C. 535-545 nm
D. 540-550 nm

C. 535-545 nm

10. Which of the following formulas is an expression of the Beer-Lambert law that is routinely applied to spectrophotometric analysis?

A. Au X (Cs/As) = Cu
B. Cu X (Cs/As) = Au
C. As X (Cs/Cu) = Au
D. A = 2 - log %T

A. Au X (Cs/As) = Cu

1 1 . In spectrophotometry, which of the following is a mathematical expression of the relationship between absorbance and transmittance?
A. A = abc
B. (Au/Cu) = (As/Cs)
C. A = 2 - log %T
D. A = log %T

C. A = 2 - log %T

12. Which of the following is not a problem inherent in turbidimetry?
A. Variation in particle size of samples
B. Variation in particle size of standards
C. Rate of aggregation or settling of particles
D. Need to maintain a constant and specific temperature

D. Need to maintain a constant and specific temperature

13. Which of the following may be associated with reflectance spectrophotometry as it relates to the dry reagent slide technique?
A. Light projected to the slide at 180-degree angle
B. Dye concentration directly proportional to reflectance
C. Unabsorbed, reflected light detected by photodetector
D. Reflectance values are linearly proportional to transmission values

C. Unabsorbed, reflected light detected by photodetector

14. Fluorometers are designed so that the path of the exciting light is at a right angle to the path of the emitted light. What is the purpose of this design?
A. Prevent loss of emitted light
B. Prevent loss of the excitation light
C. Focus emitted and excitation light upon the detector
D. Prevent excitation light from reaching the detector

D. Prevent excitation light from reaching the detector

15. Which of the following represents a primary advantage of performing fluorometric over absorption spectroscopic methods of analysis?
A. Increased specificity and increased sensitivity
B. Increased specificity and decreased sensitivity
C. Purity of reagents used not as critical
D. Ease of performing assays

A. Increased specificity and increased sensitivity

16. Which of the following may be associated
with fluorescence polarization?
A. Plane-polarized light is used for sample excitation.
B. Small molecular complexes show a greater amount of polarization.
C. It is a heterogeneous technique employed in fluorophore-ligand immunoassays.
D. Polarized light detected is directly proportional to concentration of ligand in sample.

A. Plane-polarized light is used for sample excitation.

17. Which of the following may be associated
with bioluminescence?
A. Light emission produced due to enzymatic oxidation of a substrate
B. Less sensitive than direct fluorescent assays
C. Electron excitation caused by radiant energy
D. Employs a radioactive label

A. Light emission produced due to enzymatic oxidation of a substrate

18. Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is
A. Absorbed by particles in suspension
B. Scattered by particles in suspension
C. Produced by fluorescence
D. Produced by excitation of ground-state
atoms

B. Scattered by particles in suspension

19. Which of the following instruments is used in the clinical laboratory or in reference laboratories to detect beta and gamma emissions?
A. Fluorometer
B. Nephelometer
C. Scintillation counter
D. Spectrophotometer

C. Scintillation counter

20. Which of the following best describes
chemiluminescence?
A. Electron excitation caused by radiant energy
B. Enzymatic oxidation of a substrate produces light emission
C. Chemical energy excites electrons that emit light upon return to ground state
D. Employs a fluorescent label that produces light

C. Chemical energy excites electrons that
emit light upon return to ground state

21. In assaying an analyte with a single-beam atomic absorption spectrophotometer, what is the instrument actually measuring?
A. Intensity of light emitted by the analyte on its return to the ground state
B. Intensity of light that the analyte absorbs from the hollow-cathode lamp
C. Intensity of light that the analyte absorbs from the flame
D. Intensity of the beam from the hollow cathode lamp after it has passed through the analyte-containing flame

D. Intensity of the beam from the hollow cathode lamp after it has passed through the analyte-containing flame

22. What is the function of the flame in atomic
absorption spectroscopy?
A. Absorb the energy emitted from the metal analyte in returning to ground state
B. Supply the thermal energy needed to excite the metal analyte
C. Bring the metal analyte to its ground state
D. Supply the light that is absorbed by the metal analyte

C. Bring the metal analyte to its ground state

23. Most atomic absorption spectrophotometers incorporate a beam chopper and a tuned amplifier. The purpose of these components is to avoid errors that would be caused by
A. Variations in flame temperature
B. Deterioration of the hollow-cathode lamp
C. Stray light from the hollow-cathode lamp
D. Measurement of light emitted by the analyte

D. Measurement of light emitted by the analyte

24. In potentiometry, which of the following is considered the standard electrode?
A. Hydrogen electrode
B. Calcium electrode
C. Potassium electrode
D. Copper electrode

A. Hydrogen electrode

25. In an electrolytic cell, which of the following is the half-cell where reduction takes place?
A. Anode
B. Cathode
C. Combination electrode
D. Electrode response

B. Cathode

26. Mercury covered by a layer of mercurous chloride in contact with saturated potassium chloride solution is a description of which of the following types of electrodes?
A. Sodium
B. Calomel
C. Calcium
D. Silver/silver chloride

B. Calomel

27. When a pH-sensitive glass electrode is not
actively in use, in what type of solution should it be kept?
A. Tap water
B. Physiologic saline solution
C. The medium recommended by the manufacturer
D. A buffer solution of alkaline pH

C. The medium recommended by the
manufacturer

28. When measuring K+ with an ion-selective
electrode by means of a liquid ion-exchange membrane, what antibiotic will be incorporated into the membrane?
A. Monactin
B. Nonactin
C. Streptomycin
D. Valinomycin

D. Valinomycin

29. Which of the following is false about
ion-selective electrode analysis of sodium?
A. Uses a glass membrane
B. Errors occur from protein buildup on the membrane.
C. Membrane coated with valinomycin
D. Principle based on potentiometry

C. Membrane coated with valinomycin

30. What are the principles of operation for a
chloride analyzer that generates silver ions as part of its reaction mechanism?
A. Potentiometry and amperometry
B. Amperometry and polarography
C. Coulometry and potentiometry
D. Amperometry and coulometry

D. Amperometry and coulometry

31. When quantifying glucose using an amperometric glucose electrode system, which of the following is not a component of the system?
A. Product oxidation produces a current
B. Hydrogen peroxide formed
C. Hexokinase reacts with glucose
D. Platinum electrode

C. Hexokinase reacts with glucose

32. To calibrate the pH electrode in a pH/blood gas analyzer, it is necessary that
A. The barometric pressure be known and used for adjustments
B. Calibrating gases of known high and low concentrations be used
C. The calibration be performed at room temperature
D. Two buffer solutions of known pH be used

D. Two buffer solutions of known pH be used

33. The measurement of CO2 in blood by means of a PCO2 electrode is dependent on the
A. Passage of H+ ions through the membrane that separates the sample and the electrode
B. Change in pH because of increased carbonic acid in the electrolyte surrounding the electrodes
C. Movement of bicarbonate across the membrane that separates the sample and the electrode
D. Linear relationship between PCO2 in the sample and measured pH

B. Change in pH because of increased carbonic acid in the electrolyte surrounding the electrodes

34. The measurement of oxygen in blood by
means of a PO2 electrode involves which
of the following?
A. Wheatstone bridge arrangement of resistive elements sensitive to oxygen
concentration
B. Direct relationship between amount of oxygen in the sample and amount of current flowing in the measuring system
C. Change in current resulting from an increase of free silver ions in solution
D. Glass electrode sensitive to H+ ions

B. Direct relationship between amount of oxygen in the sample and amount of current flowing in the measuring system

35. Which of the following blood gas parameters are measured directly by the blood gas analyzer electrochemically as opposed to being calculated by the instrument?
A. pH, HCO-3, total CO2
B. PCO2, HCO3, PO2
C. pH, PCO2, PO2
D. PO2, HCO3, total CO2

C. pH, PCO2, PO2

36. Which of the following statements is false about anodic stripping voltammetry (ASV)?
A. Based on potentiometry
B. Occurs in an electrochemical cell
C. Involves preconcentration of the analyte by electroplating
D. Used to measure lead

A. Based on potentiometry

37. Which of the following methods allows for the separation of charged particles based on their rates of migration in an electric field?
A. Rheophoresis
B. Electrophoresis
C. Electroendosmosis
D. Ion exchange

B. Electrophoresis

38. Which of the following techniques is based on electro-osmotic flow?
A. Capillary electrophoresis
B. Zone electrophoresis
C. Iontophoresis
D. Isoelectric focusing

A. Capillary electrophoresis

39. Which of the following is not a type of support media used for serum protein electrophoresis?
A. Agarose gel
B. Cellulose acetate
C. Acrylamide
D. Celite

D. Celite

40. In serum protein electrophoresis, when a buffer solution of pH 8.6 is used, which of the following characterizes the proteins?
A. Exhibit net negative charge
B. Exhibit net positive charge
C. Exhibit charge neutrality
D. Migrate toward the cathode

A. Exhibit net negative charge

41. Which of the following characteristics will a protein have at its isoelectric point?
A. Net negative charge
B. Net positive charge
C. Net zero charge
D. Mobility

C. Net zero charge

42. What dye may be used for staining protein bands following electrophoresis?
A. Fat red 7B
B. Sudan blackB
C. Ponceau S
D. Oil redO

C. Ponceau S

43. When electrophoresis is performed, holes appear in the staining pattern, giving the stained protein band a doughnut-like appearance. What is the probable cause of this problem?
A. Protein denatured and will not stain properly
B. Ionic strength of the buffer was too high
C. Protein reached its isoelectric point and precipitated out
D. Protein concentration was too high

D. Protein concentration was too high

44. What is the purpose of using ampholytes in isoelectric focusing?
A. Maintain the polyacrylamide gel in a solid state
B. Maintain the protein sample in a charged state
C. Maintain the pH of the buffer solution
D. Establish a pH gradient in the gel

D. Establish a pH gradient in the gel

45. Which of the following is not associated with silver stains?
A. Reactive to nanogram concentrations of proteins
B. Polypeptides stain a variety of colors
C. Not as sensitive as Coomassie brilliant blue
D. Preconcentration of CSF not necessary

C. Not as sensitive as Coomassie brilliant blue

46. Which of the following is not associated with isoelectric focusing?
A. Continuous pH gradient
B. Migration of proteins with net charge of zero
C. Separation dependent on isoelectric point
D. Zone electrophoresis

B. Migration of proteins with net charge of zero

47. Which of the following is an electrophoretic technique employing a pH gradient that separates molecules with similar isoelectric points?
A. Zone electrophoresis
B. High-resolution electrophoresis
C. Isoelectric focusing
D. Immunoelectrophoresis

C. Isoelectric focusing

48. Given the following information on
a particular compound that has been
visualized by means of thin-layer
chromatography, calculate the Rf of the compound.
Distance from origin to spot center = 48 mm
Distance from spot center to solvent front = 93 mm
Distance from origin to solvent front = 141 mm
A. 0.29
B. 0.34
C. 0.52
D. 0.66

B. 0.34

49. To achieve the best levels of sensitivity and specificity, to what type of detector system could a gas chromatograph be coupled?
A. UV spectrophotometer
B. Bichromatic spectrophotometer
C. Mass spectrometer
D. Fluorescence detector

C. Mass spectrometer

50. Which of the following instruments has a sample-introduction system, solvent-delivery system, column, and detector as components?
A. Atomic absorption spectrometer
B. Mass spectrometer
C. High-performance liquid chromatograph
D. Nephelometer

C. High-performance liquid chromatograph

51. Which type of elution technique may be used in high-performance liquid chromatography?
A. Amphoteric
B. Isoelectric
C. Gradient
D. Ion exchange

C. Gradient

52. Which of the following statements best describes discrete analysis?
A. Each sample-reagent mixture is handled separately in its own reaction vessel.
B. Samples are analyzed in a flowing stream of reagent.
C. Analyzer must be dedicated to measurement of only one analyte.
D. It does not have random access capability.

A. Each sample-reagent mixture is handled
separately in its own reaction vessel.

53. Which of the following chromatography systems may be described as having a stationary phase that is liquid absorbed on particles packed in a column and a liquid moving phase that is pumped through a column?
A. Thin-layer
B. High-performance liquid
C. Ion-exchange
D. Gas-liquid

B. High-performance liquid

54. Which of the following chromatography systems is characterized by a stationary phase of silica gel on a piece of glass and a moving phase of liquid?
A. Thin-layer
B. Ion-exchange
C. Gas-liquid
D. Partition

A. Thin-layer

55. Which of the following does not apply to gas-liquid chromatography?
A. Separation depends on volatility of the sample.
B. Separation depends on the sample's solubility in the liquid layer of the stationary phase.
C. Stationary phase is a liquid layer adsorbed on the column packing.
D. Mobile phase is a liquid pumped through the column.

D. Mobile phase is a liquid pumped
through the column.

56. Ion-exchange chromatography separates solutes in a sample based on the
A. Solubility of the solutes
B. Sign and magnitude of the ionic charge
C. Adsorption ability of the solutes
D. Molecular size

B. Sign and magnitude of the ionic charge

57. Which parameter is used in mass spectrometry to identify a compound?
A. Ion mass-to-charge ratio
B. Molecular size
C. Absorption spectrum
D. Retention time

A. Ion mass-to-charge ratio

58. Which chromatography system is commonly used in conjunction with mass spectrometry?
A. High-performance liquid
B. Ion-exchange
C. Partition
D. Gas-liquid

D. Gas-liquid

59. Which of the following may be a sampling source of error for an automated instrument?
A. Short sample
B. Air bubble in bottom of sample cup
C. Fibrin clot in sample probe
D. All the above

D. All the above

60. Checking instrument calibration, temperature accuracy, and electronic parameters are part of
A. Preventive maintenance
B. Quality control
C. Function verification
D. Precision verification

C. Function verification

61. For which of the following laboratory instruments should preventive maintenance procedures be performed and recorded?
A. Analytical balance
B. Centrifuge
C. Chemistry analyzer
D. All the above

D. All the above

62. Which of the following is not the reason that preventive maintenance schedules are required?
A. Keep instrument components clean
B. Replace worn parts
C. Extend the life of the equipment
D. Keep personnel busy when the laboratory work is slow

D. Keep personnel busy when the laboratory work is slow

63. Which globin chains compose hemoglobin
A1?
A. Two alpha chains and two beta chains
B. Two alpha chains and two delta chains
C. Two alpha chains and two gamma chains
D. Two beta chains and two delta chains

A. Two alpha chains and two beta chains

64. Which hemoglobin may be differentiated from other hemoglobins on the basis of its resistance to denature in alkaline solution?
A. A1
B. A2
C. C
D. F

D. F

65. Hemoglobin S is an abnormal hemoglobin that is characterized by a substitution of which amino acid?
A. Valine for glutamic acid in position 6 on the beta chain
B. Valine for glutamic acid in position 6 on the alpha chain
C. Lysine for glutamic acid in position 6 on the beta chain
D. Lysine for glutamic acid in position 6 on the alpha chain

A. Valine for glutamic acid in position 6 on the beta chain

66. When performing electrophoresis at pH 8.6, which hemoglobin molecule migrates the fastest on cellulose acetate toward the anode?
A. A1
B. A2
C. F
D. S

A. A1

67. Because of similar electrophoretic mobilities, several hemoglobins cannot be differentiated on cellulose acetate medium. Electrophoresis of hemoglobins at pH 6.2 on agar gel may be useful in differentiating which hemoglobins?
A. AI from A2
B. A1 from D
C. A, from E
D. C from A2

D. C from A2

68. In addition to performing hemoglobin electrophoresis, a solubility test may be performed to detect the presence of what hemoglobin?
A. A1
B. C
C. F
D. S

D. S

69. Which of the following is not quantified using an immunoassay method?
A. Vitamins
B. Hormones
C. Electrolytes
D. Drugs

C. Electrolytes

70. Which of the following is a homogeneous immunoassay where separation of the bound from the free labeled species is not required?
A. Radioimmunoassay
B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
C. Immunoradiometric assay
D. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique

D. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique

71. The substance to be measured reacts with a specific macromolecule of limited binding capacity. Which of the following assays does not employ this principle?
A. Chemiluminescence immunoassay
B. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique
C. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay
D. High-performance liquid chromatography

D. High-performance liquid chromatography

72. Which of the following is not associated with the enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique (EMIT)?
A. Is a homogeneous enzyme immunoassay
B. Determines antigen concentration
C. Employs a labeled reactant
D. Enzyme reacts with drug in serum sample

D. Enzyme reacts with drug in serum sample

73. When using EMIT, the enzyme is coupled to
A. Antibody
B. Antigen
C. Substrate
D. Coenzyme

B. Antigen

74. The enzyme activity measured in the EMIT is the result of the reaction between the substrate and coenzyme with
A. Free antibody
B. Free unlabeled antigen
C. Free labeled antigen
D. Labeled antigen-antibody complexes

C. Free labeled antigen

75. Singlet oxygen reacting with a precursor chemiluminescent compound to form a decay product whose light energizes a fluorophore best describes
A. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay
B. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique
C. Electrochemiluminescence immunoassay
D. Luminescent oxygen channeling immunoassay

D. Luminescent oxygen channeling immunoassay

76. Which of the following stimulates the production of singlet oxygen at the surface of the sensitizer particle in a luminescent oxygen channeling immunoassay?
A. Radiant energy
B. Heat energy
C. Enzymatic reaction
D. Fluorescent irradiation

A. Radiant energy

77. Proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids are the three major biochemical compounds of human metabolism. What is the element that distinguishes proteins from carbohydrate and lipid compounds?
A. Carbon
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen

D. Nitrogen

78. Proteins may become denatured when subjected to mechanical agitation, heat, or extreme chemical treatment. How are proteins affected by denaturation?
A. Alteration in primary structure
B. Alteration in secondary structure
C. Alteration in tertiary structure
D. Increase in solubility

C. Alteration in tertiary structure

79. What is the basis for the Kjeldahl technique for the determination of serum total protein?
A. Quantification of peptide bonds
B. Determination of the refractive index of proteins
C. Ultraviolet light absorption by aromatic rings at 280 nm
D. Quantification of the nitrogen content of protein

D. Quantification of the nitrogen content of protein

80. When quantifying serum total proteins, upon what is the intensity of the color produced in the biuret reaction dependent?
A. Molecular weight of the protein
B. Acidity of the medium
C. Number of peptide bonds
D. Nitrogen content of the protein

C. Number of peptide bonds

81. Which of the following reagents can be used to measure protein in cerebrospinal fluid?
A. Biuret
B. Coomassie brilliant blue
C. Ponceau S
D. Bromcresol green

B. Coomassie brilliant blue

82. Which disorder is not associated with an elevated protein level in cerebrospinal fluid?
A. Bacterial meningitis
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Cerebral infarction
D. Hyperthyroidism

D. Hyperthyroidism

83. Which term describes a congenital disorder that is characterized by a split in the albumin band when serum is subjected to electrophoresis?
A. Analbuminemia
B. Anodic albuminemia
C. Prealbuminemia
D. Bisalbuminemia

D. Bisalbuminemia

84. In what condition would an increased level of serum albumin be expected?
A. Malnutrition
B. Acute inflammation
C. Dehydration
D. Renal disease

C. Dehydration

85. Identification of which of the following is useful in early stages of glomerular dysfunction?
A. Microalbuminuria
B. Ketonuria
C. Hematuria
D. Urinary light chains

A. Microalbuminuria

86. Which of the following is a low-weight protein that is found on the cell surfaces of nucleated cells?
A. C-reactive protein
B. B2-Microglobulin
C. Ceruloplasmin
D. a2-Macroglobulin

B. B2-Microglobulin

87. Which glycoprotein binds with hemoglobin to facilitate the removal of hemoglobin by the reticuloendothelial system?
A. Haptoglobin
B. Ceruloplasmin
C. cxpAntitrypsin
D. Fibrinogen

A. Haptoglobin

88. In a healthy individual, which protein fraction has the greatest concentration in serum?
A. Alpha1-globulin
B. Beta-globulin
C. Gamma-globulin
D. Albumin

D. Albumin

89. Which of the following is an anionic dye that binds selectively with albumin?
A. Amido black
B. Ponceau S
C. Bromcresol green
D. Coomassie brilliant blue

C. Bromcresol green

90. Which total protein method requires copper sulfate, potassium iodide in sodium hydroxide, and potassium sodium tartrate in its reagent system?
A. Kjeldahl
B. Biuret
C. Folin-Ciocalteu
D. Ultraviolet absorption

B. Biuret

91. Which of the following plasma proteins is not manufactured by the liver?
A. Albumin
B. Haptoglobin
C. Fibrinogen
D. IgG

D. IgG

92. There are five immunoglobulin classes:
IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, and IgE. With which globulin fraction do these immunoglobulins migrate electrophoretically?
A. Alpha 1 globulins
B. Alpha 2-globulins
C. Beta 1 globulins
D. Gamma-globulins

D. Gamma-globulins

93. Of the five immunoglobulin classes, IgG is the most structurally simple, consisting of how many light chains/heavy chains, respectively?
A. 5/2
B. 1/1
C. 2/5
D. 2/2

D. 2/2

94. Which immunoglobulin class, characterized by its possession of a secretory component, is found in saliva, tears, and body secretions?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgG
D. IgM

A. IgA

95. Which immunoglobulin class is able to cross the placenta from the mother to the fetus?
A. IgA
B. IgD
C. IgE
D. IgG

D. IgG

96. Which of the following is an acute-phase reactant protein able to inhibit enzymatic proteolysis and having the highest concentration of any of the plasma proteolytic inhibitors?
A. C-reactive protein
B. Haptoglobin
C. a2-Macroglobulin
D. a1-Antitrypsin

D. a1-Antitrypsin

97. Which of the following is a copper transport protein that migrates as an alpha2-globulin?
A. Ceruloplasmin
B. Haptoglobin
C. Transferrin
D. Fibrinogen

A. Ceruloplasmin

98. Which of the following proteins is normally produced by the fetus but is found in increased amounts in the amniotic fluid in cases of spina bifida?
A. a1-Antitrypsin
B. a1-Acid glycoprotein
C. a1-Fetoprotein
D. a2-Macroglobulin

C. a1-Fetoprotein

99. The physician is concerned that a pregnant patient may be at risk for delivering prematurely. What would be the best biochemical marker to measure to assess the situation?
A. Inhibin A
B. a1-Fetoprotein
C. Fetal fibronectin
D. Human chorionic gonadotropin

C. Fetal fibronectin

100. Bence Jones proteinuria is a condition characterized by the urinary excretion of what type of light chain?
A. Kappa light chains
B. Lambda light chains
C. Both kappa and lambda light chains
D. Either kappa or lambda light chains

D. Either kappa or lambda light chains