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The adrenal medulla origiantes from which germ layer?
a. Neural Crest
b. Neural Tube
c. Ectoderm
d. Paraxial Mesoderm
Neural Crest
Skeletal muscle is derived from which germinal layer?
a. Ectoderm
b. Endoderm
c. Mesoderm
d. Neural Crest
c. Mesoderm
The posterior pituitary is derived from which germinal layer?
a. Neural Crest
b. Mesoderm
c. Ectoderm
d. Neural Tube
d. Neural Tube
The humerus undergoes which type of ossification?
a. Intramedullary
b. Intramembranous
c. Endochondral
d. Isocortical
c. Endochondral
The notochord in the embryo persists as the ______
a. ALL
b. Annulus Fibrosus
c. Spinal Cord
d. Nucleus Pulposus
d. Nucleus Pulposus
The cerebral cortex is derived from which of the following?
a. Metencephalon
b. Diencephalon
c. Mesencephalon
d. Prosencephalon
d. Prosencephalon
The muscles of facial expression are associated with which branchial arch?
a. 1st
b. 2nd
c. 3rd
d. 5th
b. 2nd
Which cranial nerve is associated with the third branchial arch?
a. VII
b. V
c. X
d. IX
d. IX
Cranial nerve VII is associated with which pharyngeal arch?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 6
b. 2
Which of the following connects the 3rd and fourth ventricle?
a. Foramen of Magendie
b. Foramen of Luschka
c. Central canal
d. Aqueduct of sylvius
d. Aqueduct of sylvius
Which cranial nerve provides motor innervation to pharynx?
a. Vagus
b. Glossopharyngeal
c. Hypoglossal
d. Trigeminal
a. Vagus
Which cranial nerve innervates the carotid sinus?
a. Vagus
b. Trigeminal
c. Glossopharyngeal
d. Vestibulocochlear
c. Glossopharyngeal
Which of the following is affected by Parkinson's disease?
a. Substantia Nigra
b. Subthalamic Nucleus
c. Putamen
d. Globus Pallidus
a. Substantia Nigra
Which part of the eye has the highest concentration of cones?
a. Choroid plexus
b. Fovea centralis
c. Cornea
d. Retina
b. Fovea centralis
The olfactory nerve travels through the cribriform plate of the?
a. Sphenoid
b. Ethmoid
c. Frontal
d. Vomer
b. Ethmoid
Which muscle is innervated by CN VI?
a. Medial Recus
b. Inferior Oblique
c. Superior Oblique
d. Lateral Rectus
d. Lateral Rectus
Which of the following cranial nerves is not responsible for facial sensation?
a. Mandibular
b. Ophthalmic
c. Facial
d. Maxillary
c. Facial
Through which foramen do cranial nerves IX, X, and XI exit through the?
a. Foramen Rotundum
b. Foramen Magnum
c. Hypoglossal canal
d. Jugular Foramen
d. Jugular Foramen
The trochlear nerve innervates which of the following muscles?
a. Inferior oblique
b. Superior oblique
c. Superior Rectus
d. Lateral Rectus
b. Superior oblique
Which cranial nerves are parasympathetic?
a. III, VII, IX, X
b. IV, V, VII, X
c. III, VII, X, XI
d. V, VII, IX, XII
a. III, VII, IX, X
Which bones make up the nasal septum?
a. Ethmoid and Sphenoid
b. Frontal and Vomer
c. Vomer and ethmoid
d. Parietal and Perpendicular plate
c. Vomer and ethmoid
What is the insertion of the temporalis muscle?
a. Ramus of the mandible
b. Angle of the mandible
c. Mandibular condyle
d. Coronoid process
d. Coronoid process
The superior temporal gyrus is responsible for:
a. Visual Processing
b. Sense of Smell
c. Auditory processing
d. Emotion
c. Auditory processing
The neuroectoderm gives rise to the
a. Muscles of the iris
b. Adrenal cortex
c. Urogenital system
d. Suboccipital muscles
a. Muscles of the iris
Which muscle is for mastication?
a. Lateral pterygoid
b. Sternohyoid
c. SCM
d. Sternothyroid
a. Lateral pterygoid
Which muscle depresses the jaw?
a. Medial pterygoid
b. Lateral pterygoid
c. Temporalis
d. Masseter
b. Lateral pterygoid
Which bone has an impression for the confluence of sinuses?
a. Parietal
b. Frontal
c. Occipital
d. Ethmoid
c. Occipital
Which mechanoreceptor is responsible for vibration?
a. Ruffini endings
b. Free nerve endings
c. Meissner's corpuscles
d. Pacininan corpuscles
d. Pacininan corpuscles
Which receptor is responsible for nociception?
a. Free nerve endings
b. Meissner's corpuscles
c. Ruffini Endings
d. C-Fibre LTM Matrix
a. Free nerve endings
Which part of the action potential requires super-threshold stimulus?
a. Hyperpolarization
b. Depolarization
c. Repolarization
d. Plateau Phase
a. Hyperpolarization
The tentorium cerebelli separates which of the following?
a. Inferior occipital lobe from cerebellum
b. Pons from cerebellum
c. Right and Left lobes of the cerebellum
d. Temporal lobe from cerebellum
a. Inferior occipital lobe from cerebellum
Which area is responsible for emotion?
a. Frontal lobe
b. Pituitary gland
c. Limbic system
d. Pineal Gland
c. Limbic system
Which of the following separates the frontal and parietal lobes?
a. Coronal
b. Sagittal
c. Frontal
d. Transverse
a. Coronal
What is the blood supply to the occipital lobe?
a. Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
b. Anterior Cerebral Artery
c. Middle Cerebral Artery
d. Posterior Cerebral Artery
d. Posterior Cerebral Artery
Where does the vertebral artery enter the transverse foramen?
a. C6
b. C7
c. C5
d. C4
a. C6
Which is not a component of the circle of willis?
a. Basilar Artery
b. External carotid artery
c. Vertebral Artery
d. Internal Carotid Artery
b. External carotid artery
Which cells are responsible for cerebrospinal fluid production?
a. Microglia
b. Astrocyte
c. Oligodendrocytes
d. Ependymal
d. Ependymal
Which spinal cord tract is responsible for transmission of pain and temperature?
a. Spinothalamic
b. Dorsal Column
c. Cortciospinal
d. Spinocerebellar
a. Spinothalamic
Which of the following has smooth muscle?
a. Pupil
b. Fovea Centralis
c. Ciliary muscle
d. Cornea
c. Ciliary muscle
Which surrounds the optic cup and is highly vascularized?
a. Sclera
b. Choroid
c. Macula
d. Ciliary body
b. Choroid
Where in the ear are the cilia located?
a. Semicircular canals
b. Middle Ear
c. Eustachian tube
d. Cochlea
d. Cochlea
The IVD is what type of joint?
a. Synchondrosis
b. Symphysis
c. Syndesmosis
d. Synarthrosis
b. Symphysis
Which tract is involved with turning the head in response to light?
a. Tectospinal
b. Vestibulospinal
c. Corticospinal
d. Reticulospinal
a. Tectospinal
Which part of the eye contains the most cones?
a. Fovea Centralis
b. Retina
c. Macula
d. Ciliary body
a. Fovea Centralis
Which area of the ear is responsible for angular acceleration?
a. Cochlea
b. Middle Ear
c. Semicircular canals
d. Scala Tympani
c. Semicircular canals
Which is not part of the synovial joint classification?
a. Trochoid
b. Ginglymus
c. Gomphosis
d. Pivot
c. Gomphosis
Which ligament is responsible for connecting the pia to dura mater?
a. Apical
b. Alar
c. Denticulate
d. ALL
c. Denticulate
Which spinal ligament does not limit thoracic flexion?
a. Posterior Longitudinal
b. Supraspinous
c. Anterior longitudinal
d. Interspinous
c. Anterior longitudinal
Which ligament connects the dens to the anterior portion of the foramen magnum?
a. Apical ligament
b. Alar Ligament
c. Transverse ligament
d. Nuchal ligament
a. Apical ligament
Which ligament is located from the occiput to C7?
a. Supraspinous
b. Nuchae
c. Interspinous
d. PLL
b. Nuchae
If the TL was ruptured, the atlas would move?
a. Anterior
b. Posterior
c. Lateral
d. Superior
a. Anterior
Which ligament connects ischium and sacrum and prevents anterior sacral nutation?
a. Sacrotuberous ligament
b. Anterior Sacroiliac Ligament
c. Posterior Sacroiliac Ligament Brevis
d. Anterior Sacrococcygeal ligament
a. Sacrotuberous ligament
In a typical thoracic vertebra, the superior articular facets are what shape?
a. Circular
b. Ovoidal
c. Sagittal
d. Transverse
b. Ovoidal
Which of the following is onion-bulb shaped?
a. Microglia
b. Bipolar neuron
c. Oligodendrocyte
d. Schwann cells
d. Schwann cells
Which of the following ribs contains a tubercle?
a. Second rib
b. Third rib
c. Fourth Rib
d. Fifth Rib
a. Second rib
Which of the following ribs articulate with the sternal angle?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 8
b. 2
Which part of the spine includes the uncovertebral joints?
a. Atlanto-Occipital
b. Lumbar
c. Thoracic
d. Cervical
d. Cervical
The capitulum is unique to which bone?
a. Humerus
b. Radius
c. Femur
d. Clavicle
a. Humerus
The medial epicondyle is unique to which bone?
a. Tibia
b. Ulna
c. Humerus
d. Scapula
c. Humerus
The vagus nerve passes through the diaphragm along with which structure?
a. Aorta
b. Esophagus
c. Azygos Vein
d. Inferior vena Cava
b. Esophagus
(I eat 10 eggs at 12)
Which muscle does the inferior gluteal nerve innervate?
a. Gluteus Minimus
b. Gluteus Maximus
c. Gluteus Medius
d. Gluteus Teenius
b. Gluteus Maximus
Which of the following fuses to form the spinous process in a typical vertebra?
a. Pedicles
b. Both lamina
c. Transverse processes
d. Posterior arch
b. Both lamina
What is the classification of the proximal radioulnar joint?
a. Gliding / Planar
b. Balla nd Socket / Spheroidal
c. Uniaxial / Ginge
d. Trochoid /Pivot joint
d. trochoid /pivot joint
The anterior and middle scalenes insert into which of the following?
a. First rib
b. Second Rib
c. Clavicle
d. Manubrium
a. First rib
Which of the following transmits information from the cervical spine to the brain?
a. Dorsal Column
b. Spinocerebellar tract
c. Dorsal root ganglion
d. Spinothalamic
c. Dorsal root ganglion
Which of the following is a branch of the vertebral artery?
a. Posterior Inferior Cerebellar Artery
b. Anterior spinal artery
c. Pontine Artery
d. Posterior Cerebral Artery
b. Anterior spinal artery
Which of the following is not part of the lumbar enlargement blood supply?
a. Basilar Artery
b. Anterior Spinal Artery
c. Lumbar Artery
d. Sacral Artery
a. Basilar Artery
Information from golgi tendons is sent to the brain via which tract?
a. Lateral Corticospinal
b. Dorsal spinocerebellar
c. Anterior Spinothalamic
d. Dorsal Column
b. Dorsal spinocerebellar
The ophthalmic artery is a branch of which artery?
a. Internal carotid Artery
b. Subclavian Artery
c. External Carotid artery
d. Trigeminal Artery
a. Internal carotid Artery
The sternal angle is on the same plane as which vertebral disc?
a. T2
b. T4
c. T6
d. T3
b. T4
Which muscle is not part of the suboccipital triangle
a. Rectus capitis posterior minor
b. Rectus capitis posterior major
c. Oblique capitis inferior
d. Oblique capitis superior
a. Rectus capitis posterior minor
Which cranial nerve is associated with the second branchial arch?
a. CN V
b. CN III
c. CN IX
d. CN VII
d. CN VII
Which cranial nerve travels through the jugular foramen?
a. 5
b. 2
c. 10
d. 1
c. 10
On an x-ray you observe an L5 vertebra with an enlarged fused TP, which of the following is present?
a. Lumbarization
b. Tropism
c. Sacralization
d. Osteosarcoma
c. Sacralization
If there is a lesion of DRG, causing upper limb loss of sensation, which tract is involved?
a. Fasciculus Gracilis
b. Fasciculus Cuneatus
c. Lateral Spinothalamic
d. Anterior Spinothalamic
b. Fasciculus Cuneatus
When uncus and amygdala receive information from the?
a. Optic Nerve
b. Vestibulocochlear Nerve
c. Dorsal Column
d. Olfactory bulb
d. Olfactory bulb
Which of the following separates the greater sciatic notch from the lesser sciatic notch?
a. Ischial Tuberosity
b. Ischial spine
c. Ischial Ramus
d. Posterior Superior Iliac Spine
b. Ischial spine
Which of the following is responsible for the plateau within an action potential?
a. Potassium
b. Calcium
c. Sodium
d. Magnesium
b. Calcium
Which of the following cranial nerves does motion of the tongue?
a. 7
b. 5
c. 11
d. 12
d. 12
Which of the following would be present if the cerebellar peduncles drop below the foramen magnum?
a. Syringomyelia
b. Arnold chiari type 1
c. Menigocele
d. Meningomyelocele
b. Arnold chiari type 1
You reflexively move your neck in response to sound, what does it?
a. Vestibulospinal
b. Rubrospinal
c. Tectospinal
d. Reticulospinal
c. Tectospinal
Which of the following limits lateral flexion in the cervical spine?
a. Apical Ligament
b. Transverse Ligament
c. Alar ligaments
d. Posterior atlantoaxial membrane
c. Alar ligaments
The LGN is responsible for what?
a. Sight
b. Sound
c. Smell
d. Touch
a. Sight
What type of nerve is CN2?
a. Pseudounipolar
b. Bipolar
c. Unipolar
d. Multipolar
b. Bipolar
Which part of the brain is responsible for smell perception?
a. Middle Temporal Gyrus
b. Calcarine Sulcus
c. Postcentral Gyrus
d. Uncus
d. Uncus
Skeletal muscle originates from which embryological area?
a. Endoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Ectoderm
d. Neural tube
b. Mesoderm
The notochord in the embryo persists as the ___
a. Nucleus pulposus
b. Annular ligaments
c. End plates
d. Mesoderm
a. Nucleus pulposus
From which germinal layer does the retina originate
a. Surface ectoderm
b. Neural crest
c. Neuroectoderm
d. Lateral plate
c. Neuroectoderm
From which germinal layer does the adrenal medulla originate
a. Lateral plate
b. Surface ectoderm
c. Neural tube
d. Neural crest
d. Neural crest
In which pathology are the cerebellar peduncles below the foramen magnum
a. Meningomyelocele
b. Anencephaly
c. Arnold chiari I
d. Arnold chiari type II
c. Arnold chiari I
Which foramen is located between the lateral ventricle and the 3rd ventricle
a. Cerebral aqueduct
b. Interventricular foramen
c. Foramen of luschka
d. Foramen of magendie
b. Interventricular foramen
Which foramen is located between the 3rd and 4th ventricles
a. Foramen of monro
b. cerebral aqueduct
c. Foramen of magendie
d. Foramen of luschka
b. cerebral aqueduct
Which cranial nerve is located in the 4th-6th branchial arch?
a. CN V
b. CN IX
c. CN X
d. CN VII
c. CN X
Which cranial nerve is located in the second branchial arch?
a. V
b. VII
c. IX
d. X
b. VII
Which structure is contained within the hindgut?
a. Transverse colon
b. Cecum
c. Sigmoid colon
d. Jejunum
c. Sigmoid colon
The stomach originates from the
a. Foregut
b. Midgut
c. Hindgut
d. Mesoderm
a. Foregut
Through which foramen does the abducens nerve exit
a. Foramen rotundum
b. Foramen ovale
c. Optic foramen
d. Superior orbital fissure
d. Superior orbital fissure
The olfactory nerve passes through the
a. Sphenoid bone
b. Ethmoid bone
c. Maxilla
d. Mandible
b. Ethmoid bone
The second cranial nerve exits through the
a. Optic foramen
b. Superior orbital fissure
c. Foramen ovale
d. foramen rotundum
a. Optic foramen
Which muscle abducts the eye?
a. Lateral rectus
b. Superior oblique
c. Medial rectus
d. Inferior oblique
a. Lateral rectus