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A set of 200 question-and-answer flashcards covering visual, perceptual, oculomotor, cognitive, and assessment content from the lecture notes.
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What two occupations are considered the most vision-dependent and therefore often limited after visual deficits?
Driving and reading.
How does central visual field loss primarily impact occupational performance?
It impairs discrimination of small details and contrast, affecting reading, writing, and fine motor tasks.
Which challenges are common with peripheral visual field loss?
Difficulty with mobility, locating landmarks, detecting motion, and orienting in the environment.
Which screening device uses optotypes at various distances to measure distance acuity?
The Snellen chart (e.g., 20/20 acuity test).
What term describes the brain’s ability to quickly identify objects?
Visual perception.
Which type of visual field loss primarily compromises reading, writing, and fine motor tasks?
Central visual field loss.
Which type of visual field loss primarily compromises mobility and environmental orientation?
Peripheral visual field loss.
During evaluation, what client complaint suggests central field loss?
Letters are distorted or words are missing during reading.
What complaint suggests impaired contrast sensitivity?
Inability to see faces clearly.
List three environmental modifications used to compensate for poor contrast sensitivity.
Increase contrast, reduce busy patterns, and create a structured predictable environment.
What is accommodative dysfunction?
Normal distance acuity but impaired near (reading) acuity due to poor accommodation.
Which optical deficit is commonly called nearsightedness?
Myopia.
Which optical deficit is commonly called farsightedness?
Hyperopia.
What optical deficit is caused by an irregularly curved cornea or lens leading to blurred vision at all distances?
Astigmatism.
What symptoms often accompany oculomotor dysfunction following brain injury?
Disorganized scanning and nausea with movement.
What is diplopia?
Double vision causing perceptual distortion during reading and eye-hand activities.
Which oculomotor condition features difficulty sustaining focus on near tasks with headaches and eye fatigue?
Convergence insufficiency.
What neurological events most commonly cause homonymous hemianopia?
Traumatic brain injury and stroke.
How does a visual field deficit such as hemianopia change visual search behavior?
Creates disorganized scanning, multiple fixations, longer search times, and difficulty locating objects.
Which two functional areas are most affected by visual field deficits?
Functional mobility and reading.
Define visual attention.
Ability to observe objects closely, ignore irrelevant stimuli, and shift visual focus as needed.
What is hemi-inattention?
Impaired or absent response to sensory stimuli on one side of space without primary sensory loss.
What is visual neglect?
Inattention to one half of the visual space around the body despite intact vision.
How does visual neglect impact task completion?
Leads to incomplete search patterns and missing details on the neglected side.
Define perception in the context of vision.
The brain’s interpretation of sensory information to give meaning to objects and events.
Which standardized evaluation assesses perceptual and perceptual-motor dysfunction during ADLs?
The A-ONE.
Is the A-ONE considered a top-down or bottom-up assessment?
Top-down.
Name one assessment that examines visual search in dynamic arrays.
Toglia Dynamic Object Search Test.
What does AMPS stand for?
Assessment of Motor and Process Skills.
Which test evaluates overall visual perception without motor involvement?
MVPT-4 (Motor-Free Visual Perception Test, 4th ed.).
What are the two main approaches to intervention for perceptual deficits?
Adaptive (compensatory) and remedial (restorative).
Name a safety issue that can arise from visual perception disorders.
Difficulty recognizing hazards, leading to accidents.
What is agnosia?
Inability to recognize or identify objects visually despite intact vision.
A lesion in which brain region most commonly causes visual object agnosia?
Right occipital lobe or associated posterior areas.
Give one adaptive strategy for agnosia.
Teach reliance on other senses such as touch or sound to identify objects.
What is color agnosia?
Inability to remember and recognize specific colors in the environment.
What is color anomia?
Inability to name the color of objects even though they are perceived.
Provide one remediation activity for color agnosia or anomia.
Practice naming and matching colored objects in familiar contexts.
Define metamorphopsia.
Visual distortion in which objects appear altered in size or weight.
Provide a functional intervention for metamorphopsia.
Practice distinguishing object sizes and weights in natural settings such as the kitchen.
What is prosopagnosia?
Inability to recognize and identify familiar faces.
Damage to which cerebral hemisphere is typically associated with prosopagnosia?
Right hemisphere.
Give one compensatory strategy for prosopagnosia.
Use name association with distinctive facial features or photographs.
Define simultanagnosia.
Inability to perceive the whole visual scene; can only recognize one element at a time.
How can OT facilitate meaning for clients with simultanagnosia?
Provide verbal cues to guide scanning and help construct the entire scene.
What is figure-ground discrimination dysfunction?
Difficulty distinguishing an object from its background.
List an adaptive intervention for figure-ground dysfunction.
Organize the environment by reducing clutter and increasing contrast between items and background.
What does form constancy dysfunction affect?
Recognition of forms, shapes, or objects regardless of orientation.
How can tactile cues help with form constancy dysfunction?
Feeling objects in varied positions reinforces recognition despite orientation changes.
Define position-in-space (spatial relations).
Understanding the orientation of an object relative to oneself.
Provide one activity to remediate position-in-space problems.
Practice placing items in specific positions while verbalizing spatial terms.
What is right-left discrimination dysfunction?
Inability to use the concepts of right and left accurately.
Give an intervention for right-left discrimination problems.
Cue the client to verbalize “right” and “left” during daily tasks.
Define stereopsis.
The ability to perceive depth in three-dimensional space.
What is stereognosis?
Ability to identify objects or shapes through touch without visual input.
What is asterognosis?
Deficit in stereognosis requiring visual monitoring to identify objects.
Define graphesthesia.
Ability to recognize numbers or letters traced on the skin.
What is agraphesthesia?
Loss of ability to identify numbers or letters written on the skin.
Describe a remedial approach for tactile discrimination deficits.
Engage the client in tasks using hands to identify varied textures, shapes, and symbols.
What is autotopagnosia?
Distorted body schema resulting in neglect or misidentification of body parts.
Provide one remediation technique for body schema disorders.
Use tactile and proprioceptive input to reinforce location and movement of body parts.
Define praxis.
The ability to plan and execute purposeful movement.
What is apraxia?
A deficit in learned motor movements not explained by weakness or sensory loss.
Ideational apraxia primarily affects which aspect of task performance?
Conceptual understanding and appropriate use of objects in correct sequence.
Ideomotor apraxia primarily affects which aspect of task performance?
Ability to mimic actions on command despite correct automatic use with objects.
What is dressing apraxia?
Inability to plan motor actions required for dressing.
Name one neurological condition commonly associated with progressive apraxia.
Alzheimer’s disease.
Why should vision screening occur in a room with low stimuli?
To reduce distractions and obtain accurate assessment of visual processing.
What visual disorder is common in multiple sclerosis due to optic nerve inflammation?
Optic neuritis.
Which diabetic complication commonly affects functional vision?
Diabetic retinopathy.
List two causes of blurry or double vision related to health conditions or medications.
Seizure medications and orbital surgery/tumors.
Which model emphasizes balance between person, activity, and environment for cognitive performance?
Dynamic Interactional Model (Toglia).
According to the Dynamic Interactional Model, what intervention method promotes generalization?
Strategy training with graded task demands and cueing.
What is intellectual awareness?
Recognition of one’s own cognitive limitations.
What is emergent awareness?
Real-time recognition of difficulties with ability to adjust behavior during the task.
Describe anticipatory awareness.
Predicting future challenges and preparing strategies before they occur.
What behavior is typical when attention deficits exist during ADLs?
Increased off-task behavior and distractibility.
Why is memory loss significant for occupational performance after brain injury?
It hampers learning and retention of new routines necessary for independence.
What Glasgow Coma Scale range indicates severe brain injury?
Scores 3–8.
Which three foundational visual skills should be screened first per Mary Warren’s hierarchy?
Oculomotor control, visual fields, and visual acuity.
In Snellen testing, how is acuity recorded if the client makes three errors on a line?
Record the previous line on which more than half the symbols were read correctly (e.g., OU 20/30).
List one basic consideration when planning oculomotor skill interventions.
Visual hygiene, proper body positioning, monocular-to-binocular progression, or licensure restrictions.
What visual deficit involves headaches, watery eyes, and difficulty shifting focus?
Accommodative insufficiency.
Name an informal screening method for pursuits and saccades.
Ask the client to follow a moving target, then look quickly between two stationary targets.
Frequent head movements while reading often indicate what underlying issue?
Poor oculomotor control affecting saccadic accuracy.
Give two reasons clients with brain injury may be unaware of visual disorders.
The visual system is mute and has redundancy that masks deficits.
Which professionals specialize in ocular health and prism prescription after orbital fractures?
Neuro-optometrist and neuro-ophthalmologist.
What distinguishes left neglect from a homonymous hemianopia regarding awareness?
Hemianopia clients often unaware due to perceptual completion; neglect involves inattention even if aware of loss.
What screening battery assesses visual acuity, neglect, and scanning in adults with brain injury?
BiVABA (Brain Injury Visual Assessment Battery for Adults).
Describe the cover/uncover test.
Alternately cover each eye while fixating on a target to detect ocular misalignment causing diplopia.
What is the purpose of perimetry testing?
Mapping the visual field to identify deficits.
Name the four orientation elements screened in cognition.
Person, time, place, and situation.
Give an example of a delayed-recall memory screening item.
Ask the client to remember three items and repeat them after 3–5 minutes.
Define executive functions.
Higher-level cognitive processes that coordinate planning, inhibition, and problem solving to achieve goals.
Which Rancho Level corresponds to confused, agitated behavior requiring maximal assistance?
Level IV.
At which Rancho Level does a client become automatic and appropriate in daily routines with shallow recall?
Level VII.
Which Rancho Level represents purposeful and appropriate functioning with modified independence?
Level X.
What does KELS evaluate?
Basic living skills and need for assistance in ADLs/IADLs.
Which assessment measures executive function during a real-world grocery shopping task?
TOGSS (Test of Grocery Shopping Skills).
What does the Cognitive Performance Test (CPT) observe?
Functional cognition through ADL tasks and the cues required.