Visual, Perceptual, and Cognitive Deficits Lecture Review

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A set of 200 question-and-answer flashcards covering visual, perceptual, oculomotor, cognitive, and assessment content from the lecture notes.

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201 Terms

1
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What two occupations are considered the most vision-dependent and therefore often limited after visual deficits?

Driving and reading.

2
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How does central visual field loss primarily impact occupational performance?

It impairs discrimination of small details and contrast, affecting reading, writing, and fine motor tasks.

3
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Which challenges are common with peripheral visual field loss?

Difficulty with mobility, locating landmarks, detecting motion, and orienting in the environment.

4
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Which screening device uses optotypes at various distances to measure distance acuity?

The Snellen chart (e.g., 20/20 acuity test).

5
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What term describes the brain’s ability to quickly identify objects?

Visual perception.

6
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Which type of visual field loss primarily compromises reading, writing, and fine motor tasks?

Central visual field loss.

7
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Which type of visual field loss primarily compromises mobility and environmental orientation?

Peripheral visual field loss.

8
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During evaluation, what client complaint suggests central field loss?

Letters are distorted or words are missing during reading.

9
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What complaint suggests impaired contrast sensitivity?

Inability to see faces clearly.

10
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List three environmental modifications used to compensate for poor contrast sensitivity.

Increase contrast, reduce busy patterns, and create a structured predictable environment.

11
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What is accommodative dysfunction?

Normal distance acuity but impaired near (reading) acuity due to poor accommodation.

12
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Which optical deficit is commonly called nearsightedness?

Myopia.

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Which optical deficit is commonly called farsightedness?

Hyperopia.

14
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What optical deficit is caused by an irregularly curved cornea or lens leading to blurred vision at all distances?

Astigmatism.

15
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What symptoms often accompany oculomotor dysfunction following brain injury?

Disorganized scanning and nausea with movement.

16
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What is diplopia?

Double vision causing perceptual distortion during reading and eye-hand activities.

17
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Which oculomotor condition features difficulty sustaining focus on near tasks with headaches and eye fatigue?

Convergence insufficiency.

18
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What neurological events most commonly cause homonymous hemianopia?

Traumatic brain injury and stroke.

19
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How does a visual field deficit such as hemianopia change visual search behavior?

Creates disorganized scanning, multiple fixations, longer search times, and difficulty locating objects.

20
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Which two functional areas are most affected by visual field deficits?

Functional mobility and reading.

21
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Define visual attention.

Ability to observe objects closely, ignore irrelevant stimuli, and shift visual focus as needed.

22
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What is hemi-inattention?

Impaired or absent response to sensory stimuli on one side of space without primary sensory loss.

23
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What is visual neglect?

Inattention to one half of the visual space around the body despite intact vision.

24
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How does visual neglect impact task completion?

Leads to incomplete search patterns and missing details on the neglected side.

25
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Define perception in the context of vision.

The brain’s interpretation of sensory information to give meaning to objects and events.

26
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Which standardized evaluation assesses perceptual and perceptual-motor dysfunction during ADLs?

The A-ONE.

27
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Is the A-ONE considered a top-down or bottom-up assessment?

Top-down.

28
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Name one assessment that examines visual search in dynamic arrays.

Toglia Dynamic Object Search Test.

29
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What does AMPS stand for?

Assessment of Motor and Process Skills.

30
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Which test evaluates overall visual perception without motor involvement?

MVPT-4 (Motor-Free Visual Perception Test, 4th ed.).

31
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What are the two main approaches to intervention for perceptual deficits?

Adaptive (compensatory) and remedial (restorative).

32
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Name a safety issue that can arise from visual perception disorders.

Difficulty recognizing hazards, leading to accidents.

33
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What is agnosia?

Inability to recognize or identify objects visually despite intact vision.

34
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A lesion in which brain region most commonly causes visual object agnosia?

Right occipital lobe or associated posterior areas.

35
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Give one adaptive strategy for agnosia.

Teach reliance on other senses such as touch or sound to identify objects.

36
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What is color agnosia?

Inability to remember and recognize specific colors in the environment.

37
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What is color anomia?

Inability to name the color of objects even though they are perceived.

38
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Provide one remediation activity for color agnosia or anomia.

Practice naming and matching colored objects in familiar contexts.

39
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Define metamorphopsia.

Visual distortion in which objects appear altered in size or weight.

40
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Provide a functional intervention for metamorphopsia.

Practice distinguishing object sizes and weights in natural settings such as the kitchen.

41
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What is prosopagnosia?

Inability to recognize and identify familiar faces.

42
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Damage to which cerebral hemisphere is typically associated with prosopagnosia?

Right hemisphere.

43
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Give one compensatory strategy for prosopagnosia.

Use name association with distinctive facial features or photographs.

44
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Define simultanagnosia.

Inability to perceive the whole visual scene; can only recognize one element at a time.

45
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How can OT facilitate meaning for clients with simultanagnosia?

Provide verbal cues to guide scanning and help construct the entire scene.

46
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What is figure-ground discrimination dysfunction?

Difficulty distinguishing an object from its background.

47
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List an adaptive intervention for figure-ground dysfunction.

Organize the environment by reducing clutter and increasing contrast between items and background.

48
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What does form constancy dysfunction affect?

Recognition of forms, shapes, or objects regardless of orientation.

49
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How can tactile cues help with form constancy dysfunction?

Feeling objects in varied positions reinforces recognition despite orientation changes.

50
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Define position-in-space (spatial relations).

Understanding the orientation of an object relative to oneself.

51
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Provide one activity to remediate position-in-space problems.

Practice placing items in specific positions while verbalizing spatial terms.

52
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What is right-left discrimination dysfunction?

Inability to use the concepts of right and left accurately.

53
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Give an intervention for right-left discrimination problems.

Cue the client to verbalize “right” and “left” during daily tasks.

54
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Define stereopsis.

The ability to perceive depth in three-dimensional space.

55
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What is stereognosis?

Ability to identify objects or shapes through touch without visual input.

56
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What is asterognosis?

Deficit in stereognosis requiring visual monitoring to identify objects.

57
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Define graphesthesia.

Ability to recognize numbers or letters traced on the skin.

58
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What is agraphesthesia?

Loss of ability to identify numbers or letters written on the skin.

59
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Describe a remedial approach for tactile discrimination deficits.

Engage the client in tasks using hands to identify varied textures, shapes, and symbols.

60
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What is autotopagnosia?

Distorted body schema resulting in neglect or misidentification of body parts.

61
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Provide one remediation technique for body schema disorders.

Use tactile and proprioceptive input to reinforce location and movement of body parts.

62
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Define praxis.

The ability to plan and execute purposeful movement.

63
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What is apraxia?

A deficit in learned motor movements not explained by weakness or sensory loss.

64
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Ideational apraxia primarily affects which aspect of task performance?

Conceptual understanding and appropriate use of objects in correct sequence.

65
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Ideomotor apraxia primarily affects which aspect of task performance?

Ability to mimic actions on command despite correct automatic use with objects.

66
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What is dressing apraxia?

Inability to plan motor actions required for dressing.

67
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Name one neurological condition commonly associated with progressive apraxia.

Alzheimer’s disease.

68
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Why should vision screening occur in a room with low stimuli?

To reduce distractions and obtain accurate assessment of visual processing.

69
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What visual disorder is common in multiple sclerosis due to optic nerve inflammation?

Optic neuritis.

70
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Which diabetic complication commonly affects functional vision?

Diabetic retinopathy.

71
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List two causes of blurry or double vision related to health conditions or medications.

Seizure medications and orbital surgery/tumors.

72
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Which model emphasizes balance between person, activity, and environment for cognitive performance?

Dynamic Interactional Model (Toglia).

73
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According to the Dynamic Interactional Model, what intervention method promotes generalization?

Strategy training with graded task demands and cueing.

74
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What is intellectual awareness?

Recognition of one’s own cognitive limitations.

75
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What is emergent awareness?

Real-time recognition of difficulties with ability to adjust behavior during the task.

76
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Describe anticipatory awareness.

Predicting future challenges and preparing strategies before they occur.

77
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What behavior is typical when attention deficits exist during ADLs?

Increased off-task behavior and distractibility.

78
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Why is memory loss significant for occupational performance after brain injury?

It hampers learning and retention of new routines necessary for independence.

79
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What Glasgow Coma Scale range indicates severe brain injury?

Scores 3–8.

80
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Which three foundational visual skills should be screened first per Mary Warren’s hierarchy?

Oculomotor control, visual fields, and visual acuity.

81
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In Snellen testing, how is acuity recorded if the client makes three errors on a line?

Record the previous line on which more than half the symbols were read correctly (e.g., OU 20/30).

82
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List one basic consideration when planning oculomotor skill interventions.

Visual hygiene, proper body positioning, monocular-to-binocular progression, or licensure restrictions.

83
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What visual deficit involves headaches, watery eyes, and difficulty shifting focus?

Accommodative insufficiency.

84
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Name an informal screening method for pursuits and saccades.

Ask the client to follow a moving target, then look quickly between two stationary targets.

85
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Frequent head movements while reading often indicate what underlying issue?

Poor oculomotor control affecting saccadic accuracy.

86
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Give two reasons clients with brain injury may be unaware of visual disorders.

The visual system is mute and has redundancy that masks deficits.

87
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Which professionals specialize in ocular health and prism prescription after orbital fractures?

Neuro-optometrist and neuro-ophthalmologist.

88
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What distinguishes left neglect from a homonymous hemianopia regarding awareness?

Hemianopia clients often unaware due to perceptual completion; neglect involves inattention even if aware of loss.

89
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What screening battery assesses visual acuity, neglect, and scanning in adults with brain injury?

BiVABA (Brain Injury Visual Assessment Battery for Adults).

90
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Describe the cover/uncover test.

Alternately cover each eye while fixating on a target to detect ocular misalignment causing diplopia.

91
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What is the purpose of perimetry testing?

Mapping the visual field to identify deficits.

92
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Name the four orientation elements screened in cognition.

Person, time, place, and situation.

93
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Give an example of a delayed-recall memory screening item.

Ask the client to remember three items and repeat them after 3–5 minutes.

94
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Define executive functions.

Higher-level cognitive processes that coordinate planning, inhibition, and problem solving to achieve goals.

95
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Which Rancho Level corresponds to confused, agitated behavior requiring maximal assistance?

Level IV.

96
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At which Rancho Level does a client become automatic and appropriate in daily routines with shallow recall?

Level VII.

97
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Which Rancho Level represents purposeful and appropriate functioning with modified independence?

Level X.

98
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What does KELS evaluate?

Basic living skills and need for assistance in ADLs/IADLs.

99
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Which assessment measures executive function during a real-world grocery shopping task?

TOGSS (Test of Grocery Shopping Skills).

100
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What does the Cognitive Performance Test (CPT) observe?

Functional cognition through ADL tasks and the cues required.