FR&R Pumped and Dumped (NIFE 2025)

0.0(0)
Studied by 0 people
call kaiCall Kai
learnLearn
examPractice Test
spaced repetitionSpaced Repetition
heart puzzleMatch
flashcardsFlashcards
GameKnowt Play
Card Sorting

1/218

encourage image

There's no tags or description

Looks like no tags are added yet.

Last updated 9:21 PM on 6/24/26
Name
Mastery
Learn
Test
Matching
Spaced
Call with Kai

No analytics yet

Send a link to your students to track their progress

219 Terms

1
New cards

Who is responsible for establishing, reviewing, and enforcing general regulations for all aviation activities in the US?

Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)

2
New cards

Who is responsible for the publication of the Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR) and the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)?

FAA

3
New cards

What publication states the operating rules and guidelines for domestic aviation which is binding to all aviators in the US (military and civilian)

Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR)

4
New cards

Which part of the FAR most affects Naval Aviators?

FAR Part 91: General Operating and Flight Rules

5
New cards

What is CNAF M-3710.7?

Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) General Flight & Operating Instructions Manual

6
New cards

Who is responsible for setting forth rules governing the operations of Naval aircraft throughout the world with the use of NATOPS?

Chief of Naval Airforce (CNAF)

7
New cards

Which instruction states that Naval aircraft must be operated IAW FAR Part 91 unless NATOPS prescribes more requirements?

CNAF M-3710.7

8
New cards

FAA allows deviation from FAR for what? (5 deviations)

S.L.A.M.S

1. Special mission

2. Low Level Mission Requirements

3. Alternate Airport Weather

4. Minimum Fuel

5. Speed

9
New cards

Which instruction sets forth rules governing the operations of Naval aircraft throughout the world and states that Naval aircraft must be operated IAW FAR Part 91 unless NATOPS prescribes more requirements?

CNAF M-3710.7

10
New cards

Which instruction states "Take necessary action to safeguard life and property under unusual or emergency situations"?

CNAF M-3710.7

11
New cards

What is the official guide to basic flight information and ATC procedures for use in the National Airspace system that contains pilot health concerns, medical facts, and factors affecting flight safety?

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

12
New cards

What publication is easier to read than the FAR but is NON-Regulatory?

Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM)

13
New cards

What are the publications published by the DoD for all branches that include instrument approach plates, en route charts/supplements, general planning guides, and area planning guides?

Flight Information Publications (FLIPS)

14
New cards

What is the priority of FAA/DOD Publications?

(Also include who they are released by, where it applies, and who it applies to)

1. NATOPS (Aircraft Specific), released by DoN, applies world-wide, and applies to specific DoN Aircraft

2. CNAF M-3710.7, released by DoN, applies world-wide, and applies to ALL DoN Aircraft

3. Flight Information Publications (FLIPS), released by DoD, applies world-wide, and applies to ALL DoD Aircraft

4. FAR Part 91, released by FAA, applies to the US air space, and applies to ALL (mil/civ) aircraft operating in US air space

15
New cards

What does "Shall" mean?

Mandatory

16
New cards

What does "Should" mean?

Recommended

17
New cards

What does "may" or "need not" mean?

optional

18
New cards

What does "will" mean?

Indicates futurity

19
New cards

Who approves CNAF-M Waivers/Exemptions to the FAR Part 91 regarding Naval aircraft from standard speed limitations in order to accommodate high-performance aircraft, military missions, alternate airport requirements, and cruising altitudes in uncontrolled airspace?

FAA Administrator

20
New cards

A clearance issued by _______________________ is predicated on known traffic and known physical airport conditions

Air Traffic Control (ATC)

21
New cards

For the purpose of preventing collision between known aircraft and for an aircraft to proceed under specific conditions within controlled airspace is an authorization/clearance by who?

Air Traffic Control (ATC)

22
New cards

What is the agency which enforces FAR, approves flight plans, and grants clearances?

Air Traffic Control (ATC)

23
New cards

What is an airborne radar beacon receiver/transmitter that receives interrogations and transmits squawks as replies to those interrogations?

Transponder

24
New cards

According to the PowerPoint, what does the Mode 3 Transponder and Mode C Transponder do?

Mode 3: Identifies Aircraft

Mode C: Provides aircraft pressure altitude information

25
New cards

What broadcasts information about an aircraft's GPS location, altitude, ground speed, and other data to ground stations and other aircraft, ONCE per second?

Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast (ADS-B)

26
New cards

For the priority of FAA/DoD Publications, which one is the most restrictive?

NATOPS (Aircraft Specific)

27
New cards

What are the (4) Sub-agencies of ATC?

1. Flight Service Station (FSS)

2. Control Tower (Clearance, Ground, Tower)

3. Terminal Radar Approach Control ("Approach/Departure")

4. Air Route Traffic Control Center ("Center")

28
New cards

Which sub agency of the ATC provides pilot briefings (which include weather, route, en route comms, and NOTAMS), flight plan processing, pilot assistance, flight watch, and is the "Base Ops" at military bases?

Flight Service Station (FSS)

29
New cards

Which sub agency of the ATC is responsible for the safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of traffic operating on and in vicinity of an airport?

Control Tower

30
New cards

What are the 3 stations of the Control Tower and what do they do?

1. Tower: Clearance to takeoff/land and cross runways

2. Clearance Delivery: relays ATC clearances for the flight plan however does NOT have control or surveillance capabilities

3. Ground: Clearance to taxi, movement on the ground but does NOT clear aircraft on active runway for Takeoff/Landing.

31
New cards

Which suborganization of the ATC controls all instrument flight rules (IFR) / IFR flights operating within its area of responsibility, may serve one or more airfields, and exercises primarily by pilot/controller comms?

Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON)

Also known as "Approach/Departure Control"

32
New cards

What is Terminal Radar Approach Control (TRACON) also known as?

Approach Control or Departure Control

33
New cards

Which suborganization of the ATC controls service to aircraft operating on IFR Flight plans en route, with certain advisories/assistance services to VFR aircraft if equipment/controller workload permits?

Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)

also known as "Center"

34
New cards

According to the FAR, who is directly responsible for and final authority of the aircraft's operation?

Pilot in Command (PIC)

Note: Be sure to know the what CNAF defines PIC as

35
New cards

According to CNAF, who is responsible for safe/orderly flight of aircraft and well being of crew?

Pilot in Command (PIC)

Note: Be sure to know the what FAR defines PIC as

36
New cards

Who is responsible for flight planning?

Pilot in Command (PIC)

37
New cards

Regarding Pre-Flight planning, what should the PIC include and be familiar with all aspects of?

FAAAWN

1. Fuel Req

2. Airport Data

3. Available Alternates

4. Anticipated Traffic Delays

5. Weather

6. NOTAMs

38
New cards

The primary purpose of _____________________ is to establish a baseline for lost comms or lost aircraft procedures?

Flight Plans

39
New cards

What is the most common form of flight plan that may be approved when flight will be conducted within established local flying area and adjacent to offshore operations and training areas?

Flight Schedule (Daily flight schedule)

40
New cards

How is weather obtained for flight weather briefs? (Primary and Alternate Method)

Primary: Flight Weather Brief (FWB) system via website, in-person, phone, fam, e-mail

Alternate: USAF Weather, USMC Weather, or FSS (1-800-WX-Brief) services

41
New cards

What are the weather brief void times?

Max 3 hours after the brief or 30 minute after ETD

Whichever is earlier

42
New cards

Who states that flights shall be planned to circumvent areas of forecast atmospheric icing/thunderstorm conditions when practicable?

CNAF

43
New cards

When are deviations from established rules allowed?

Emergency situations, when in judgment of the PIC and justified with safety however, PIC must be ready to answer for the reason

44
New cards

What are the two things that that the PIC SHALL ensure when planning to operate at Military/Joint Civilian-Military Airfields?

1. Airfield Operating Requirement

2. Prior Permission Required (PPR)

45
New cards

PIC can operate at civilian airfields listed in the FLIPS for what reasons (3 of them)

1. Contributes to mission

2. Adds value to training

3. Interest of Gov or Tax Payer

46
New cards

PIC shall make every effort to purchase fuel from military or contract sources unless what 3 reasons?

1. Mission requirements

2. Emergency landing

3. Land at alternate airfield

47
New cards

What are 5 PIC considerations when landing at an other-than-home airfield?

2L-2S-D

1. Familiar with special procedures

2. Runway length

3. Runway/taxiway load bearing capability

4. DoD contract services (fuel, oil, equipment, etc)

5. Security/Force Protection

48
New cards

Who is responsible for closing the flight plan and ensures proper agency is notified of flight termination (landing)?

PIC/Formation Leader

49
New cards

How are flight plans terminated at military installations?

Verbally - Tower or Base Ops

Delivery Flight Plan - Base Ops

50
New cards

How are flight plans termianted at nonmilitary installations?

FSS - any means of comms available

If communication won't exist, provide predicated landing time to aeronautical facility airborne

Note: Cancellation of IFR flight plan airborne does NOT close out flight plan. (Landing Report must be delivered)

51
New cards

Cancellation of an IFR flight plan airborne (does or does not) close out the flight plan and a ______________ __________ must be delivered.

Does not, Landing Report

52
New cards

What publication establishes minimum requirements for safety equipment and procedures?

CNAF M 3710.7

53
New cards

When shall safety belts and shoulder harness be worn?

Shall be worn tight prior to takeoff and until completion of flight

54
New cards

Regarding pilot fatigue, what is the most treatable type?

Dehydration

55
New cards

What are the requirements on crew rest?

8 hours of uninterrupted sleep time every 24 hours

56
New cards

What are the regulations on alcohol usage before flight?

12 hours prior to brief/planning AND free of any alcohol effects

57
New cards

What does tobacco do to human performance/aeromedical factors?

Been shown to impair night vision, dark adaption, and increase susceptibility to hypoxia

58
New cards

What is the recommended maximum intake of caffeine per day?

450mg per day (3-4 cups of drip coffee)

59
New cards

What is the regulation on drug use for flight?

Prohibited for flight personnel unless specifically approved by FS

60
New cards

What is the regulation on supplement usage while in flight status?

prohibited unless approved by BUMED through the FS

61
New cards

What is the flight regulation regarding a blood donation while in flight status?

No flight 4 days following donation of 450 cc (1 Pint) of blood

62
New cards

How many hours after an immunization can you fly (unless cleared earlier by a FS)?

12 hours

63
New cards

What contains information on establishment, condition or change in any aeronautical facility services, procedures, or hazard which is temporary or not known sufficiently in advanced to be public by any means?

Notice to Air Mission (NOTAM)

64
New cards

What is the flight plan form number for the DoD and the flight plan form number for the civilians?

DoD Form 1801

FAA Form 7233-1

65
New cards

________________ is determined from the direction an aircraft approaches based on the magnetic azimuth of the runway centerline from the approach direction

Runway orientation

66
New cards

What are coded light signals used to control aircraft and vehicles that cannot be reached by radio?

Aldis Lamp Signals

67
New cards

Which agency does not use steady white light due to many white lights at an airport?

FAA

68
New cards

T/F: Flashing white Aldis Lamp Signal is only to aircraft ON the ground

True

69
New cards

Directional flashing, steady, or alternating lights that may be red, green, or white are examples of what?

Aldis Lamp Signals

70
New cards

What does a Steady Green Aldis lamp signal mean for aircraft on surface and aircraft in flight?

Surface: Cleared for Takeoff

Flight: Cleared for Landing

71
New cards

What does a Flashing Green Aldis lamp signal mean for aircraft on surface and aircraft in flight?

Surface: Cleared to Taxi

Flight: Return for Landing

72
New cards

What does a Steady Red Aldis lamp signal mean for aircraft on surface and aircraft in flight?

Surface: Stop

Flight: Give way to aircraft and continue circling

73
New cards

What does a Flashing Red Aldis lamp signal mean for aircraft on surface and aircraft in flight?

Surface: Taxi Clear of Runway

Flight: Airport unsafe - do not land

74
New cards

What does a Flashing White Aldis lamp signal mean for aircraft on surface and aircraft in flight?

Surface: Return to Starting point on airport

Flight: N/A

75
New cards

What does a Alternating Red/Green Aldis lamp signal mean for aircraft on surface and aircraft in flight?

Surface: Exercise Extreme Caution

Flight: Exercise Extreme Caution

76
New cards

What are numbers and symbols depicted on the surface of runways and taxiways?

Airport Marking Aids

77
New cards

Regarding airport marking aids, what color is for runways and what color is for taxiways?

Runways: White

Taxiways: Yellow

78
New cards

What is a Runway Holding Position (Hold Short Line)?

Where aircraft SHALL stop when approaching a runway and it is 4 yellow lines (2 solid/2 dashed)

79
New cards

What are the 6 types of Airport Signs and what is the color of the letters/background?

RIDDLM

Runway Distance - W on B

Information - B on Y

Destination - B on Y

Direction - B on Y

Location - Y on B

Mandatory - W on R

80
New cards

Waveoff signals also mean what?

Do Not Land

81
New cards

High intensity red light at approach end of the runway should be treated as what?

Waveoff Signal

82
New cards

Examples of Wave off Signals could be what?

Red Flares, Flashing Red Aldis, Flashing Red on Navy/MC base Optical Landing Systems

Primary Wave off = Runway Duty Officer along the runway

83
New cards

T/F: Waveoff Signals or "Do Not Land" is mandatory compliance except for emergencies

True

84
New cards

Why is wind direction important for pilots takeoff/landing?

Takeoff and Land into the wind

85
New cards

The large end of the wind cone/windsock points ________ the wind and also indicates wind _______________.

Into, Velocity

86
New cards

The Large End (Cross Bar) of the Wind Tee points __________ the wind

Into

87
New cards

What has a spar that indicates landing direction?

Tetrahedron (Landing Gear)

88
New cards

Where are the colors on the Tetrahedron and how are Tetrahedrons aligned with the runway in use?

Red Lights on Port Base

Green Lights on Starboard Base/Spine

Manually or mechanically aligned with Runway in use

89
New cards

What is used to maintain optimum glide slope alignment during visual phase of landing?

Visual Glideslope Indicators (VASI/PAPI)

90
New cards

What does VASI stand for?

Visual Approach Slope Indicator

91
New cards

What does PAPI stand for?

Precision Approach Path Indicator

92
New cards

For VASI, Red over Red = what?

Below Glide Path

"Red over Red, You are Dead"

93
New cards

For VASI, Red over White = what?

On Glidepath

"Red over white, you are alright"

94
New cards

For VASI, White over White = what?

Above Glidepath

95
New cards

For PAPI, 2 red lights = what?

On Glide Path

96
New cards

For PAPI, 3 red lights = what?

Slightly Low glide path

97
New cards

For PAPI, 4 red = what?

Too Low Glide path

98
New cards

For PAPI, 1 red light = what?

Slightly High

99
New cards

for PAPI, 4 white = what?

Too High

100
New cards

What are Approach Light Systems (ALS) used for?

To transition from instrument flight to visual flight for landing