Social Dilemmas, Stress, and Eyewitness Testimony

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60 Terms

1
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What is a social dilemma?

A situation where individuals act in their own self-interest, leading to worse outcomes for everyone in the long run, such as overfishing or pollution.

2
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What is a social trap?

A specific type of social dilemma where individuals pursue short-term rewards that result in long-term negative consequences for everyone, like excessive fossil fuel use.

3
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What is the outcome in the Prisoner's Dilemma if both prisoners cooperate?

They are most likely to receive a light sentence.

4
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What happens in the Prisoner's Dilemma if one prisoner betrays the other?

The betrayer may receive a moderate sentence while the other gets a harsh sentence.

5
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What is a zero-sum game?

A situation where one player's gain is exactly balanced by the other's loss.

6
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What is a non-zero-sum game?

A situation where both players can benefit or both can lose; the Prisoner's Dilemma is often a non-zero-sum game.

7
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What is partitioning in the context of commons dilemmas?

Dividing resources, such as limiting individual water usage, to help reduce consumption.

8
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How can regulation help resolve commons dilemmas?

Governments can create rules, like fishing quotas, to control the overuse of common resources.

9
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What role does feedback play in addressing commons dilemmas?

Providing consumers with feedback on their resource usage can increase their awareness and encourage responsible behavior.

10
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Can both the Prisoner's Dilemma and Commons Dilemma be non-zero-sum games?

Yes, cooperative behavior in these dilemmas can lead to mutually beneficial outcomes.

11
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How can group discussion impact social dilemmas?

It can foster cooperation and find solutions, but may also hinder resolution if participants become entrenched in their positions.

12
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What is one strategy to resolve social dilemmas using small groups?

Focusing on small groups can encourage cooperation and easier enforcement of norms.

13
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What are social responsibility norms?

Norms that promote collective responsibility, which can help resolve social dilemmas, such as environmental protection.

14
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How can changing payoffs resolve social dilemmas?

Altering incentives, like offering rewards for conservation, can encourage more cooperative behavior.

15
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What is a negative mirror-image perception?

When each side in a conflict views the other as unreasonable or hostile, increasing hostility and complicating resolution.

16
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What is bargaining in conflict resolution?

Negotiation between parties to reach a mutual agreement.

17
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What is mediation?

A process involving a neutral third party who facilitates communication and encourages a win-win resolution.

18
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What is arbitration?

A process where a third party makes a binding decision in a conflict.

19
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What are the Four C's of Peacemaking?

Contact, cooperation, communication, and conciliation, which help reduce conflict.

20
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What does GRIT stand for in conflict resolution?

Graduated and Reciprocated Initiatives in Tension-Reduction, involving small concessions to build trust.

21
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How is stress defined?

A psychological and physiological response to perceived challenges or threats.

22
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What are the two forms of stress mentioned in the notes?

Acute (short-term) and chronic (long-term) stress.

23
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How do catastrophic events affect health?

They increase the likelihood of developing stress-related health problems such as cardiovascular issues and immune system suppression.

24
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What are common symptoms of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)?

Symptoms include flashbacks, nightmares, emotional numbness, and hyperarousal.

25
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What are the three stages of Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome?

1. Alarm: The body prepares for 'fight or flight.' 2. Resistance: The body adapts to ongoing stress. 3. Exhaustion: Prolonged stress leads to resource depletion and increased health risks.

26
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How does prolonged stress affect the immune system?

Prolonged stress is more harmful than acute stress and can lead to immune suppression, making individuals more susceptible to illness.

27
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What characteristics define Type A personalities?

Type A personalities are competitive, time-urgent, and hostile, putting them at higher risk for heart disease.

28
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What are the traits of Type D personalities?

Type D personalities are characterized by negative emotions and social inhibition, contributing to health issues like cardiovascular problems.

29
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What toxic components are associated with Type A personality?

Hostility and time urgency, which are linked to an increased risk of coronary heart disease.

30
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What is the difference between rational and irrational appraisals in Rational Emotive Therapy?

Rational appraisals involve a realistic view of stressors, while irrational appraisals exaggerate threats, leading to more intense emotional reactions.

31
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How can exercise impact symptoms of depression?

Exercise can reduce symptoms of depression by increasing endorphins and providing a sense of achievement.

32
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What health benefits are associated with laughter and humor?

Laughter and humor can reduce stress hormones, improve immune function, and enhance mood.

33
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What is the impact of social support on health?

People with social support tend to have better mental and physical health outcomes compared to those who are socially isolated.

34
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How do optimists and pessimists differ in their attributional styles?

Optimists attribute success to internal, stable, and global factors, while pessimists attribute failures to similar causes.

35
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What cognitive distortions are common in depressed individuals?

Negative self-schemas, overgeneralizing, and catastrophizing.

36
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What is self-efficacy?

Self-efficacy is the belief in one's ability to accomplish tasks, leading to better mental health and proactive behaviors.

37
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What are the health benefits of confiding about traumatic events?

Writing about traumatic events can improve long-term physical health and psychological well-being.

38
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What did Gary Wells' study reveal about eyewitness testimony?

Eyewitness misidentification was the leading cause of wrongful convictions in cases reviewed with DNA testing.

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How many DNA exonerations were reported by the Innocence Project as of 2019?

Over 375 DNA exonerations in the United States.

40
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What percentage of wrongful convictions were attributed to eyewitness misidentification in the Innocence Project cases?

Approximately 75% of wrongful convictions.

41
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What was the focus of the Sheppard & Vidmar (1980) study?

The study explored how eyewitnesses retelling their story affected their perception of the defense.

42
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What happens to eyewitness memories when they retell what they have seen?

Their memories may become more favorable toward the defense due to reconsideration of details.

43
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What type of photo presentation is preferred for improving accuracy in lineups?

Sequential presentations, where each photo is shown one at a time.

44
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Why are sequential presentations preferred over simultaneous presentations in lineups?

They reduce errors by preventing witnesses from directly comparing photos, which limits the risk of choosing the most familiar face.

45
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What did Loftus's study find about eyewitness testimony and verdicts?

Eyewitness testimony heavily influenced verdicts, but discrediting the eyewitness reduced this influence.

46
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How does pretrial publicity affect jurors' decisions?

It can significantly increase the likelihood of jurors voting guilty, even before all facts are presented.

47
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What is the effectiveness of instructions to disregard pretrial publicity?

Such instructions are not always effective, as jurors may still be subconsciously influenced.

48
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What are the advantages of six-person juries compared to twelve-person juries?

Six-person juries are more efficient and quicker in decision-making but may lack diversity in perspectives.

49
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What is a key benefit of twelve-person juries?

They are more likely to be representative of the population and provide a broader range of opinions.

50
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What did the Malpass and Devine (1981) study reveal about biased vs. unbiased instructions?

Unbiased instructions improved the accuracy of identifications and reduced errors in lineup processes.

51
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What proportion of criminal charges in the U.S. is based solely on eyewitness testimony?

Approximately one-third.

52
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What is the cognitive interview technique?

A method to improve eyewitness testimony by encouraging detailed recall using context reinstatement and open-ended questions.

53
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How does training police officers in cognitive interviews affect eyewitness testimony?

It increases the amount of information provided by witnesses and reduces the likelihood of false memories.

54
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What influenced viewers' likelihood of voting guilty in the Wiseman (1998) study?

The characteristics of the suspect, such as appearance and perceived credibility.

55
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What are death-qualified juries?

Juries composed of individuals who do not oppose the death penalty, often leading to a more pro-prosecution group.

56
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What is the misinformation effect?

It occurs when misleading information introduced after an event alters an individual's memory of that event.

57
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What is the leading cause of the misinformation effect according to Loftus?

The suggestibility of eyewitnesses, where later information can alter their recollection.

58
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What is voir dire?

The jury selection process where attorneys question potential jurors to ensure impartiality.

59
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What are peremptory challenges?

Challenges that allow attorneys to dismiss potential jurors without stating a reason, though they are limited in number.

60
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What is exclusion for cause in jury selection?

Dismissing a potential juror due to a specific reason, such as bias or prior knowledge of the case.