Anatomy & Physiology Exam Review - Practice Flashcards (Question & Answer)

A set of practice Q&A flashcards covering structural organization, embryology, tissues, integument, skeletal system, muscles, nervous system, sense organs, endocrine, cardiovascular, lymphatic/immune, respiratory, digestive, urinary, and reproductive systems.

What are the six levels of structural organization in the human body, from simplest to most complex?

Chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, organ system, organism.

Which four elements account for over 90% of the body's mass?

Carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, and hydrogen.

What is distinctive about red blood cells and neurons in terms of nuclei and length?

RBCs are anucleate (no nucleus); neurons can be very long (several feet).

Name the four basic tissue types.

Epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous tissue.

Describe the anatomical position for human body orientation.

Standing erect with feet together and eyes forward; palms facing anteriorly and thumbs pointing away from the body.

Which plane divides the body into anterior and posterior portions?

Coronal (frontal) plane.

Which plane divides the body into left and right halves?

Median (midsagittal) plane.

Which plane is horizontal and separates superior from inferior parts?

Transverse plane.

What is the function of serous membranes?

Line passages or cavities that are closed to the outside.

What do mucous membranes line?

Passages that communicate with the air (airways, etc.).

Define the embryonic period.

First 8 weeks of development (embryo).

Define the fetal period.

Remaining 30 weeks of development (fetus).

What is a zygote?

Fertilized oocyte that forms blastomeres (daughter cells).

What are blastomeres?

Daughter cells produced by the zygote; identical cells after division.

What is a morula?

A cluster of about 12–16 blastomeres.

What is a blastocyst?

A fluid-filled structure with about 60 cells; cavity forms as morula cells move outward.

What does cleavage refer to in early development?

Cell division without growth, so the embryo stays the same size.

What are the two layers of the bilaminar embryonic disc and their positions?

Epiblast (upper) and hypoblast (lower).

What forms the amniotic sac and amnion?

Amnion (derived from the epiblast) forms the amniotic sac around the embryo; the cavity contains amniotic fluid.

What forms from the yolk sac, and what develops from it?

Yolk sac forms from hypoblast; the digestive tube develops from the yolk sac.

What is gastrulation and which germ layers are formed during week 3?

Epiblast cells migrate to form endoderm; mesoderm forms between epiblast and endoderm; ectoderm forms from remaining epiblast.

What structures result from neurulation?

Neural plate, neural groove, neural tube (brain and spinal cord); neural crest forms sensory neurons and ganglia.

Which germ layer forms the endoderm?

Endoderm.

Which germ layer forms connective tissue, muscle, and the notochord?

Mesoderm.

Which germ layer forms the skin and nervous system?

Ectoderm.

What is the notochord?

A mesoderm-derived core along the developing axis; contributes to axial skeleton; cells migrate through the primitive node.

What are the neural plate, neural groove, and neural tube?

Stages of neurulation; neural plate thickens, folds to form neural groove, which becomes the neural tube.

What are the main characteristics of epithelial tissue in terms of vascularity and cellularity?

Avascular (no blood vessels) and highly cellular (densely packed cells).

Name the four epithelial tissue subclassifications by layers.

Simple, Stratified, Pseudostratified, Transitional.

What are exocrine and endocrine glands?

Exocrine glands secrete into ducts; endocrine glands secrete hormones into the blood.

What is extracellular matrix (ECM) in connective tissue?

A non-cellular component consisting of fibers and ground substance that supports cells.

What are the main subclasses of connective tissue?

Connective tissue proper, cartilage, bone (osseous tissue), blood (specialized connective tissue).

What are the primary bone cell types?

Osteogenic cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts.

What is bone remodeling?

Replacement of old bone with new bone via osteoblast activity (formation) and osteoclast activity (resorption).

What are the four principal types of bone?

Long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones.

What is the difference between spongy bone and compact bone?

Spongy bone is porous and lighter; compact bone is dense and forms the outer layer with osteons.

What is ossification?

Bone formation; occurs via intramembranous and endochondral ossification.

What are the two major layers of the skin and the major sublayer of the dermis?

Epidermis and dermis; dermis contains the papillary and reticular layers.

What is the hypodermis (subcutaneous layer) primarily composed of and its function?

Areolar and adipose connective tissue; anchors skin and provides insulation.

What is the function of osteons in compact bone?

Structural unit containing a central canal, lamellae, lacunae, and canaliculi, with vessels and nerves.

Name the five epidermal layers from deep to superficial in thick skin where present.

Stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum (thick skin), stratum corneum.

What are the two layers of the dermis called?

Papillary layer (top) and Reticular layer (deep).

What is the function of the hypodermis in relation to aging?

Thinning of the hypodermis with age reduces insulation.

What are the basic functions of bones?

Support, protection, movement, mineral storage (Ca2+), blood cell formation, energy metabolism.

What is the axial skeleton?

Bones along the central axis: skull, vertebral column, rib cage.

What is the appendicular skeleton?

Bones of the limbs and girdles (pectoral and pelvic).

Describe a typical vertebra and highlight differences among C1, C2, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral.

Typical vertebra has a vertebral body, vertebral arch, and processes; C1 (atlas) supports skull; C2 (axis) has dens; thoracic vertebrae have facet joints for ribs; lumbar vertebrae have large bodies; sacral vertebrae fused into sacrum.

What are the normal curves of the vertebral column and how do they develop?

Cervical and lumbar lordoses (inward), thoracic and sacral kyphoses (outward); curves develop with posture and growth.

What are kyphosis, lordosis, and scoliosis?

Kyphosis: excessive thoracic outward curve; lordosis: excessive lumbar inward curve; scoliosis: abnormal lateral curvature.

What is an intervertebral disc and its function?

Cartilaginous disc between vertebrae that absorbs shock and allows movement.

What are the two sets of skull bones and their functions?

Cranial bones protect the brain; facial bones protect the sensory organs and form the face.

Describe the thoracic cage and its components.

Ribs and sternum forming the rib cage, protecting thoracic organs and assisting breathing.

What bones constitute the pectoral girdle and the pelvic girdle?

Pectoral girdle: clavicle and scapula; Pelvic girdle: hip bones (ilium, ischium, pubis) connected to sacrum.

What is a motor unit?

A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates; defines motor control units.

What are the origins and insertions in limb muscles?

Origin: immovable or proximal attachment; Insertion: movable distal attachment.

What is the difference between a mechanical advantage and a mechanical disadvantage?

Mechanical advantage: muscle force is amplified to move a load; mechanical disadvantage: less force amplification, more movement distance.

Define agonist, antagonist, and synergist.

Agonist: primary mover; antagonist: opposite mover; synergist: assists the agonist.

What are the four main components of a reflex arc?

Receptor, sensory neuron, integration center (CNS), motor neuron, effector.

What are the 4 parts of the brain, as commonly listed in anatomy courses?

Cerebrum, diencephalon, brainstem, cerebellum.

Where is CSF produced and how is it circulated?

Produced by choroid plexuses in the ventricles; circulates through ventricles and subarachnoid space, reabsorbed via arachnoid granulations.

Name the 12 cranial nerves and classify each as primarily sensory, motor, or mixed.

I Olfactory (sensory), II Optic (sensory), III Oculomotor (motor), IV Trochlear (motor), V Trigeminal (mixed), VI Abducens (motor), VII Facial (mixed), VIII Vestibulocochlear (sensory), IX Glossopharyngeal (mixed), X Vagus (mixed), XI Accessory (motor), XII Hypoglossal (motor).

What is a dermatome?

An area of skin innervated by a single spinal nerve or dorsal root.

Describe the pathway of a simple reflex arc and its five components.

Receptor → sensory neuron → integration center → motor neuron → effector.

What are the main functions of the endocrine system?

Produce and secrete hormones; regulate body processes via chemical signaling; maintain homeostasis.

What is the difference between exocrine and endocrine glands?

Exocrine glands release products into ducts; endocrine glands release hormones into the bloodstream.

Name the major components of the respiratory system's anatomy from nose to alveoli.

Nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli.