BOC Practice Test Questions 4

An athlete presents with the following signs and symptoms:

-Point tenderness on the dorsal aspect of the DIP joint

-Unable to actively extend the DIP joint

-AROM assessment reveals full passive extension of the DIP joint.

Which finger injury may be indicated by these signs and symptoms? Choose only one.

1. Boutonniere deformityheat

2. Jersey finger

3. Mallet finger

4. Swan neck deformity

5. Trigger finger

Mallet Finger

Which of the following are the MOST appropriate management strategies for a tooth avulsion? Choose all that apply.

a. Place in gauze on ice

b. Place in moist gauze

c. Refer to dentist immediately

d. Replace into the socket

e. Rinse with bottled water

f. Rinse with milk

g. Rinse with saline water

C) Refer to dentist immediately

D) Replace into Socket

F) Rinse with MILK

G) Rinse with Saline Water

Based on the Gate Control Theory, which transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation parameters are MOST appropriate to provide pain relief? Choose only one.

a. Intensity: sensory, pulse freqeuency 80 pps, pulse duration 75 microseconds

b. Intensity: motor, pulse frequency 80 pps, pulse duration 75 microseconds

c. Intensity: sensory, pulse frequency 15 pps, pulse duration 150 microseconds

d. Intensity: motor; pulse frequency 4 pps, pulse duration 200 microseconds

e. Intensity: sensory, pulse frequency 4 pps, pulse duration 250 microseconds

A. Intensity: Sensory, Frequency 80 pps, Pulse Duration 75 microseconds

What is the primary purpose of the pre-participation examination? Choose only one.

a. Determine baseline health status of an athlete

b. Determine the health history of an athlete

c. Determine the musculoskeletal health of an athlete

d. Exclude athletes who show risk of injury or illness

e. Identify risk factors that may predispose an athlete to serious illness or injury

e. Identify risk factors that may predispose an athlete to serious illness or injury

An athlete complains of anterior lower leg pain as a result of a direct blow. The athlete reports intense pain as well as numbness into the foot and is unable to dorsiflex the foot. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate acute treatment? Choose only one.

a. Compression wrap only

b. Ice and compression wrap

c. Passive stretching

d. Posterior splint and overnight observation

e. Immediate referral to a physician

e. Immediate Referral to a physician

During the pre-participation examination, an athlete reports light-headedness, dizziness, nausea, and referred pain to the inferior angle of the right scapula. What condition should the athletic trainer suspect? Choose only one.

a. Abdominal hernia

b. Appendicitis

c. Choleocystitis

d. Hepatomegaly

e. Splenomegaly

d. Hepatomegaly

A patient presents with signs and symptoms of an L4-L5 disk herniation. Which of the following neurologic assessments will aid the athletic trainer in the confirmation of the diagnosis? Choose all that apply.

a. Deficit with the Achilles reflex

b. Deficit with the patella reflex

c. Paresthesia at the dorsum of the foot

d. Parasethesia at the medial aspect of the tiba

e. Paresthesia at the plantar surface of the foot

f. Weakness during big toe extension

g. Weakness during dorsiflexion

c. Paresthesia at the dorsum of the foot

g. Weakness during big toe extension

Which of the following are preventative measures to avoid a ruptured tympanic membrane? Choose all that apply.

a. Aggressive treating otitis media

b. Avoidance of foreign objects in the ear

c. Frequent washing of ears

d. Use of daily ear drops to dry up fluid in ear

e. Use of head gear to protect ear

f. Using of hearing aid

a. Aggressive treating otitis media

b. Avoidance of foreign objects in the ear

e. Use of head gear to protect the ear

Using the flash-to-bang method of managing lightening, if the time between when the athletic trainer sees lightening and hears the clap of thunder is 20 seconds, approximately how far away is the lightening from the athletic trainers' location? Choose only one.

a. Less than one mile

b. 2 miles

c. 4 miles

d. 10 miles

e. 15 miles

c. 20 / 5 = 4 miles

An athlete with Type I diabetes feels light headed and dizzy. Which of the following is BEST to give him in order to prevent diabetic shock? Choose only one.

a. Protein shake

b. Glass of apple juice

c. Glass of diet soda

d. Saltine cracker

e. Salty potato chips

b. Glass of apple juice

An athletic trainer is treating an athlete who is recovering from a severe hamstring injury. During the most recent re-evaluation the athletic trainer notes the following:

-The athlete has no acute inflammation

-The athlete is pain free

-There is no swelling in the injury site

-The athlete's AROM is equal bilaterally

What other components MUST be evaluated by the athletic trainer to determine the athlete's readiness to return to full sports participation? Choose all that apply.

a. Endurance

b. Femoral pulse

c. Flexibility

d. Insurance status

e. Sport-specific skills

f. Strength

a. endurance

c. flexibility

e. sport specific skills

f. strength

Which of the following infections usually develops vesicles? Choose only one.

a. Tinea capitis

b. Ringworm

c. Plantar warts

d. Impetigo

e. Athlete's foot

d. Impetigo

Decreased Achilles tendon flexibility is a predisposing factor for which of the following injuries? Choose all that apply.

a. Achilles tendonitis

b. Hallux valgus

c. Lateral ankle sprain

d. Plantar fasciitis

e. Syndesmosis sprain

f. Tarsal tunnel syndrome

a. achilles tendonitis

c. lateral ankle sprain

d. plantar fasciitis

Which of the following is the MOST restrictive form of credential regulation? Choose only one.

a. Certification

b. Exemption

c. Licensure

d. Registration

c. Licensure

Which of the following signs, symptoms, and/or test results would indicate a diagnosis of thoracic outlet syndrome? Choose ally that apply.

a. Absent radial pulse in military brace position

b. Absent radial pulse with active compression test

c. Complaint of hot/burning fingers after pitching

d. Complaint of loose feeling in shoulder while pitching

e. Diminished radial pulse during a Speed's test

f. Diminished radial pulse during an Adson's test

g. Numbness/tingling in the upper extremity after pitching

h. Pallor in the upper extremity after activity

a. Absent radial pulse in military brace position

f. diminished radial pulse during an Adson's test

g. Numbness/tingling in the upper extremity after pitching

h. pallor in the upper extremity after activity

When splinting a suspected extremity fracture, which of the following is MOST important for proper splint application? Choose only one.

a. Check distal neurovascular function

b. Check proximal neurovascular function

c. Immobilize only the joint proximal to the fracture

d. Place the ties directly above the fracture site

e. Reduce the fracture

a. Check distal neurovascular function

Which of the following regulates how and when an athlete's private health information can be shared among healthcare professionals? Choose only one.

a. Occupational Safety and Health Administration

b. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

c. Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act

d. Buckley Amendment

b. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

What bony structure should the athletic trainer palpate to assess for plantar fasciitis? Choose only one

a. Talus

b. Navicular tubercle

c. Peroneal tubercle

d. Sustentaculum tali

e. Medial calcaneal tubercle

e. Medial calcaneal tubercle

Reference: Anderson, M.K. et al. Foundations of Athletic Training: Prevention, Assessment, and Management, 4th edition. Philadelphia, PA: Lippincott, Williams & Wilkins, 2009.

How often should the electrical modalities used in an athletic training facility be calibrated in order to reduce the risk of a lawsuit? Choose only one.

a. When issues arise

b. Every year

c. Every two years

d. Every three years

e. Every four years

b. Every year

What instruction should an athletic trainer provide to a basketball player who wants to reduce the risk of ACL injury when rebounding the ball? Choose only one.

a. "Absorb the force primarily with your ankles while keeping your knees centered over your toes."

b. "Absorb the force with your ankles, knees, and hips while keeping your knees centered over your toes."

c. "Keep your knees stiff and extended on contact, allowing your hips and ankles to absorb most of the force."

d. "Land directly on your heels and absorb the force by bending forward at the waist."

e. "Land on your toes, but absorb the force by going into deep knee flexion."

b. Absorb the force with your ankles, knees, and hips while keeping your knees centered over your toes

Which type of topical cream is MOST appropriate to treat impetigo? Choose only one.

a. Antibiotic

b. Antifungal

c. Antimicrobial

d. Antipyretic

e. Antiviral

a. Antibiotic

Which of the following conditions describes a blow to the precordial region of the chest that can be fatal? Choose only one.

a. Cardiac ischemia

b. Commotio cordis

c. Myocardial infarction

d. Ventricular fibrillation

e. Ventricular tachycardia

b. Commotio Cordis

When palpating the sternocleidomastoid; the head should be actively moved in what position to allow a more prominent palpation? Choose only one.

a. Rotated to opposite side

b. Rotated to same side

c. Position of neutral

d. Position of flexion

e. Position of extension

a. Rotated to the opposite side

Which of the following terms describes informing individuals who participate in sports that their participation can lead to injury and/or possibly death, allowing them to ask questions, and having them sign a form affirming their understanding of their participation?

Choose only one.

a. Assumption of risk

b. Consenting risk

c. Foreseeability of harm

d. Foreseeability of risk

e. Informed consent

a. Assumption of risk

Acute exertional rhabdomyolysis is MOST likely to occur in which environmental conditions? Choose only one.

a. Hot and humid

b. Cold anddry

c. High altitude

d. Polluted areas

a. Hot and Humid

Which of the following are MOST common symptoms of mild hypothermia? Choose only one.

a. Confusion, dizziness, slurred speech, and agitation

b. Confusion, shivering, slurred speech, and apathy

c. Confusion, shivering, unsteady gait, and apathy

d. Dizziness, shivering, slurred speech, and agitation

e. Dizziness, slurred speech, unsteady gait, and agitation

b. Confusion, Shivering, Slurred speech, apathy

Which of the following is the MOST effective way to reduce costs for expendable supplies? Choose only one.

a. Bid for supplies and services

b. Centralize supply storagae

c. Lease supplies and services

d. Raise outside funds

e. Use pooled buying consortiums

a. Bid for Supplies and Services

Which of the following infections is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)? Choose only one.

a. Influenza

b. Measles

c. Mononucleosis

d. Rhinovirus

c. Mononucleosis

After treating an athlete for thoracic outlet syndrome for three days, the athlete returns to the athletic training room complaining of continued decreasing ball velocity and a tired and heavy arm. The athletic trainer reevaluates the athlete with the following findings:

-Noticeable swelling in the athelte's pitching arm

-Normal and symmetrical radial pulse

-Cool skin temperature to the touch

-Normal (5/5) strength in wrist flexion, wrist extension, elbow flexion, and elbow extension

When considered collectively, what action should the athletic trainer take at this time? Choose only one.

a. Apply electrical stimulation for edema reduction

b. Apply compression sleeve and elevate

c. Continue strengthening, stretching, and ice treatment

d. Perform a milking massage

e. Refer for further evaluation

e. Refer for further evaluation

Which of the following statements represents the BEST recommendation that an athletic trainer could provide to a tennis player suffering from lateral epicondylitis? Choose only one.

a. Decrease racquet grip size and hold the racquet tighter.

b. Hold the racquet less tightly and limit the number of backhand strokes

c. Increase racket grip size and limit the number of forehand strokes

d. Stretch the shoulder musculature and decrease the racquet grip size

e. Stretch the wrist flexors and strengthen the forearm flexors

b. Hold the racquet less tightly and limit the number of backhand strokes

Weakness of which muscle is associated with a Trendelenburg gait? Choose only one.

a. Gluteus medius

b. Gluteus maximus

c. Iliopsoas

d. Quadratus lumborum

e. Tensor fascia lata

a. Gluteus Medius

During the evaluation of an existing emergency action plan, which components should be reviewed and updated by the athletic trainer? Choose only one.

a. Equipment, insurance, venue location, and weather consideration

b. Personnel, equipment, insurance, and contact information

c. Personnel, equipment, transportation, and emergency care facilities

d. Personnel, qualifications, insurance, and emergency care facilities

e. Personnel, venule location, transportation, and weather considerations

c. Personnel, Equipment, Transportation, Emergency care facilities

Which of the following is the MOST common mechanism of injury for a brachial plexus neurapraxia? Choose only one.

a. Cervical hyperextension with cervical compression

b. Cervical hyperextension with a rotational force

c. Forward cervical flexion with an axial load

d. Lateral cervical flexion with contralateral shoulder depression

e. Lateral cervical flexion with contralateral shoulder elevation

d. Lateral cervical flexion with contralateral shoulder depression

Two athletes collide during a lacrosse game. One athlete continues playing while the other athlete is unconscious, but breathing with a palpable pulse. Which actions should the athletic trainer take FIRST? Choose only one.

a. Activate EMS and monitor the athlete's vital signs

b. Begin secondary survey to asses for futher injuries

c. Establish airway, breathing, and circulation

d. Remove protective head gear and activate the emergency action plan

e. Spineboard the athlete for immediate transport to the emergency room

a. Activate EMS and monitor the athlete's viral signs

An athletic trainer is engaged in an irresolvable dispute with a basketball coach regarding the treatment of athletic injuries. Which of the following course of action is MOST appropriate? Choose only one.

a. Discus the situation with colleague at the institution and formulate an action plan to resolve the dispute

b. Discuss the situation with peers at other institution an d formulate an action plan to resolve the dispute

c. Assign another athletic trainer to work with the basketball team

d. Utilize the "chain of command" as defined by the organizational hierarchy of the institution

e. Write a memo to the National Coaching Association outlining the coach's behavior

d. Utilize the "chain of command" as defined by the organizational hierarchy of the institution

During evaluation of a patient, an athletic trainer observes the following signs and symptoms:

-Anterior lower leg is hard and painful to touch

-Numbness on the dorsum of the foot

-Dorsal pedis pulse is diminished

What condition should the athletic trainer suspect?

Choose only one.

a. Syndesmotic ankle sprain

b. Medial tibial stress syndrome

c. Fibular fracture

d. Deep vein thrombophlebitis

e. Anterior compartment syndrome

e. Anterior Compartment Syndrome

Which of the following modalities would MOST effectively heat the piriformis muscle? Choose only one.

a. Iontophoresis

b. Short-wave diathermy

c. Hydrocollator

d. Ultrasound (3Mhz)

e. Warm whirlpool

b. Short Wave Diathermy

Which of the following electrical current parameters is required to perform iontophoresis? Choose only one.

a. Low-voltage alternating current

b. Low-voltage direct current

c. Low-voltage interferential current

d. High voltage alternating current

e. High-voltage direct current

b. Low Voltage Direct Current

In order to prevent the spread of methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), how often should whirlpools and turbines should be emptied and thoroughly disinfected?

Choose only one.

a. After every patient

b. At the beginning of each day

c. At the end of each day

d. Once daily

e. Once weekly

a. After every patient

Which of the following describes the signs and symptoms of heat stroke?

Choose only one.

a. Disorientation, cool skin, shallow breathing, and rapid strong pulse

b. Disorientation, headache, cool skin, and rapid strong pulse

c. Disorientation, red/dry skin, increased body temperature, and rapid, strong pulse

d. Dizziness, headache, cool skin, and rapid, weak pulse

e. Dizziness, pale skin, headache, and rapid, weak pulse

c.Disorientation, red/dry skin, Increased body temperature, and rapid, strong pulse

What is the OPTIMAL time frame in days for a conditioned athlete to become acclimated to high-heat stress conditions?

Choose only one.

a. 1-4

b. 5-9

c. 10-14

d. 15-19

e. 20-25

c. 10-14 Days

An athlete complains of unusual fatigue that has increased during the last 10 days. He reports a loss of appetite, mild headache, and sore throat. The athletic trainer's evaluation reveals swollen tonsils, a low-grade fever, and puffiness of the eyelids. In addition, the athlete's posterior cervical lymph nodes are swollen and tender, but lymph nodes everywhere are normal. Based on these signs and symptoms, which of the following conditions is MOST likely?

Choose only one.

a. Influenza

b. Strep throat

c. HIV infection

d. Hepatitis B infection

e. Infections mononucleosis

e. Infectious mononucleosis

What is the MOST appropriate course of treatment for an athlete with hyphema?

Choose only one.

a. Rinse the athlete's eye with saline and return the athlete to play

b. Reurn the athlete to play and follow up after the practice or competition

c. Place the athlete in a supine position, apply a cold compress, and refer to a physician

d. Place the athlete in a recumbent position with head elevated and refer to a physician

e. Apply an ice pack to the eye and refer to a physician

d. Place the athlete in a recumbent position with head elevated, Refer to a physician

An athlete injures an ankle during a basketball game and is unable to bear weight. What is the MOST appropriate way to remove the athlete from the court?

Choose all that apply.

a. Cart

b. Cane

c. Gurney

d. Manual conveyance

e. Spine board

A, C, D

a. Cart

c. Gurney

d. Manual Conveyance

An athlete on the wrestling team presents to the athletic trainer complaining of cramps in his calves. The athlete states that he was running for approximately one hour in order to lose weight. Upon observation , the athletic trainer notes that the athlete seems disoriented and lacks balance. As the athlete removes his plastic suit, the athletic trainer notices that the athlete's skin is pale and clammy. In addition, the athlete has an elevated pulse. Based on these signs and symptoms, which of the following condition is MOST likely?

Choose only one.

a. Common cold

b. Heat exhaustion

c. Heat stroke

d. Hypothermia

e. Influenza

b. Heat exhaustion

Which of the following is an epiphyseal condition that causes tissue necrosis and potential deformation to the head of the femur?

Choose only one.

a. Sever's disease

b. Shceruman's disease

c. Os trigonum syndrome

d. Osgood-Schlatter disease

e. Legg-Calve-Perthes syndrome

e. Legg-Calve Perthes Syndrome/disease

An athlete complains that his helmet is rocking anteriorly and cutting the bridge of his nose.

Which of the following methods would be the BEST approach to alleviate this problem?

Choose only one.

a. Fit the athlete with a smaller helmet

b. Insert internal padding to the helmet

c. Insert larger cheek/jaw pads into the helmet

d. Insert larger ear pads into the helmet

e. Instruct the athlete to tighten the chin straps

a. Fit the athlete with a smaller helmet

Which of the following tests could an athletic trainer use to confirm a suspected bicep brachii tendon rupture?

Choose only one.

a. Yergason's

b. O'brien's

c. Ludington's

d. Hawkins-kennedy

e. Adson's

c. Ludington's

Total immersion of the body in cold water dissipates heat by which of the following mechanisms?

Choose only one.

a. Changes in hydrostatic pressure

b. Conduction of body heat into the cold water

c. Decrease in metabolic heat production

d. Restoration of blood volume

b. conduction of body heat into the cold water

Which of the following are the five cardinal signs of inflammation?

Choose only one.

a. Redness, paresthesia, decreased surface temperature, point tenderness, and loss of function

b. Heat, redness, loss of sensation, point tenderness, and atrophy

c. Heat, redness, loss of senation, pain, and loss of function

d. Redness, swelling, pain, atrophy, and point tenderness

e. Heat, redness, swelllin,g pain, and loss of function

e. Heat, Redness, Inflammation, Pain, Loss of Function

Which of the following splinting devices should an athletic trainer use to BEST immobilize an open fracture?

Choose only one.

a. Air splint

b. Board splint

c. Fiberglass cast material

d. Plaster cast material

b. Board Splint

Which statement would be included in the subjective section of the SOAP notes?

Choose only one.

a. "I felt a sharp twinge in the back of my thigh."

b. First degree (knee) MCL sprain

c. The athlete has limited active ROM due to pain

d. The athlete has a positive Lachman's sign on the left knee

e. The athlete will have no contact for three days

a. "I felt a sharp twinge in the back of my thigh."

Which of the following treatment is MOST appropriate for Morton's Neuroma?

Choose only one.

a. Commercially made gel heel cup to support the posterior calcaneus

b. Full length gel arch support

c. One-eight inch (0.32 cm) adhesive foam pad secured by an arch taping in the medial longitunal arch

d. One-fourth inch (0.64 cm) felt donut pad over the medial aspect of 1st metatarsal

e. Teardrop shaped foam pad on the plantar surface between the 3rd and 4th metatarsals

e. teardrop shaped foam pad on the plantar surface between the 3rd and 4th metatarsals

Which of the following budget types is BEST described as a fixed sum of money spent as needed and documented after the fact?

Choose only one.

a. Fixed

b. Spending ceiling

c. Zero-based

d. Line-item

e. Lump-sum

e. Lumpsum

Which statement BEST describes Marfan syndrome?

Choose only one.

a. A hereditary condtion involving blood and other bodiliyt fluids

b. A hereditary condition involveing the connective tissues, bones, muscles, and ligaments

c. A hereditary condition similar to multiple sclerosis

d. A hereditary condition similar to rheumatoid arthritis

a. A herediatary condition involving blood and other bodily fluids

After assessing an athlete with a suspected femoral fracture, the athlete appears pale, and perspiring, has a rapid and weak pulse, and has rapid and shallow respirations. Which physiological response is MOST likely occurring? Choose only one.

a. Blood pooling due to vasoconstriction

b. Decreased heart rate due to hemorrhaging

c. Hypertension due to hypervolemia

d. Hypovolemia due to hemorrhaging

e. Increased cardiac output due to decreased peripheral resistance

d. Hypovolemia due to hemorrhaging

A 13-year-old presents with an insidious onset of pain in the knee joint. There is specific tenderness along the joint line and joint locking. Which of the following injuries is suggested by these symptoms?

Choose only one.

a. Pes anserine bursistis

b. Patellar tendinitis

c. Osteochontritis dissecans

d. Osgood-Schlatter disease

e. Apophysitis

c. Osteochondritis Dissecans

Which of the following signs and symptoms are indicative of deep vein thrombosis in the leg? Choose all that apply.

a. Diminished dorsal pedal pulse

b. Numbness over the great toe

c. Palpable warmth and tightness of calf

d. Positive bump test

e. Positive Homan's sign

f. Weakness of anterior tibialis muscle

A, C, E

a. diminished dorsal pedal pulse

c. palpable warmth and tightness of calf

e. positive Homan's sign

From which of the following conditions is an athlete with pes cavus and rigid mid-foot MOST likely to suffer?

Choose only one.

a. Achilles tendonitis

b. Medial tibial stress syndrome

c. Patellofemoral stress syndrome

d. Posterior tibialis tendonitis

e. Stress fracture of the metatarsals

e. Stress fracture of the metatarsals

Which of the following symptoms MUST resolve prior to an athlete's return to play after an upper respiratory infection?

Choose only one.

a. Nasal congestion

b. Sore throat

c. Fatigue

d. Cough

e. Fever

e. Fever

A patient sustained a blunt trauma to the face. Which of the following signs and symptoms are associated with a fracture of the maxilla? Choose all that apply.

a. Bleeding around the lower teeth

b. Bleeding around the upper teeth

c. Inability to hear on the involved side

d. Loss of upward gaze

e. Observation of a flattened cheek

b. Bleeding around the upper teeth

d. Loss of upward gaze

Which of the following positions is the MOST appropriate for the athlete when the athletic trainer is palpating the spleen?

Choose only one.

a. Hook-lying position

b. Left sid-lying

c. Right-side-lying

d. Supine with legs and arms extended

a. Hook-lying position

An athlete reports to the athletic trainer complaining of tingling and numbness on the radial side of the forearm from the wrist to the elbow. Which peripheral nerve is MOST likely involved with this athlete's complaint?

Choose only one.

a. Medial cutaneous

b. Median

c. Musculocutaneous

d. Radial

e. Ulnar

c. Musculocutaneous

A basketball player suffers a Grade II inversion ankle sprain. Of the following, which is the MOST appropriate progression of rehabilitation exercises? Choose only one.

a. Isometrics, range of motion, resistance tubing, cutting, and running

b. Isometrics, range of motion, resistance tubing, running, and cutting

c. Range of motion, resistance tubing, isometrics, cutting, and running

d. Range of motion, resistance tubing, isometrics, running, and cutting

e. Range of motion, isokinetics, resistance tubing, cutting, and running

b. Isometrics, range of motion, resistance tubing, running, and cutting.

Which type of third-party payer provides practitioners fixed fees for services, limits its members' choices to pre-approved practitioners, and requires the use of a primary care physician? Choose only one.

a. Point-of-service (POS)

b. Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)

c. Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)

d. Fee-for-Service (FOS)

e. Exclusive Provide Organization (EPO)

c. Health maintenance Organization (HMO)

An organization sponsoring a state-wide athletic tournament does not have a written emergency action plan. Which of the following legal consequences would impact the organization? Choose only one.

a. Malfeasance

b. Misfeasance

c. Neglect

d. Negligence

d. Negligence

Which of the following design elements in athletic training facility is MOST likely to be influenced by the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)? Choose only one

.

a. Ceiling height

b. Entryway

c. Lightening

d. Ventilation system

e. Ground fault interrupter circuits

b. Entryway

Which of the following conditions would be BEST treated using a pulsed, biphasic electrical simulating current?

Choose only one.

a. Hematoma

b. Inflammation

c. Joint hypomobility

d. Muscle weakness

e. Soft tissue pain

d. muscle weakness

A 19-year old basketball player was hit in the right eye during a rebound. The player complains of pain, diplopia, and photophobia, upon inspection, the athletic trainer notes the following:

• Subconjunctival redness

• Orbital erhythema

• Unequal pupils

• Swelling over zycomatic arch and inferior orbit

• Partial contact lens seen in the ey

• Excessive tearing

Considering possible conditions that might develop from this athlete's injury, what signs and symptoms would indicate each of the following conditions? Match the appropriate signs and symptoms from the tool bar on the left to the suspected condition/diagnosis listed on the table on the right.

All signs and symptoms will be used.

a. Falling curtain over eyes

b. Positive fluorescein dye test

c. Purulent discharge in the eye

d. Scleral bleeding

e. Visible bleeding in the anterior chamber

i. Bacterial conjuctivities

ii. Retinal detachment

iii. Corneal abrasion

iv. Subconjunctival hematoma

v. Hyphema

a. Falling Curtain = ii. Retinal Detachment

b. Positive Fluorescein dye test = iii. Corneal Abrasion

c. Purulent Discharge in the Eye = i. bacterial conjunctivitis

d. Scleral Bleeding = iv. Subconjunctival Hematoma

e. Visible bleeding in the anterior chamber = v. Hyphema

If appropriate, in what order should the athletic trainer perform the actions noted to remove the contact lense from the athlete's eye?

Match the appropriate action from the tool bar on the left to the correct ordinal listed in the table on the right.

All actions will be used.

a. Ask the athlete to perform an eye roll

b. Flip the upper lid with a cotton-tipped applicator

c. Inspect the eye for the contact

d. Irrigate the eye with saline solution

e. Remove the contact using moistened sterile gauze

c. inspect the eye for contact

d. irrigate the eye with saline solution

b. flip the upper lid with a cotton tipped applicator

a. ask the athlete to perform an eye roll

e. remove the contact using a moistened sterile gauze

Athlete presents anisocoria,

what treatment should the complete at this time?

a. Apply an ice compression to the athlete's eye

b. Evaluate visual acuity with Snellen eye chart

c. Perform Fluorescein dye stain

d. Place the athlete in a recumbent position

e. Place the athlete in a supine position with elevated legs

f. Refer the athlete to physician/emergency room

g. Send the athlete home with an eye patch

A, D, F

a. apply an ice compression to the athletes eyes

d. Place the athlete in a recumbent position

f. Refer the athlete to a physician/ emergency room

Based upon the athlete's current signs and symptoms and the current condition shown in this photograph, which of the following cranial nerve pairs would display dysfunction?

Choose only one.

1. cranial nerves I and III (Olfactory and Oculomotor)

2. Cranial nerves II and III (Optic and Oculomotor)

3. Cranial nerves II and V (Optic and trigeminal)

4. Cranial nerves IV and V (Trochlear and Trigeminal)

5. Cranial nerves IV and VII (Trochlear and Facial)

2. Cranial nerves 2 and 3 - optic and oculomotor

Which of the following medical specialists would be MOST qualified to treat this athlete and make a return-to-play decision? Choose only one.

a. Emergency room physician

b. Neurologist

c. Ophthalmologist

d. Optometrist

c. Opthalmologist

which of the following agencies publishes guidelines for the reconditioning and maintenance of helmets for football, lacrosse and baseball?

National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment (NOCSAE)

Which of the following is an example of a closed chain exercise in the upper extremity?

a. Push-up

b. Military press

c. Codman's pendulum

d. Bicep curl

e. Bench press

a. push up

What are the appropriate procedures to follow when cleaning bloodborne pathogens from wrestling mats?

Choose all that apply.

a. Spray contaminated area with alcohol

b. Spray contaminated area with 1:10 bleach solution

c. Spray area with alcohol and water solution

d. Remove visible organic matter

e. Place soiled materials in waste receptacle

f. Place soiled materials in biohazard trash

g. Clean area with soap and water

b. Spray contaminated area with 1:10 bleach solution

f. Place soiled materials in waste receptacle

g. clean area with soap and water

The use of which of the following medications is associated with Reye's syndrome?

Choose only one.

a. Ibuprofen

b. Aspirin

c. Analgesic cream

d. Acetaminophen

b. Aspirin

An athletic trainer is providing services at a downhill skiing competition. A skier falls and hits her head after clearing a jump, and then she skis to the athletic trainer complaining of pain along her cervical spine with numbness in her right upper extremity. In addition, the skier reports nausea and a moderate headache. What action should the athletic trainer perform FIRST?

Choose only one.

a. Assess cranial nerves

b. Evaluate the athlete's cervical range of motion

c. Evaluate the athlete for a concussion

d. Refer the athlete to a physician

e. Stabilize the athlete's cervical spine

e. Stabilize the athlete's cervical spine

A patient presents with pain and swelling in the anatomical snuff box. What condition should the athletic trainer suspect?

Choose only one.

a. Swan neck deformity

b. Scaphoid-navicular fracture

c. Lunate dislocation

d. De Quervain's disease

e. Capitate dislocation

b. Scaphoid navicular fracture

During the assessment of a 16-year-old athlete, an athletic trainer notes the following information.

-Pulse: 76 bmp and regular

- Blood pressure: 116/72 mmHg

- Pupils: equal and reactive to light

- Respiration: 14 breaths per minute

- Skin: cool, moist, and pale

- Body temperature: 97.9F (36.6 C)

Which measurement is considered abnormal for this athlete?

a. Blood pressure

b. Body temperature

c. Pulse

d. Pupils

e. Skin

e. skin

Which of the following sports is considered unsafe for an athlete absent one kidney?

Choose only one.

a) Field hockey

b) Gymnastics

c) Golf

d) Tennis

e) Track and field

a. Field hockey

An athletic trainer has been charged with writing a management plan regarding MRSA incidents for an area high school athletic department. Which of the following agencies and/or regulations would be the MOST appropriate sources to develop this plan?

Choose all that apply.

a) Centers for Disease and Control and Prevention

b) Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act

c) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

d) Local health department

e) Local Red Cross

g) Occupational Safety and Health Administration

a. centers for disease and control and prevention

d. Local health department

g. OSHA

An athlete's parent has asked what are the most common factors/causes associated with her child's temporomandibular joint dysfunction.

Which of the following would be included in the explanation to the parent?

Choose all that apply.

a) Arthritic condition

b) Chronic sinus congestion

c) Diminished hearing

d) Grinding teeth

e) Jaw clicking

f) Poor approximation of the teeth

a. arthritic condition

d. grinding teeth

f. poor approximation of teeth

What budget type requires an athletic trainer to list anticipated expenditures for specific categories of program sub-functions, including equipment repair, insurance, and expendable supplies?

Choose only one.

a) Fixed

b) Line-item

c) Lump-sum

d) Performance

e) Zero-based

b. Line item

A hockey player reports to the athletic trainer complaining of right hip pain. The athlete indicates that the pain began approximately three weeks ago and is progressively increasing. The athlete has no prior history of hip injuries.

The athletic trainer completes an initial evaluation of this athlete.

Initial observations:

- No atrophy or ecchymosis present

- Right iliac crest and ASIS appear inferior

- Pronated feet / pes planus

- Genu varum

- Apparent weight shift to the left side

Based on the signs and symptoms identified during the evaluation, which of the following conditions should the athletic trainer suspect?

Choose all that apply.

a) Abduction muscle strain

b) Adductor muscle strain

c) Femoral neck stress fracture

d) Hip flexor strain

e) Lumbar disk herniation

f) Tronchanteric bursitis

a. abduction muscle strain

c. femoral neck stress fracture

e. lumbar disk herination

2/5 Manual muscle testing of this athlete's hip revealed weakness in the following muscles: Obturator Externus, Gemellus superior, Piriformis.

Which movement would be limited for this athlete?

Choose only one.

a) Abduction

b) Adduction

c) External rotation

d) Flexion

e) Internal rotation

c. External rotation

3/5 The athletic trainers' evaluation of this athlete reveals the following goniometric measurements of the hip. Which of the noted measurements are abnormal?

Choose all that apply.

a) 10 degrees of extension

b) 12 degrees of adduction

c) 23 degrees of external rotation

d) 38 degrees of internal rotation

e) 47 degrees of abduction

f) 129 degrees of flexion

a. 10 degrees of extension

b. 12 degrees of adduction

c. 23 degrees of external rotation

4/5 The athlete's leg length has been measured to further complete this evaluation. Assessment of leg length reveals:

- 5 mm (0.2 in) difference in true/anatomical leg length measurements

- 15mm (0.59 in) difference in apparent/functional leg length measurements

Which of the following findings are CORRECT interpretations of the measurements?

Choose all that apply.

a. Functional leg length difference is negative

b. Functional leg length difference is positive

c. The athlete has tightness and/or weakness of muscles or joint structure

d. The left leg length measurement is longer

e. The right leg length measurement is longer

f. There is possible disruption to the growth plate

g. True leg length difference is negative

h. True leg length difference is positive

b. Functional leg length different is positive

c. athlete has tightness and or weakness of muscles or joint structure

e. right leg length measurement is longer

g. true leg length difference is negative

5/5 The athlete's leg length has been measured to further complete this evaluation. Assessment of leg length reveals:

-5 mm (0.2 in) difference in true/anatomical leg length measurements

- 15mm (0.59 in) difference in apparent/functional leg length measurements

- To complete the evaluation, which of the special tests would be MOST appropriate to complete at this time?

Choose all that apply.

a. FABER test

b. Ober's test

c. Piriformis test

d. Single leg balance

e. Supine long sit

f. Thomas test

g. Thompson test

a. FABER

b. Ober's

c. Piriformis

f. Thomas Test

During a pre-game meal, an athlete displays difficulty breathing and falls to the floor. The athletic trainer's primary survey reveals the athlete is unconscious with a weak pulse, tachycardia, and apnea. What is the MOST appropriate immediate action for the athletic trainer to take?

Choose only one.

a) Apply AED

b) Initiate CPR

c) Initiate airway management techniques

d) Obtain vital signs

e) Treat for shock

c. Initiate airway management techniques

During a full-contact practice, a football player remains supine following a collision. Which of the following steps should the athletic trainer take FIRST when completing an on-field evaluation? Choose only one

.

a) Assess the athlete's level of circulation

b) Establish or maintain an open airway for the athlete

c) Look, listen, and feel for any signs of the athlete's breathing

d) Stabilize the athlete's cervical spine and determine the athlete's level of consciousness

d. stabilize the athletes cervical spine and determine the athlete's level of consciousness

Which of the following items should be available to the athletic trainer caring for a diabetic athlete?

Choose all that apply.

a) Blood glucose monitor equipment and supplies

b) Copy of the athlete's diabetes care plan

c) Diet soda

d) Epinephrine auto-injector

e) Protein foods and liquids

f) Sharps container

g) Sugary foods and liquids

a. blood glucose monitor and equipment

b. copy of the athlete's diabetes care plan

f. sharps container

g. sugary foods and liquids

Which of the following terms refers to the failure of an athletic trainer to do something that should have been done under normal circumstances? Choose only one.

a) Breach of contract

b) Commission

c) Malpractice

d) Omission

e) Tort

d. Ommission

What bone articulates with the first metacarpal? Choose only one.

a) Capitate

b) Lunate

c) Navicular

d) Trapeqium

e) Triquetrum

d. trapezium

Which condition often associated with prolonged pronation is MOST likely a predisposing factor for the development of overuse injuries?

Choose only one.

a) Pes planus

b) Pes cavus

c) Metatarsalgia

d) Hammer toes

e) Hallux valgus

a. Pes PLanus

A 17-year-old female basketball player sustained a Grade II inversion ankle sprain. Which of the following functional progressions BEST represents the actions she should be required to perform before returning to play? Choose only one.

a) Carioca, back pedaling, free throw shooting, and timed wind sprints

b) Carioca, jump rope, lay-up drills, and figure eights

c) Jogging, acceleration while running forward, figure eights, and zigzag patterns

d) Lay-up drills, carioca, back pedaling, and jump rope

e) One-legged hops, carioca, back pedaling, and jump rope

c. Jogging, acceleration while running forward, figure eights and zigzag patterns

How often should personnel involved in implementing an emergency action plan should be educated on their roles?

Choose only one.

a) Weekly

b) Monthly

c) Quarterly

d) Bi-annually

e) Annually

e. Annually

To decrease complications and promote healing, what is the MOST appropriate splinting position of a Boutonniere deformity?

Choose only one.

a) Proximal and distal interphalangeal joints in extension

b) Proximal and distal interphalangeal joints in flexion

c) Proximal interphalangeal joint in extension and the distal interphalangeal joint in flexion

d) Proximal interphalangeal joint in flexion and the distal interphalangeal joint in extension

a. Both in extension

An athlete has a fracture of the distal lateral malleolus. What is the MOST likely mechanism of injury?

Choose only one.

a) Supination

b) Pronation

c) Plantarflexion

d) Inversion

e) Eversion

e. Eversion

In the event of a death, which of the following terms refers to the act of the institution failing to have emergency planning in place?

Choose only one.

a) Assumption of risk

b) Malfeasance

c) Misfeasance

d) Nonfeasance

e) Sovereign immunity

e. nonfeseance