Air law

An illuminated red stop bar is installed at a runway access point. During normal operations when may a pilot pass its location?

only after a positive clearance to enter the runway has been received, correctly read back and after the stop bar has been switched off

Runway threshold lights are:

Fixed unidirectional lights showing green in the direction of approach to the runway

A Control Zone is controlled airspace that extends from:

The surface to a specified upper limit

At a civil land aerodrome an Aerodrome Identification Beacon is a:

Green beacon flashing a two letter Morse group

An Alerting Service is:

A service provided to notify the appropriate organisations of aircraft in need of Search and Rescue aid, and assist such organisations as required

ICAO recommends that the colour used for runway markings should be:

White

The transponder code used to indicate radio failure is:

7600

Large white diagonal crosses placed no more than 300 metres apart on a section of runway mean the section between the crosses is:

Unfit for the movement of aircraft

When two aircraft are converging, the one which has the right of way, must:

Maintain its speed and heading

The Take-off run available (TORA) may be described as the:

Part of the runway declared as suitable for the ground run of an aeroplane taking off

Lower Airspace Radar Service (LARS) is available outside controlled airspace up to....(i)....and within approximately ....(ii).... from a participating ATSU. (UK)

i) FL 100 ii) 30 nm

A white “T” with a white disc alongside the cross-arm in line with the stem of the “T” displayed in the signal area means:

The direction of landing and take-off do not necessarily coincide

With QFE set on the altimeter subscale, vertical position is reported as:

Height

An Air Traffic service provided to give advice and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flight which may include weather information and general airspace activity, is:

Basic Service

The following is a definition of what? “The length of the take-off run available plus the length of any available stopway.”

Accelerate Stop Distance Available (ASDA)

The criteria for VFR flight in Class D and E when operating above 3000 feet but below FL 100, are:

Flight visibility 5 km, 1500 m horizontally and 1000 feet vertically from cloud

To carry passengers the pilot-in-command must have made, as the sole manipulator of the controls, at least:

Three take-offs & landings in the same type or class to be flown within the preceding 90 days

In search and rescue operations, what does the following sign mean ‘V’:

Require assistance

A Flight Information Service at an aerodrome provides:

Information useful to the safe and efficient conduct of flight within and in the vicinity of an ATZ

In an aerodrome signal area, what is the meaning of the following symbol?

The aerodrome is unsafe for the movement of aircraft and landing is prohibited

What is the definition of “Air Traffic”?

All aircraft in flight or on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome

Unless otherwise prescribed by an appropriate authority, “Night” is between:

The end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight

The lowest height to fly under IFR is:

1000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 nm of track

At or below the Transition Altitude vertical position is reported in terms of:

Altitude

A steady red light directed from an aerodrome to an aircraft in flight means:

Give way to other aircraft and continue circling

An aircraft is considered to be overtaking when the faster aircraft is closing within:

70° of the centreline of the slower aircraft

An aircraft’s vertical position when measured from mean sea level is:

Reported as “altitude” and the subscale is set to QNH

ICAO recommends that the colour used for taxiway markings should be:

Yellow

The final authority over the operation of an aircraft and the safe conduct of a flight belongs to:

The Pilot-in-Command

Runway end lights are:

Fixed unidirectional lights showing red in the direction of the runway

You are a PPL with no instrument qualification flying in the UK and receiving a Traffic Service. The controller instructs you to climb, however this means you would not be able to maintain VMC. What should you do?

Advise the controller and request an alternative instruction

At a Government or licensed aerodrome you are absolved from which of the Low Flying Rules, when taking off or landing in accordance with normal aviation practice?

All of the low flying rules

What is a Danger Area?

An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of an aircraft may exist at specified times

When a “Light” aircraft departs from the same position on the same runway following a “Heavy” aeroplane’s departure, the recommended minimum spacing is:

2 minutes

The minimum medical requirement to allow a student pilot training for the issue of a EASA Part-FCL PPL(A) to fly solo is a:

Class 2 Medical Certificate

Under the Chicago Convention, when an aircraft lands within another contracting state, the authorities of that country:

Have the right to search the aircraft without causing unreasonable delay

A pilot suffers a significant injury and is unfit to function as flight crew. The medical certificate:

Is deemed suspended

On the aerodrome manoeuvring area an aircraft is converging with a vehicle which is towing an aircraft. Which must give way?

The aircraft

A series of white flashes directed from an aerodrome to an aircraft in flight means:

Land at this aerodrome after receiving a steady green light

Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) minima are defined by ICAO and expressed in terms of:

Visibility, distance from cloud and cloud ceiling

Under the Chicago Convention, ensuring compliance with rules and regulations concerning aircraft in flight is the duty of:

The state of registry and the state over whose territory the flight is taking place

To fly on an international flight, a pilot must hold a licence issued or rendered valid by:

The state of registry of the aircraft

Under EASA Part-FCL, a single pilot single-engine class rating is valid for:

2 years

If you overtake another aircraft you must alter course:

To the right in the air, to the left on the ground

A Part-FCL PPL holder must have a valid Medical Certificate in order to exercise the privileges of the licence. The medical must be either:

Class 1 or 2

In an aerodrome signal square what is the meaning of a “black ball” suspended from a mast?

The direction of take-off and landing are not necessarily the same

A Certificate of Airworthiness for a Part-21 aircraft would cease to be valid:

If the aircraft, or its equipment, is overhauled, modified or repaired in a non-approved manner

With Standard Pressure Setting (1013.2 hectopascals) set on the altimeter sub-scale an aircraft’s vertical position is referred to as:

Flight level

The dimensions of an ATZ surrounding an aerodrome where the longest runway is greater than 1850 m are: a circle of ...(i)... in radius extending from the surface to ...(ii)...feet AAL.

2½nm ii) 2000 ft

In an aerodrome signal area, a red square with a single yellow diagonal stripe means:

The state of the manoeuvring area is poor and pilots must exercise caution when landing

High intensity obstacle lights are:

Flashing white

What symbol may be placed in the signal square to indicate that the aerodrome is used by gliders and that gliding flights are taking place?

A white double cross

An aircraft displaying a single red navigation light by night is:

A glider or a free balloon

Whilst flying at night you see the green navigation light of another flying machine at a similar level on a steady relative bearing of 310:

There is a risk of collision, you should maintain heading and speed

RED to RED = SAFE 
GREEN to GREEN = SAFE

Whilst flying within an ATZ the pilot of an aircraft equipped with a two-way radio must:

Maintain a continuous listening watch on the appropriate frequency and report the aircraft’s position and height on entering and leaving the zone

Under the terms of the Chicago Convention, in addition to certain others, an aircraft involved in international navigation is required to carry which of the following documents?

Certificate of registration, certificate of airworthiness and crew licences

Before carrying passengers a PPL(A) holder shall have made 3 take-offs and 3 landings within:

The preceding 90 days

This symbol across a taxiway means:

A holding point which must not be crossed in the direction of the runway without ATC permission

A PPL holder who becomes aware of the need for a surgical operation must:

Seek the advice of the Authority or an AME without undue delay

Under the terms of the Chicago Convention, a C of A issued in one contracting state will be recognised as valid by another contracting state if:

The C of A is issued in accordance with ICAO standards and requirements

VFR traffic in Class D airspace may expect:

Traffic information on all other flights

Where take-offs and landings are not confined to a runway. A pilot taking off shall position so as to leave clear ....... any aircraft which is taking off:

On the pilot’s left

Which of the following would be classed as an aircraft accident?

A person on the ground is seriously injured after being hit by a component that has become detached from a light aircraft in flight

Controlled airspace extending from the surface of the earth upwards to a specified upper limit is a:

Control Zone

A designated area on an aerodrome provided for aircraft parking, refuelling and the loading and unloading of passengers or cargo, is the:

Apron

Flying by day within sight of the surface in Class G at 130 knots below 3000 ft AMSL, the VMC minima are:

Visibility 1500 m, clear of cloud

Approved limitations within which the aircraft is considered airworthy are contained in:

The flight manual and on cockpit placards and markings

On an international flight a UK registered aircraft must carry a Certificate of Airworthiness issued or rendered valid by:

The UK CAA

Which of the following is a method to re-validate a single engine piston class rating?

Complete 12 hours of flight time including 6 hours PIC and 12 take-offs and landings, and complete a 1 hour training flight with an instructor within the 12 months preceding the expiry of the rating

Subject to any additional requirements prescribed by the appropriate authority, ICAO requires that all aircraft operated on VFR flights shall be equipped with at least:

Magnetic compass, accurate time piece, airspeed indicator and a sensitive pressure altimeter

To overtake another aircraft on the ground you must (UK):

Alter course to the left

The holder of a PPL (A) is granted the privilege to act as pilot-in-command or co-pilot of any aeroplane:

engaged on non-revenue flights for which the pilot is appropriately certified

What is the definition of “Pilot-in Command”?

The pilot responsible for the operation and safety of the aircraft

With QNH set on the altimeter subscale, vertical position is reported as:

Altitude

The definition of “alternate aerodrome” is:

An aerodrome to which a flight may proceed if it is either impossible or inadvisable to land at the intended destination aerodrome

A Terminal Control Area (TCA) is a:

Control Area established at the confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes

An Air Traffic Control service is provided to all aircraft. IFR flights are separated from each other and receive traffic information on VFR flights. VFR flights receive traffic information on all other flights. What Class of airspace is being described?

Class D

The minimum flight time required for the issue of a EASA Part-FCL PPL (A)is:

45 hours

If you are issued an Air Traffic Control Clearance which you consider to be unsuitable, you should:

Request an alternative clearance

The Transition Layer is the airspace between:

The transition altitude and the transition level

With regard to the Chicago Convention, when an aircraft enters its territory a contracting state:

May require it to land at a customs airport

In the signals area a white dumb-bell means:

On the ground gliders and aeroplanes shall move only on paved, metalled or hard surfaces

black stripes in each circle of the dumb-bell means that aeroplanes and gliders must take off and land on a runway, but movement on the ground is not confined to hard surfaces.

On an aerodrome the position at which a pilot can report to ATC or other aerodrome authority is marked by:

A yellow board carrying a black “C”

Who is responsible for starting the investigation into an aircraft accident?

The Authority of the State in which the accident occurred

The effective times of a particular Danger Area bounded with a solid line on the ICAO chart may be found:

In the AIP (Aeronautical Information Publication)

Aerodrome signs that carry mandatory instructions are coloured:

White script on a red background

In the signals area, a rectangular green flag flown from a mast means:

Right-hand circuits

The reason for the investigation of an incident is:

The prevention of accidents and incidents

The following are possible objectives of the Air Traffic Services:

1. To prevent collisions between aircraft in the air.

2. To assist in preventing collisions between aircraft moving on the apron and the manoeuvring area.

3. To expedite and maintain an orderly flow of traffic.

4. To notify the appropriate organisations of aircraft in need of search and rescue aid, and to assist such organisations as required.

5. To provide information useful to the safe and efficient conduct of flight.

6. To assist in preventing collisions between aircraft and obstructions on the manoeuvring area. 

The correct objectives are:

1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Except for helicopters or when aircraft are taking off or landing at a licensed or government aerodrome, you must not fly over the congested area of any city, town or settlement below a height which would enable the aircraft to:

Alight clear of the congested area in the event of a power unit failure or below 1000 ft above the highest fixed obstacle within 600 m of the aircraft. Whichever is the higher.

What is the meaning of “NOTAMN” and “NOTAMR?”

“NOTAMN” contains new information and “NOTAMR” replaces a previous NOTAM

NOTAMs may be assigned one of three categories:

• NOTAMN new information

• NOTAMR replaces previous information

• NOTAMC cancels a previous NOTAM

What radio procedure should the pilot in command follow on becoming concerned for the safety of someone on board his aircraft?

Make a “Pan” call, since this qualifies as an urgency condition

Low intensity obstacle light on vehicles, other than vehicles actively involved in emergency or security operations, are:

Flashing yellow

Which circumstances will cause a public-licensed aerodrome be closed to normal air traffic during its published hours of availability?

When the surface of the landing area is unfit, essential aerodrome services are unavailable or at times promulgated by NOTAM

A PPL with no additional ratings is in receipt of a Radar Control Service, ATC instruct the pilot to climb to altitude 3,000 feet. Complying with this instruction would mean the pilot entering cloud. The pilot should:

Maintain his present level and advise the controller why

What is the primary purpose of a Personal Locator Beacon (PLB)?

To enable Search and Rescue services to locate aircraft occupants following a forced landing or accident

A Part-Med Class 2 medical is valid for:

60 months until the licence holder reaches the age of 40

Flying by day within sight of the surface in Class G at 130 knots below 3000 ft AMSL, the VMC minima are:

Visibility 1500 m, clear of cloud

Which of the following would constitute an aircraft accident?

The pilot was forced to ditch and the aircraft has now sunk

A Military Aerodrome Traffic Zone (MATZ) may be established around UK military aerodromes. They extend from the surface up to 3,000 feet and have a radius of 5 nm. One or more stubs aligned with the final approach path(s) may also be present, the dimensions of the stubs are:

Between 1,000 and 3,000 feet, extending 5 nm from the MATZ boundary with a width of 4 nm