Cluster 3 - Radiographic Positioning and Procedures, Rad Contrast

Which description best explains how radial crossover

occurs when the forearm is demonstrated?

A. During the AP projection, the hand is pronated.

B. During the AP projection, the hand is supinated.

C. During the lateral projection, the arm is fully extended

with the hand flexed

d. During the lateral projection, the radial and ulnar styloid

processes are superimposed with each other

A. During the AP projection, the hand is pronated.

How should the hand be positioned for the PA oblique

projection of the hand?

A. From the prone position, rotate the hand ulnar

side up

B. From the prone position, rotate the hand radial

side up

C. From the supine position, rotate the hand ulnar

side up

D. From the supine position, rotate the hand radial

side up

D. From the supine position, rotate the hand radial

side up

Which wrist projection requires that the IR be inclined

towards the elbow at an angle of 20 degrees from

horizontal?

A. PA

B. PA oblique

C. PA with ulnar deviation

D. PA with axial (Stecher method)

PA with axial (Stecher method)

Which projection of the wrist corrects foreshortening of

the scaphoid carpal bone?

A. PA

b. Lateral

c. PA with ulnar deviation

d. PA with radial deviation

c. PA with ulnar deviation

Which projection of the wrist requires that the radial

styloid process be superimposed over the ulnar styloid

process?

A. PA

b. Lateral

c. PA oblique

d. PA with axial (Stecher method)

b. Lateral

Which projection of the elbow best demonstrates the

radial head free of bony superimposition?

A. AP

b. Lateral

c. AP oblique , lateral rotation positions.

D. AP oblique , medial rotation position

c. AP oblique , lateral rotation positions.

Which description best explains how radial crossover

occurs when the forearm is demonstrated?

A. During the AP projection, the hand is pronated.

B. During the AP projection, the hand is supinated.

C. During the lateral projection, the arms fully extended

with the hand flexed

d. During the lateral projection, the radial and ulnar styloid

processes are superimposed with each other

A. During the AP projection, the hand is pronated.

Which projection of the elbow best demonstrates the

radial head free of bony superimposition?

A. AP

b. Lateral

c. AP oblique , lateral rotation positions

D. AP oblique , medial rotation position

c. AP oblique , lateral rotation positions

Which of the following should be used to image the radial

head on a trauma patient?

A. Lateral projection without flexion of the elbow joint

b. Axiolateral projection (Coyle method) of the elbow

joint

c. AP elbow, partial flexion position

d. AP oblique projection of the forearm

b. Axiolateral projection (Coyle method) of the elbow

joint

Which projection of the elbow best demonstrates the

olecranon process profile?

A. AP projection

b. Lateral projection

c. AP oblique projection, lateral rotation positions.

D. AP oblique projection, medial rotation position

b. Lateral projection

Which Projection of the Shoulder best demonstrates the

lesser tubercle of the Humerus in profile and pointing

toward the Glenoid Cavity?

A. Transthoracic lateral projection

b. AP projection with neutral rotation

c. AP projection with internal rotation

D. AP projection with external rotation

c. AP projection with internal rotation

In which body position should the patient be placed to

demonstrate the left shoulder with the PA Oblique

Projection (Scapular Y)?

A. Left anterior oblique

b. Left posterior oblique

c. Right anterior oblique

d. Right anterior oblique

A. Left anterior oblique

Which joint is formed by the articulation of the head of

the fibula with the lateral condyle of the tibia?

A. Knee

b. Ankle

c. Distal tibiofibular

d. Proximal tibiofibular

d. Proximal tibiofibular

How many degrees and in what direction should the

central ray be directed for the AP axial projection of the

toes?

A. 10 degrees caudad (towards the toes)

b. 10 degrees caudad (towards the heel)

c. 15 degrees caudad (towards the toes)

d. 15 degrees caudad (towards the heel)

d. 15 degrees caudad (towards the heel)

How should the central ray be directed for the best

demonstration of the tarsometatarsal joint spaces of the

midfoot for the AP projection of the foot?

A. Perpendicularly

b. 10 degrees posteriorly (towards the heel)

c. 15 degrees posteriorly (towards the heel)

d. 20 degrees posteriorly (towards the heel)

b. 10 degrees posteriorly (towards the heel)

Which projection of the foot best demonstrates the

sinus tarsi?

A. AP projection

b. Lateral projection

c. AP oblique projection (lateral rotation)

d. AP oblique projection (medial rotation)

d. AP oblique projection (medial rotation)

With reference to the plane of the IR, how should the

malleoli be positioned for the AP oblique projection of the

ankle for the best demonstration of the mortise joint spaces

open?

a. Parallel

b. Perpendicular

c. 45 degrees lateral rotation

d. 45 degrees medial rotation

a. Parallel

For the lateral projection of the knee, how many degrees

should the knee be flexed?

A. 10 to 20 degrees

b. 20 to 30 degrees

c. 30 to 40 degrees

d. 40 to 50 degrees

b. 20 to 30 degrees

Which of the following evaluation criteria indicates that

the knee is properly positioned for a lateral projection?

a. The femorotibial joint space is open

b. The femoral condyles are perpendicular

c. The proximal tibiofibular articulation is open

d. The patella is perpendicular to the IR

b. The femoral condyles are perpendicular

For a patient prone on the radiographic table with the

knee centered to the midline and the knee flexed until the

lower leg forms a 40-degree angle with the table, how

should the central ray be directed to demonstrate the

femoral intercondylar fossa?

A. Caudally 3 to 5 degrees

b. Cephalically 3 to 5 degrees

C. Caudally 40 degrees

D. Cephalically 40 degrees

C. Caudally 40 degrees

How should the central ray be directed for the bilateral

weight- bearing AP projection of the knees?

A. Perpendicularly

b. Caudally 3 to 5 degrees

c. Cephalically 3 to 5 degrees

d. Cephalically 10 degrees

A. Perpendicularly

Which positioning maneuver should be performed to

place the femoral neck in profile for the AP projection of the

proximal femur?

A. Flex the lower limb

b. Rotate the lower limb laterally 10-15 degrees

C. Rotate the lower limb medially 10-15 degrees.

d. Elevate the unaffected side of the pelvis 10 to 15 degrees

C. Rotate the lower limb medially 10-15 degrees.

Which positioning maneuver should be performed to

place the femoral necks parallel with the IR for an AP

projection of the pelvis?

A. Rotate the lower limbs laterally 15 to 20 degrees

B. Rotate the lower limbs medially 15 to 20 degrees

C. Flex the hips 15 to 20 degrees and extend the lower

limbs

d. Flex the hips and abduct the femora laterally 15 to 20

degrees

B. Rotate the lower limbs medially 15 to 20 degrees

All of the following projections can be used to image a

patient with a suspected intertrochanteric fracture, except

for the:

a. AP projection of the hips

b. AP projection of the pelvis

c. Lateral projection (Lauenstein method) of the hip

d. Axiolateral projection (Danelius-miller method)

c. Lateral projection(Lauenstein method) of the hip

Which two vertebral curvatures are anteriorly concave?

a. Cervical and lumbar.

b. Cervical and pelvic.

c. Thoracic and lumbar.

d. Thoracic and pelvic.

d. Thoracic and pelvic.

Which projection of the cervical vertebrae demonstrates

the dens imaged within the foramen magnum?

A. Lateral projection

b. AP axial oblique projection

c. AP projection (open mouth)

d. AP projection (Fuchs method)

d. AP projection (Fuchs method)

How and where should the central ray be directed for

the AP axial projection of the cervical vertebral column?

A. Perpendicular to C4

b. Perpendicular to C7

c. 15-20 degrees cephalad to C4

d. 15-20 degrees cephalad to C7

c. 15-20 degrees cephalad to C4

Which projection of the cervical vertebrae demonstrates

the spinous processes elevated and widely separated?

A. AP axial projection

b. AP axial oblique projection

c. Hyperflexion lateral projection

d. Hyperextension lateral projection

c. Hyperflexion lateral projection

Which position of the cervical vertebral column best

demonstrates the right intervertebral foramina when the

central ray is angled 15-20 degrees caudad?

A. LAO

b. LPO

c. RAO

d. RPO

c. RAO

Which of the following structures are best

demonstrated with the lateral projection (swimmer's

technique)?

A. Lower cervical and upper thoracic vertebrae.

b. Lower thoracic and upper cervical vertebrae.

c. Thoracic zygapophyseal joints

d. Cervical intervertebral foramina

A. Lower cervical and upper thoracic vertebrae.

Which projection of the vertebral column best

demonstrates lordosis?

A. AP projection of the lumbar vertebral column

B. AP projection of the thoracic vertebral column

C. Lateral projection of the lumbar vertebral column.

D. Lateral projection of the thoracic vertebral column

C. Lateral projection of the lumbar vertebral column.

How many degrees and in which direction should the

central ray be directed for the lateral projection of the

lumbar vertebrae when the vertebral column is positioned

parallel with the table?

a. Perpendicular

b. 5- to 8 degrees caudad

c. 5- to 8 degrees cephalad

d. 15- to 20 degrees caudad

a. Perpendicular

How many degrees should the patient be rotated for PA

oblique projections of the chest to evaluate the lungs?

a. RAO; 45 degrees; LAO; 45 degrees

b. RAO: 45 degrees; LAO 55 to 60 degrees

c. RAO: 55 to 60 degrees; LAO 45 degrees

d. RAO: 55 to 60 degrees; LAO 55 to 60 degrees

a. RAO; 45 degrees; LAO; 45 degrees

Which radiographic position requires that the patient be

placed prone?

a. LL decubitus

b. RL decubitus

c. Dorsal decubitus

d. Ventral decubitus

d. Ventral decubitus

Which evaluation criterion pertains to the AP axial

project, lordotic position radiograph of the chest?

a. The ribs should appear distorted.

b. The clavicles should lie below the apices.

c. The sternum should be lateral, not rotated.

d. The thoracic intervertebral disk spaces should be open.

a. The ribs should appear distorted.

For the KUB image, when should respiration be

suspended and what effect will that have on the patient

a. On full expiration; elevate the diaphragm

b. On full expiration; depress the diaphragm

c. On full inspiration; elevate the diaphragm

d. On full inspiration; depress the diaphragm

a. On full expiration; elevate the diaphragm

Why is it desirable to include the diaphragm in the

upright abdomen radiograph?

a. to demonstrate free air in the abdomen

b. to demonstrate fluid levels in the thorax

c. to demonstrate fluid levels in the abdomen

d. to demonstrate calculi in the gallbladder and kidneys

a. to demonstrate free air in the abdomen

Which two positioning lines or planes should be

perpendicular to the IR for the PA projection of the skull?

A. OML and midsagittal plane

B. OML and interpupillary plane

C. IOML and midsagittal plane

d. IOML and interpupillary plane

A. OML and midsagittal plane

How many degrees are in the angle formed between the

midsagittal plane and the petrous pyramids in the

mesocephalic skull?

a. 36 degrees

b.40 degrees

c. 47 degrees

d. 54 degrees

c. 47 degrees

Which evaluation criterion pertains to the lateral

projection of the skull?

a. The orbital roofs should be superimposed

b. The mental protuberance should superimposed the

anterior magnum

c. Part of the sella turcica should be seen within the forearm

magnum

d. The distance from the lateral border of the skull to the

lateral border of the orbit should be the same in both sides.

a. The orbital roofs should be superimposed

How many degrees and in which direction should the

central ray be directed for the PA AXIAL projection , HAAS

method, of the skull?

a. 15 degrees caudad

b. 15 degrees cephalad

c. 25 degrees caudad

d. 25 degrees cephalad

d. 25 degrees cephalad

Which positioning line and angle indicate correct

positioning of the head for the parieto-acanthial projection,

WATER'S Method?

A. OML 37 degrees to the IR

b. OML perpendicular to the IR

c. IOML 37 degrees to the IR

d. IOML 37 perpendicular to the IR

A. OML 37 degrees to the IR

Which projection of the skull produces a full basal

image of the cranium?

a. Lateral

b. AP axial, Town method

c. Pa axial, Caldwell method

d. Smv, schuller method

d. Smv, schuller method

Which sinus groups are best demonstrated with the PA

axial projection, CALDWELL Method?

a. Frontal and sphenoidal

b. Frontal and anterior ethmoidal

c. Maxillary and sphenoidal

d. Maxillary and anterior ethmoidal

b. Frontal and anterior ethmoidal

With reference to the IR, how should the midsagittal

plane be adjusted for the tangential projection

demonstrating an individual zygomatic arch?

a. Parallel with the IR

b. 15 degrees from perpendicular

c. 37 degrees to the IR

d. 53 degrees to the IR

b. 15 degrees from perpendicular

How many degrees and in which direction should the

central ray be directed for the axiolateral projection of the

mandible?

a. 15 degrees caudad

b. 15 degrees cephalad

c. 25 degrees caudad

d. 25 degrees cephalad

d. 25 degrees cephalad

For the AP Axial projection of the TMJs, where should

the central ray be directed?

a. Nasion

b. Glabella

c. Acanthion

d. 3 inches (7.6cm) above the nasion

d. 3 inches (7.6cm) above the nasion

With reference to the patient ,where should the IR be

centered for the axiolateral oblique projection of the TMJ's?

a. To the glabella

b. ½ inch (1.2cm) anterior to the EAM closest to the IR

c. 1 inch (2.5cm) anterior to the EAM closest to the IR

d. 2 inch (5cm) anterior to the EAM closest to the IR

d. 2 inch (5cm) anterior to the EAM closest to the IR

An abnormality palpated in the right breast at 2 o'clock

would be located in the:

A. LOQ

B. LIQ

C. UIQ

D. UOQ

C. UIQ

An abnormality palpated in the left breast at 10 o'clock

would be located in the:

A. LOQ

B. LIQ

C. UIQ

D. UOQ

C. UIQ

To obtain a lateromedial oblique projection, the

mammographer rotates the assembly:

A. 10 degrees to 30 degrees

B. 40 degrees to 60 degrees

C. 60 degrees to 80 degrees

D. 180 degrees

B. 40 degrees to 60 degrees

Which two sialographic projections best demonstrate

the parotid gland?

a. Axiolateral and lateral projections

b. Axiolateral and verticosubmental projections

c. Tangential and lateral projections

d. Tangential and verticosubmental projections

c. Tangential and lateral projections

Which procedure should be performed to help

demonstrate a diaphragmatic herniation (hiatal hernia)?

a. Tilt the table to the Fowler angulation

b. Place the patient in the upright position

c. Tilt the table to the Trendelenburg angulation

d. Place the patient in the right lateral recumbent position

c. Tilt the table to the Trendelenburg angulation

Approximately how long after the exposure of the first

image should subsequent images be exposed?

a. 5 to 10 minutes

b. 15 to 30 minutes

c. 35 to 45 minutes

d. 45 to 50 minutes

b. 15 to 30 minutes

How might the oral method of the small bowel

examination be affected by giving the patient a cup of cold

water after the administration of the contrast medium?

a. Peristalsis is accelerated.

b. Peristalsis is slowed down.

c. The stomach becomes distended

d. Peristalsis is decelerated

a. Peristalsis is accelerated.

How should the patient be positioned when the small

intestine is to be filled by the complete reflux method?

a. Prone

b. Supine

c. Lateral recumbent

d. Oblique

b. Supine

What are the two basic methods of performing a BE?

a. Oral and double- contrast

b. Oral and enteroclysis (intubation)

c. Single-contrast and Double-contrast

d. Single-contrast and enteroclysis (intubation)

c. Single-contrast and Double-contrast

Which area of the large intestine is best demonstrated

with the PA axial projection?

a. Illeocecal

b. Superior

c. Rectosigmoid

d. Cecum

c. Rectosigmoid

Which two structures of the large intestine are

demonstrated primarily with the PA oblique projection, Lao

position?

a. Left colic flexure and ascending colon

b. Left colic flexure and descending colon

c. Right colic flexure and ascending colon

d. Right colic flexure and descending colon

b. Left colic flexure and descending colon

Which portion of the large intestine are a prime

interest with lateral projection?

a. Sigmoid and rectum

b. Cecum and ascending colon

c. Left colic flexure and descending colon

d. Right colic flexure and ascending colon

a. Sigmoid and rectum

In which direction and how many degrees should the

central ray be directed?

a. Caudally 10 to 20 degrees

b. Caudally 30 to 40 degrees

c. Cephalically 10 to 20 degrees

d. Cephalically 30 to 40 degrees

d. Cephalically 30 to 40 degrees

Which BE projection requires that the patient be placed

in the right lateral recumbent position and that a horizontal

central ray be directed to the midline of the patient at the

level of the iliac crests?

a. Right lateral

b. AP oblique, RPO position

c. PA oblique, RAO position

d. AP, right lateral decubitus position

d. AP, right lateral decubitus position

Approximately how long does it usually take a barium

meal to reach the ileocecal valve?

a. 30 minutes to 1 hour

b. 2 to 3 hours

c. 4 to 5 hours

d. 24 hours

b. 2 to 3 hours

Which two imaging modalities are most commonly used

to examine the alimentary canal after the introduction of the

barium product?

a. Fluoroscopy and sonography

b. Fluoroscopy and radiography

c. Computed tomography and sonography

d. Computed tomography and radiography

b. Fluoroscopy and radiography

To demonstrate swallowing function best, in which

position should be patient be place to begin the fluoroscopic

phase of single-contrast examinations of the esophagus?

a. Upright

b. Left lateral decubitus

c. Recumbent LAO

d. Recumbent RPO

a. Upright

Which two recumbent oblique positions can be used to

demonstrate best an unobstructed image of a barium-filled

esophagus between the vertebrate and the heart?

a. LAO and LPO

b. LAO and RPO

c. RAO and LPO

c. RAO and LPO

Which description refers to the biphasic GI Examination?

a. Single-contrast study of the entire alimentary

canal.

b. Single contrast study of the upper GI Tract

c. double-contrast study of the upper GI tract

d. Combination single contrast and double

contrast study of the upper GI tract.

d. Combination single contrast and double

contrast study of the upper GI tract.

For the single-contrast UGI examination with the patient

recumbent, which projection produces the best image of a

barium-filled pyloric canal and duodenal bulb in patients

whose habitus approximates the sthenic type?

a. AP Projection

b. Left lateral projection

c. AP oblique projection, LPO position

d. PA oblique projection, RAO position

d. PA oblique projection, RAO position

For the AP projection with the patient supine (as part of

the UGI examination) which procedure should be performed

to demonstrate best a diaphragmatic herniation (hiatal

hernia)?

a. Angle the central ray 30 to 35 degrees caudally.

b. Tilt the table and patient into a full Trendelenburg

position.

c. Instruct the patient to suspend respiration after full

inspiration

d. Place radiolucent cushions under the thorax to elevate

the shoulders

b. Tilt the table and patient into a full Trendelenburg

position.

What is the proper sequence for filling the large

intestine with barium when performing a BE?

a. Rectum, sigmoid ascending colon, transverse colon and

descending colon.

b. Rectum sigmoid, descending colon, transverse colon

and ascending colon.

c. Sigmoid, rectum, ascending colon, transverse colon and

descending colon.

d. Sigmoid, rectum, descending colon, transverse colon and

ascending colon.

b. Rectum sigmoid, descending colon, transverse colon

and ascending colon.

Which two oblique projections can be performed to

demonstrate best the left colic flexure during a BE?

a. PA oblique projection, LAO position; AP oblique

projection

b. PA oblique projection, LAO position; AP oblique

projection RPO position

c. PA oblique projection, RAO position; AP oblique

projection LPO position

d. PA oblique projection, LPO position; AP oblique

projection RAO position

b. PA oblique projection, LAO position; AP oblique

projection RPO position

Which two terms refer to the excretory program

examination?

a. Cystourethrography and retrograde urography

b. Cystourethrography and intravenous pyelography

c. Intravenous urography and retrograde urography

d. Intravenous urography and intravenous pyelography

c. Intravenous urography and retrograde urography

How long after the completion of the contrast medium

injection does the contrast agent usually begin to appear in

the renal pelvis?

a. 30 seconds to 1 minute

b. 2 to 8 minutes

c. 10 to 14 minutes

d. 15 to 20 minutes

b. 2 to 8 minutes

How long after the injection of the contrast medium

does the greatest concentration usually appear within the

kidneys?

a. 30 seconds to 1 minute

b. 2 to 8 minutes

c. 15 to 20 minutes

d. 30 to 45 minutes

c. 15 to 20 minutes

If a device is used for ureteral compression, to which

level of the patient should it be centered?

a. L1-L3

b. At the level of the ASIS

c. 2 inches (2.5 cm) above the superior border of the pubic

symphysis.

d. 1 inch (2.5 cm) above the superior border of the pubic

symphysis

c. 2 inches (2.5 cm) above the superior border of the pubic

symphysis.

Approximately how many degrees should the patient be

rotated from the supine position to an oblique position to

demonstrate renal and urinary structures.

a. 10 degrees

b. 20 degrees

c. 30 degrees

d. 40 degrees

c. 30 degrees

How should the patient be positioned for the best

demonstration of the prostate?

a. Prone

b. Supine

c. Upright

d. Lateral recumbent

a. Prone

Which projection best demonstrates the mobility of the

kidneys?

a. AP projection with the patient supine

b. AP projection with the patient upright

c. Lateral projection with the patient lateral recumbent

d. Lateral projection with the patient in dorsal decubitus

position

b. AP projection with the patient upright

In intravenous urography, what is the purpose of

applying compression pads over the distal ends of both

ureters?

a. To demonstrate ureteral reflux

b. To demonstrate the mobility of the kidneys

c. To retard the flow of opacified urine into the bladder

d. To retard the flow of opacified urine from the bladder

c. To retard the flow of opacified urine into the bladder

Which examination requires that the patient be placed

on a special urographic-radiographic examination table?

a. Cystourethrography

b. Retrograde Urography

c. Intravenous Urography

d. Retrograde cystography

b. Retrograde Urography

Which examination introduces contrast medium through

a uterine cannula?

a. Fetography

b. Pelvimetry

c. Placentography

d. Hysterosalpingography

d. Hysterosalpingography

When should a hysterosalpingography examination be

performed?

a. After the first trimester

b. During the first timer

c. 10 days after the onset of menstruation

d. 10 days of before the onset of menstruation

c. 10 days after the onset of menstruation

What is the primary objective of compressing the breast

for mammography?

a. To reduce exposure time

b. To decrease geometric distortionc.

c. To produce uniform breast thickness

d. To produce uniform radiographic density

c. To produce uniform breast thickness

Which two imaging modalities have greatly reduced the

frequency of sialography?

a. Computed tomography and ultrasonography

b. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance

imaging

c. Conventional tomography and ultrasonography

d. Conventional tomography and magnetic resonance

imaging

b. Computed tomography and magnetic resonance

imaging

Which type of contrast medium is most commonly used

for examining the upper GI tract?

a. An oily, viscous compound

b. A barium sulfate suspension

c. A nonionic injectable compound

d. A water-soluble, iodinated solution

b. A barium sulfate suspension

Which of the following is a major advantage of double

contrast UGI examination over single-contrast UGI

examination?

a. The patient can tolerate the procedure better

b. Radiation exposure to the patient is reduced

c. Small lesions on the mucosal lining are better

demonstrated

d. The examinations can be performed with the patient

upright instead of recumbent

c. Small lesions on the mucosal lining are better

demonstrated

For intravenous urography of a child what should the

patient be given when the scout image shows an excessive

amount of intestinal gas overlying the kidneys?

a. A laxative

b. A cleansing enema

c. 12 oz of ice water

d. 12 oz of a carbonated average

a. A laxative

What is the purpose of raising the head of the table 35

to 40 degrees for retrograde urography?

a. To demonstrate the ureters

b. To position the patient for catheterization

c. To produce a nephrogram effect in the kidneys

d. To prevent contrast medium from escaping the kidneys

a. To demonstrate the ureters

Which examination demonstrates the architecture of the

material pelvis to compare with the size of the fetal head?

a. Fetography

b. Pelvimetry

c. Placentography

d. Hysterosalpingography

b. Pelvimetry

The standard examination for demonstrating the breasts

comprises which two projections?

a. Craniocaudal and lateromedial

b. Craniocaudal and mediolateral oblique

c. Caudocranial and lateromedial

d. Caudocranial and mediolateral oblique

b. Craniocaudal and mediolateral oblique

Approximately how long goes it usually take the first

part of a barium meal to reach the ileocecal valve?

a. 30 minutes to 1 hour

b. 2 to 3 hours

c. 4 to 5 hours

d. 24 hours

b. 2 to 3 hours

For the UGI examinations with the patient recumbent,

which projection best stimulates gastric peristalsis to

demonstrate the pyloric canal and duodenal bulb better?

a. AP projection

b. Left lateral projection

c. AP oblique projection, LPO position

d. PA oblique projection, RAO position

d. PA oblique projection, RAO position

How many degrees and in which direction should the

central ray be directed for the PA axial projection during a

BE?

a. 20 to 25 degrees caudal

b. 20 to 25 degrees cephalic

c. 30 to 40 degrees caudal

d. 30 to 40 degrees cephalic

c. 30 to 40 degrees caudal

Which structure of the large intestine is of primary

interest for the PA oblique projection, RAO position,

during BE examinations?

a. Anal canal

b. Left colic flexure

c. Right colic flexure

d. Descending colon

c. Right colic flexure

Which examination has the ability to produce a

radiographic image demonstrating renal cortical tissue well

saturated with contrast medium?

a. Cystourethrography

b. Retrograde urography

c. Intravenous Urography

d. Retrograde Cystography

c. Intravenous Urography

Which examination of the alimentary canal requires that

a series of images be taken at specific time intervals after

the ingestion of the contrast medium?

a. UGI series

b. BE

c. Esophagography

d. Small bowel series

. Small bowel series

Which condition would most likely be demonstrated

during voiding cystography?

a. Renal cyst

b. Renal calculi

c. Ureteral reflux

d. Hydronephrosis

c. Ureteral reflux

Which radiographic body position should be used to

demonstrate best the duodenal loop and the

duodeno-jejunal junction filled with contrast medium?

a. Upright RAO position

b. Recumbent LPO position

c. Upright left lateral position

d. Recumbent right lateral position

d. Recumbent right lateral position

Which part of the large intestine is located between the

ascending and descending parts of the colon?

a. Cecum

b. Rectum

c. Sigmoid

d. Transverse colon

d. Transverse colon

In addition to the AP projection, which projection

would most likely be included in the images for retrograde

urography?

a. PA projection

b. PA oblique projection

c. AP oblique projection

d. AP projection, lateral decubitus position

c. AP oblique projection