Renal Physiology & Related Systems – Exam Review

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Comprehensive Q&A flashcards covering kidney anatomy & physiology, hormonal control, nitrogenous wastes, adaptive immunity basics, and clinical correlations emphasized in the lecture.

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60 Terms

1
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What is the functional unit of the kidney?

The nephron.

2
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Where are the kidneys located in relation to the peritoneum?

Retroperitoneal – behind the peritoneum.

3
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Which arteriole is larger in diameter and helps create glomerular pressure?

The afferent arteriole (larger than the efferent).

4
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What percentage of filtrate is normally re-absorbed by the nephron?

Approximately 99 %.

5
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List the correct order of filtrate flow starting at the glomerular capsule.

Glomerular (Bowman’s) capsule → Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) → Nephron loop (loop of Henle) → Distal convoluted tubule (DCT) → Collecting duct → Papillary duct → Minor calyx → Major calyx → Renal pelvis → Ureter → Bladder → Urethra.

6
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Which part of the nephron performs the majority of reabsorption?

The proximal convoluted tubule (PCT).

7
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What is the role of the vasa recta surrounding juxtamedullary nephrons?

Allows production of very concentrated urine when water must be conserved.

8
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Define glomerular filtration rate (GFR).

The volume of filtrate formed per minute by both kidneys; a key measure of renal function.

9
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How much urine is typically produced in a day?

About 1–2 L.

10
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Which hormone is released from the posterior pituitary to increase water reabsorption in the kidney?

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

11
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What triggers ADH release?

Increased plasma osmolarity (dehydration) sensed by hypothalamic osmoreceptors.

12
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Name the hormone released from the adrenal cortex that increases Na⁺ reabsorption.

Aldosterone.

13
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Water follows which ion during aldosterone-mediated reabsorption?

Sodium (Na⁺).

14
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Where is erythropoietin (EPO) produced and what triggers its release?

Produced by the kidneys in response to hypoxia (low blood O₂).

15
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What enzyme is released by juxtaglomerular cells when renal blood pressure drops?

Renin.

16
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What does renin ultimately generate that raises blood pressure?

Angiotensin II (via ACE in the lungs).

17
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List three major actions of angiotensin II.

1) Vasoconstriction, 2) Thirst stimulation, 3) Aldosterone release.

18
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What class of antihypertensive drugs blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II?

ACE inhibitors (e.g., lisinopril).

19
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Which cardiac hormone lowers blood pressure by promoting Na⁺ and water loss?

Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP).

20
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Give two similarities between B cells and T cells.

Both are lymphocytes and provide specificity & memory in adaptive immunity.

21
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In adaptive immunity, what do B cells differentiate into to produce antibodies?

Plasma cells.

22
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Which lymphocyte provides cellular immunity by directly killing infected cells?

Cytotoxic T cells (CD8⁺).

23
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Define passive immunity.

Protection via externally supplied antibodies; no immunological memory is generated.

24
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Define active immunity and give its two forms.

Body produces its own antibodies (with memory); can be natural (infection) or artificial (vaccination).

25
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What nitrogenous waste is produced by the liver’s urea cycle?

Urea (non-toxic).

26
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Excess uric acid crystals in joints cause which disorder?

Gout (gouty arthritis).

27
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What is creatinine and why is it measured clinically?

A nitrogenous waste from muscle creatine phosphate; blood creatinine levels assess renal function.

28
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What simple blood test provides a snapshot of kidney function by measuring nitrogenous wastes?

BUN – Blood Urea Nitrogen test.

29
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Which gas primarily regulates respiration rate?

Carbon dioxide (CO₂).

30
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Elevated CO₂ levels are termed what and cause what respiratory response?

Hypercapnia; trigger faster, deeper breathing.

31
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What happens to renal blood flow during sympathetic ‘fight-or-flight’ activation?

Afferent arterioles constrict, dramatically reducing GFR and urine formation.

32
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State Starling’s principle for autoregulation when systemic BP rises.

Afferent arteriole constricts and efferent dilates to lower glomerular pressure.

33
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What structure senses tubular fluid salinity for tubuloglomerular feedback?

The macula densa in the distal convoluted tubule.

34
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Low salinity (due to high GFR) causes macula densa to induce what change?

Paracrine signaling to juxtaglomerular cells ⇒ constriction of afferent arteriole ⇒ GFR decreases.

35
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Define transport maximum (Tm).

The maximum rate at which a substance can be reabsorbed due to saturation of its carrier proteins.

36
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Why does untreated diabetes mellitus lead to glycosuria?

Blood glucose exceeds Tm, carriers saturate, excess glucose remains in filtrate and appears in urine.

37
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Explain polyuria and polydipsia in diabetics.

Glucose in urine osmotically drags water (polyuria); water loss triggers excessive thirst (polydipsia).

38
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What is diabetes insipidus caused by?

ADH deficiency or renal insensitivity to ADH (not glucose related).

39
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Give the normal pH range of urine and what acidic urine may indicate.

Urine pH ≈ 4.5–8; very acidic urine suggests high acid load or metabolic acidosis.

40
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Name two primary types of nephrons and their main difference.

Cortical (shallow) and juxtamedullary (deep with long loops for concentrating urine).

41
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Which renal capillary bed wraps around the nephron loop of juxtamedullary nephrons?

The vasa recta.

42
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Trace renal blood flow from the aorta to the glomerulus.

Aorta → Renal artery → Segmental & smaller arteries → Afferent arteriole → Glomerulus.

43
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After filtration, blood leaves the glomerulus via what vessel?

The efferent arteriole.

44
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Where does blood from the renal vein ultimately drain?

Into the inferior vena cava, then the right atrium.

45
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What percentage of cardiac output is normally directed to the kidneys at rest?

Approximately 20 % (one-fifth).

46
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Name three common diuretic mechanisms.

1) Inhibit Na⁺ reabsorption (loop/thiazide), 2) Block aldosterone, 3) Reduce ADH activity (water diuresis).

47
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Why are diuretics prescribed in congestive heart failure?

To reduce excess fluid volume that backs up into lungs or tissues due to weak ventricular pumping.

48
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What kidney complication is life-threatening in septic shock?

Acute renal failure when BP drops too low to sustain GFR.

49
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Presence of protein (albumin) in urine often indicates what chronic condition?

Long-standing hypertension damaging glomerular filtration slits.

50
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Presence of red blood cells in urine (hematuria) can suggest what two possibilities?

Urinary tract infection or glomerular damage from severe hypertension.

51
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Which respiratory organ removes CO₂ from the body?

The lungs via ventilation.

52
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Which organ system is the strongest regulator of long-term pH balance?

The kidneys (through H⁺ secretion and bicarbonate handling).

53
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Define azotemia.

Elevated nitrogenous wastes in blood due to inadequate renal filtration.

54
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What is polyuria?

Excessive urine output (> 2 L/day).

55
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What is the effect of aldosterone on K⁺?

Promotes K⁺ secretion into tubular fluid in exchange for Na⁺ reabsorption.

56
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Give two key laboratory indicators of early kidney dysfunction.

Decreased GFR and elevated BUN/creatinine.

57
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What simple visual cue can suggest hydration status?

Urine color (light = well-hydrated; dark = concentrated/dehydrated).

58
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Why is EPO abuse attractive to endurance athletes?

It stimulates red blood cell production, increasing oxygen-carrying capacity.

59
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Which blood cells predominate in a UTI urinalysis?

Neutrophils (elevated WBC count).

60
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Why does blocking Na⁺ reabsorption increase urine volume?

Water osmotically follows Na⁺ into the tubular fluid, increasing diuresis.