ACE University Wrong Answers/Struggle

Section I - Which of the following is WITHIN the ACE Certified Personal Trainer scope of practice regarding training clients with weight-loss goals?

• Creating therapeutic exercise programs to help clients with low-back pain to improve core stability

• Evaluating a client's nutrient intake to guide meal planning

• Recommending nutritional supplements only after conducting extensive research on their effectiveness and safety

• Designing exercise programs that lead ot increased energy expenditure and positive changes in body composition

Designing exercise programs that lead ot increased energy expenditure and positive changes in body composition

Section I - Which of the following would be OUTSIDE the scope of practice for ACE Certified Personal Trainers?

• Offering solutions to a client who exhibits signs of depression that impact exercise adherence

• Teaching a client techniques for self-myofascial release

• Leading a client through exercises ot improve shoulder stability

• Discussing proper techniques and appropriate uses for dynamic stretching

Offering solutions to a client who exhibits signs of depression that impact exercise adherence

Section I - A client has soreness after a weekend tennis tournament. Which of the following is an appropriate action that is WITHIN the scope of practice for ACE Certified Personal Trainers?

• Provide deep tissue massage to the affected area

• Discuss proper techniques for stretching the affected muscles

• Suggest using common, low-dosage anti-inflammatory medications

• Implement a therapeutic exercise program to reduce soreness and improve function

Discuss proper techniques for stretching the affected muscles

Section I - A client has been released from physical therapy for shoulder impingement and si now working with an ACE Certified Personal Trainer. Which course of action would be MOST appropriate for the personal trainer to take?

• Continue to implement the physical therapy exercises

• Progress the client to strength and power training for the upper body

• Build on the work done in physical therapy

• Evaluate the progress of the client's rehabilitation

Build on the work done in physical therapy

Section I - What is the MOST appropriate solution for an ACE Certified Personal Trainer to provide to a client who has tight illotibial (IT) bands?

• Refer the client to a physical therapist

• Teach the client to perform self-deep tissue massage

• Teach the client self-myofascial release techniques

• Prescribe a series of ballistic stretches

Teach the client self-myofascial release techniques

Section I - Which exercise would be MOST appropriate in the Movement Training phase of the ACE IFT Model Muscular Training component?

• High marches

• Plyometric squat

• Butt kicks

• Body-weight lunges

Body-weight lunges

Section I - An ACE Certified Personal Trainer begins working with a new client who has obesity and is apprehensive about beginning an exercise program. Which of the following approaches would be MOST effective in helping the client achieve early success in this first session?

• Administer the Rockport Fitness Walking Test to determine the client's cardiovascular fitness

• Conduct the push-up and body-weight squat tests to determine upper- and lower-body strength to inform exercise program design

• Have the client perform exercises that provide the trainer with basic feedback about the client's current movement abilities and fitness

• Assess the client's body composition using skinfold measurements to record the client's baseline body-fat percentage

Have the client perform exercises that provide the trainer with basic feedback about the client's current movement abilities and fitness

Section V - Which of the following risk-management approaches involves modifying the risk by removing part of the activity?

• Reduction

• Avoidance

• Transfer

• Retention

Reduction

Section V - The breach of duty directly caused the injury or harm — not just coincidentally, but as a foreseeable outcome of the trainer’s actions or inactions.

Proximate Causation

Section V - Which of the following scenarios BEST describes an ACE Certified Personal Trainer working as an independent contractor?

• The personal trainer typically only works for one employer

• The health club provides continuing education on a quarterly basis for personal trainers

• The personal trainer receives a salary plus commission from a health club

• Personal-training services are not a core function of the health club's business operations

Personal-training services are not a core function of the health club's business operations

Section V - Which of the following would provide the BEST security when storing client exercise programs online?

• A password-protected file in a virtual training program or app

• A folder at the membership desktop ot be entered into the facility's computer

• A folder in the filing cabinet in the shared personal-training office

• A shared tablet owned by the health club facility located behind the front desk

A password-protected file in a virtual training program or app

Section V - Which of the following is WITHIN the scope of practice for an ACE Certified Personal Trainer?

• Informing a client that a certain food contains a high amount of a specific vitamin

• Recommend that a client increase caloric intake of a particular food

• Providing a client with a sample food log of what the trainer eats

• Recommending a specific shoe brand in response to a client’s request

Informing a client that a certain food contains a high amount of a specific vitamin

Section V - Which of the following scenarios would pose the HIGHEST chance for legal action?

• A personal trainer asking another trainer to conduct a client session on their behalf

• A personal trainer asking a client to sign a photography release waiver

• A personal trainer conducting the same fitness assessments for all clients

• A personal trainer cancelling a session at the last minute

A personal trainer conducting the same fitness assessments for all clients

Section II - An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is working with a new client who has had a consistent exercise history. During the interview, the client explains that they enjoy all types of exercise and loves the way a workout makes them feel. Which of the following BEST describes this client's motivation?

• Associative motivation

• Controlled motivation

• Autonomous motivation

• Extrinsic motivation

Autonomous motivation

Section II - Which of the following client types is MOST likely ot exhibit positive health behaviors?

• A client with an internal locus of control

• A client with strong willpower

• A client with an external locus of control

• A client with a strong emotional state

A client with an internal locus of control

Section II - Which of the following will MOST strongly influence a client's current self-efficacy levels?

• Positive feedback from others

• Physiological state

• Past performance experiences

• Mood state and emotional belief

Past performance experiences

Section II - According to the health belief model, which of the following refers to people's perceptions of how likely they are to develop an illness?

• Perceived benefits

• Perceived seriousness

• Perceived susceptibility

• Perceived barriers

Perceived susceptibility

Section II - During a training session, a client begins talking about intimate personal issues and problems at home. Which of the following actions is MOST appropriate for the ACE Certified Personal Trainer to take?

• Provide some solutions to the problem

• Listen and sympathize

• Offer advice to the client

• Redirect the conversation

Redirect the conversation

Section II - During a training session, an ACE Certified Personal Trainer asks the client to explain what benefits might be gained by increasing their exercise frequency from 2 days/week to 3 days/week. Which of the following BEST identifies the type of communication skill used by the trainer?

• Closed questioning

• Offering affirmation

• Summarizing

• Open-ended questioning

Open-ended questioning

Section II - Which of the following is a key consideration when setting goals with a client?

• Goals should be positive

• Numerous goals should be set to offer many options and choices

• Once set, revisiting goals is a waste of time

• Goals should be set by the trainer and agreed upon by the client

Goals should be positive

Section II - A client who is beginning to master the hip-hinge basics of a squat and is ready to receive more specific feedback so the movement can be refined and perfected is in which stage of learning?

• Cognitive stage

• Autonomous stage

• Motor stage

• Associative stage

Associative stage

Section II - Which of the following components of motivational interviewing is being displayed when an ACE Certified Personal Trainer deliberately pursues the welfare and best interests of the client?

• Collaboration

• Acceptance

• Evocation

• Compassion

Compassion

Section II - Which of the following could cause a barrier to exercise fi included in the exercise preparticipation health-screening process for a client?

• Time commitment

• Current level of physical activity

• Desired exercise intensity

• Risk-factor profiling or classification

Risk-factor profiling or classification

Section II - Which of the following is a factor identified as an important risk modulator of exercise-related cardiovascular events?

• Past physical-activity levels

• Current weight

• Body mass index

• Desired intensity level

Desired intensity level

Section II - If an ACE Certified Personal Trainer makes the following statement early in a preparticipation health screening, which of the following are they trying to accomplish? "Managing your diabetes is important to you. How do you envision me helping to support your goals?"

• Breaking down any possible barriers

• Asking open-ended questions to get more detail

• Trying to collaborate on the client's goals

• Creating rapport with the client

Asking open-ended questions to get more detail

Section II - Which of the following forms collects more detailed medical and health information beyond the preparticipation health screening?

• Medical release

• Lifestyle and health-history questionnaire

• Informed consent

• Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire for Everyone (PAR-Q+)

Lifestyle and health-history questionnaire

Section II - For the past two months, a client has been following their healthcare provider's exercise guidelines of 30 minutes of indoor cycling at a rating of perceived exertion of 8 (on the 6 to 20 scale), followed by mild stretching. The client has asked the ACE Certified Personal Trainer to add the elliptical machine to incorporate upper-body movements. Which would be the MOST appropriate response?

• Explain that, for their safety, a new medical release would be necessary to incorporate additional exercise

• Explain that increasing the resistance will increase the RPE above 8 and allow the client's legs to get stronger in preparation for a standing cardiorespiratory exercise machine

• Suggest that extending the time on the bicycle to 45 minutes would help better prepare the client for the elliptical

• Suggest adding light upper-body muscular training while keeping the stationary biking the same

Explain that, for their safety, a new medical release would be necessary to incorporate additional exercise

Section II - An ACE Certified Personal Trainer's client states they are interested ni using an over-the-counter diuretic for rapid weight loss. Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate response?

• Explain the dangers of using such a product

• Suggest they maintain adequate water intake to avoid dehydration

• Suggest they talk to a pharmacist

• Explain that there are other products that are safer to use

Explain the dangers of using such a product

Difficulty or discomfort in breathing; shortness of breath

What is Dyspnea

Temporary loss of consciousness due to a drop in blood flow to the brain — essentially, fainting.

What is Syncope

Difficulty breathing while lying flat; breathing improves when sitting or standing.

What is Orthopnea

Section II - During an initial exercise session, a client presents with symptoms of dizziness and mentions this occasionally occurs during workouts. Which would be the MOST appropriate action by an ACE Certified Personal Trainer?

• Continue exercise with caution and seek a healthcare provider's clearance

• Modify the current program to a more suitable activity level

• Discontinue exercise and have the client seek a qualified healthcare provider's clearance

• Create a new program to help address the issues identified

Discontinue exercise and have the client seek a qualified healthcare provider's clearance

Key Characteristics of the DASH Plan

High in:

• Fruits and vegetables
• Whole grains
• Low-fat dairy products
• Lean protein (fish, poultry, beans)
• Nuts and seeds
• Potassium, magnesium, and calcium (blood

pressure-regulating minerals)

Low in:

• Sodium (typically ≤2,300 mg/day, or 1,500 mg/ day for more significant effect)

• Saturated fat and cholesterol

• Red meat, sweets, sugary drinks, and processed

  foods

Section II - An ACE Certified Personal Trainer working with a client makes the following statement: "You want to make these changes to manage your blood pressure, avoid medication, and improve your quality of life. What obstacles do you think might get in the way of these goals?" Which of the following BEST identifies the approach the personal trainer is taking?

• Communicating openly

• Breaking down barriers

• Assessing the outcomes

• Determining the stage of change

Breaking down barriers

Section II - Which of the following antihypertensive medications increases the excretion of water and electrolytes through the kidneys?

• Beta blockers

• Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors

• Diuretics

• Calcium channel blockers

Diuretics

Drugs that reduce the effects of adrenaline and noradrenaline on the body

What is Beta Blockers?

Section III - Which of the following refers to a resting heart rate (RHR) that is less than 60 beats per minute?

• Normal sinus rhythm

• Sinus bradycardia

• Sinus tachycardia

• Elevated sinus rhythm

Sinus bradycardia

A condition where the heart beats faster than normal, with the heart rate typically exceeding 100 beats per minute

What is Sinus tachycardia

Section III - A long-standing client has significantly increased their exercise frequency and intensity to break through a recent plateau. Over the past week, their resting heart rate has averaged 78 beats per minute compared to their typical 70 beats per minute. Which of the following might BEST explain this increase?

• Overtraining syndrome

• Increased stroke volume

• Increased hemoglobin production

• Sinus node syndrome

Overtraining syndrome

Section III - According to the ACC/AHA blood pressure guidelines, which ACE uses:

Category Systolic (top) Diastolic (bottom)

_______ - <120 and <80

_______ - 120-129 and <80

_______ - 130-139 or 80-89

_______ - ≥140 or ≥90

Normal

Elevated

Stage 1 Hypertension

Stage 2 Hypertension

EVEN IF one value falls under normal level, if the other value (systolic or diastolic) is over the guideline value, it is elevated or hypertension

The minimum amount of fat required for normal physiological function

Purpose: Hormone production, Thermoregulation, 􏰟rotection of internal organs, 􏰌ervous system and reproductive function

What is Essential Fat?

Fat stored under the skin
• Visible fat — contributes to skinfold thickness
• Van be used as an energy reserve and offers insulation, but not critical to survival

What is Subcutaneous Fat?

The general term for body fat tissue
Stores energy, produces hormones (like leptin) and cushions organs

What is Adipose Tissue?

Fat stored around internal organs in the abdominal cavity
High-risk fat — associated with increased risk of cardiovascular disease, Type 􏰏 diabetes, and inflammation

What is Visceral Fat?

Section III - Which of the following indicates the average resting heart rate in males?

• 72 to 76 beats per minute

• 54 to 59 beats per minute

• 79 to 82 beats per minute

• 60 to 70 beats per minute

60 to 70 beats per minute

Section III - Insufficient blood flow to tissues, usually due to blockage or narrowing of arteries

It can affect the heart, brain, limbs, etc.
If prolonged, leads to tissue damage or death

What is Ischemia?

Complete blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle, resulting in tissue death

Usually caused by a ruptured plaque leading to a blood clot in a coronary artery

What is myocardial infarction (heart attack)?

Section III - Which of the following describes the point at which ventilation begins to increase in a nonlinear fashion?

• Respiratory exchange ratio (RER)

• Heart-rate reserve (HRR)

• Second ventilatory threshold (VT2)

• First ventilatory threshold (VT1)

First ventilatory threshold (VT1)

Section III - Which of the following is the RECOMMENDED fluid intake prior to exercise?

• 12-15 mL/kg (0.41-0.51 oz/lb)

• 2-4 mL/kg (0.68-0.14 oz/b)

• 5-7 mL/kg (0.08-0.11 oz/lb)

• 8-10 mL/kg (0.27-0.34 oz/lb)

5-7 mL/kg (0.08-0.11 oz/lb)

Section III - What is the RECOMMENDED weekly or biweekly exercise duration progression for cardiorespiratory training over the first four to six weeks of training a new client?

• 5%

• 20%

• 15%

• 10%

10%

When to progress to Fitness Training?

A minimum of 20 minutes of steady-state cardiorespiratory exercise in zone 1 on at least three days per week

Cardiorespiratory interval training is typically introduced during which stage of training?

Fitness Training

Anaerobic power is typically performed during which of the following stages of training?

Performance Training

Stroke Volume x Heart Rate

What is Cardiac Output?

Section III - An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is working with a client who wants to run a 10K. Which of the following conditions would MOST likely prohibit the client from participating in a ventilatory threshold assessment?

• Asthma

• Diabetes

• Overweight

• Allergies

Asthma

Asthma is the only condition listed that:

• Directly affects the respiratory system

• Can interfere with breathing during exercise

Section III - Which portion of the spine consists of five fused vertebrae?

• Cervical

• Соссух

• Sacrum

• Lumbar

Sacrum

Region - # of Vertebrae Function

Cervical	7 (C1-C7)	Supports the head and allows for neck mobility (nodding, rotation)
Thoracic	12 (T1-T12)	Anchors the rib cage, provides upper back stability
Lumbar	5 (L1-L5)	Handles most of the body's weight; involved in lifting & movement
Sacrum	5 fused (S1-S5)	Forms the posterior pelvic wall; connects spine to lower body
Coccyx	3-5 fused	The tailbone; provides attachment for pelvic floor muscles

Exercises that involve contracting muscles without changing their length.

What is Isometric Exercise?

A series of connected joints where the distal (end) joint is fixed or restricted in movement.

What is Closed kinetic chain?

Section III - An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is working with a client who has a bench press repetition range of 12-15. The client had been consistently bench pressing 175 pounds (79 kg) for 12 repetitions, and can now complete 15 repetitions at the same weight. Utilizing the double-progression training protocol, which of the following would be the MOST appropriate progression?

• Perform 10 repetitions of 195 pounds (88 kg)

• Perform 10 repetitions of 185 pounds (84 kg)

• Perform 12 repetitions of 195 pounds (88 kg)

• Perform 12 repetitions of 185 pounds (84 kg)

Perform 12 repetitions of 185 pounds (84 kg)

When the top of the rep range is reached with proper form, increase the weight by ~5%; Return to the lower end of the rep range and repeat the progression cycle

Step 1: Progress Repetitions

• Keep the same weight

• Build reps up to the top of the target rep range (12-15 reps)

Step 2: Increase Load (Weight)

• When the top of the rep range is reached with proper form, increase the weight by

• Return to the lower end of the rep range and repeat the progression cycle

Load increase formula:

• New Load = Current Load x 1.05 (5% increase)

  • Week 1-4 - 175 lbs, 12-15 reps

  • Week 5 - After mastering 15 reps, 185 lbs, back to 12 reos

What is Double-Progression Formula?

Section III - Which of the following training principles refers to loss of muscle strength due to termination of a regular muscular-training program?

• Overload

• Overtraining

• Reversibility

• Atrophy

Reversibility

Recommended repetition tempo for beginners learning new exercises, especially in resistance training

What is 6 seconds per rep?
2-3-1 Tempo:

• Eccentric (2 seconds): The lowering phase of the movement.

• Isometric (3 seconds): The pause or hold at the bottom of the movement.

• Concentric (1 second): The lifting phase of the movement. 

Section III - Which of the following is a correctible factor for a client whose assessment identifies muscular imbalances and postural deviations?

• Structural deviation

• Lack of joint stability

• Joint trauma from injury

• Congenital condition

Lack of joint stability

Anterior pelvic tilt = when the pelvis tilts forward, causing:

• The lumbar spine to arch excessively

• The hip flexors to tighten and the glutes/abdominals to weaken • A visible “swayback” or deep low-back curve

What is Lordosis?

Excessive outward curvature of the thoracic spine (upper back)

What is Kyphosis?

A bone disease where bones become weak and brittle

What is Osteoporosis?

Lateral (side-to-side) curvature of the spine

What is Scoliosis?

Section III - Which of the following assessments would MOST likely be contraindicated for a client with low-back pain?

• Unipedal stance test

• Static postural assessment

• Y-balance test

• McGill's Torso Muscular Endurance Battery Test

McGill's Torso Muscular Endurance Battery Test

List of Static Balance Assessments:

Assessment	Safe for Low-Back Pain?	Why?
Unipedal Stance Test	Usually safe	Tests balance - minimal spinal loading
Static Postural Assessment	Very safe	Observational only
Y Balance Test	Maybe — depends	Mild core activation, but can stress low back slightly
McGill Test Battery	Contraindicated	Involves sustained trunk loading and spinal stress

Section III - Which of the following identifies the PRIMARY purpose of the Thomas test?

• To evaluate the length of the muscles involved in hip flexion

• To evaluate the length of the muscles involved with trunk flexion

• To evaluate the length of the muscles involved with trunk extension

• To evaluate the length of the muscles involved in hip extension

To evaluate the length of the muscles involved in hip flexion

The central part of the human body, excluding the head, neck, and limbs. It encompasses the following anatomical regions: 

• Thorax: The chest cavity containing organs such as the heart, lungs, and diaphragm. 

• Abdomen: The area below the thorax, containing organs like the stomach, intestines, liver, and pancreas. 

• Pelvis: The lower part of the trunk, supporting the reproductive organs, bladder, and rectum. 

Trunk

Section III - During a squat pattern assessment, the ACE Certified Personal Trainer observes the client is driving the knees forward during the descent of the squat. Which of the following is MOST likely causing this compensation?

• Quadriceps dominance

• Lumbar dominance

• Hamstring dominance

• Glute dominance

Quadriceps dominance

Section III - From the side view of a standing row assessment, the ACE Certified Personal Trainer notices the client's head migrates forward. Which of the following muscles are MOST likely underactive?

• Levator scapulae

• Mid and lower trapezius

• Cervical spine flexors

• Rhomboid major and minor

Cervical spine flexors

Epley Formula - Measuring 1RM (rep max)

• This formula is reasonably accurate for 10 reps or fewer

1RM = Weight x (1 + {Reps/30})

Section III - An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is developing a Performance Training program for a client. What percentage of time should be spent training in zone 1?

• 70 to 80%

• 40 to 50%

• 85 to 95%

• 55 to 65%

70 to 80%

Section III - Which of the following is a PRIMARY characteristic of Functional Training for muscular fitness?

Focus on establishing/reestablishing postural stability and kinetic chain mobility

Section III - Which of the following describes the MOST appropriate time for a client to perform plyometric drills in a training session?

• In the middle, to serve as the highest effort before working back down

• At the beginning, following a dynamic warm-up

• At the beginning, following self-myofascial release and static stretching

• At the end, before static stretching and after self-myofascial release

At the beginning, following a dynamic warm-up

Why?

1. Plyometric drills are explosive, high-intensity movements that

   require:

2. Maximal neuromuscular effort

3. Full central nervous system (CNS) readiness

4. Proper joint preparation

5. Stored elastic energy from tendons and muscles

So they need to be performed: Early in the workout, when the client is not fatigued and fully primed — after a dynamic warm-up.

Section III - Which of the following is the recommended plyometric training volume for a client with some plyometric experience?

• 100 to 120 contacts per session

• 80 to 99 contacts per session

• 140 to 160 contacts per session

• 121 to 139 contacts per session

100 to 120 contacts per session

What the heck is a “contact”?

One foot or hand striking the ground or a surface during a landing or jump.

Experience Level & Plyometric Volume

• Beginner - 80–100 Contacts (recommended)

• Intermediate - 100–120 Contact (recommended)

• Advanced - 120–140+ (recommended)

Section III - An ACE Certified Personal Trainer is facilitating a stretching session with a client. The client performs a passive 10-second pre-stretch, then pushes against the force provided by the personal trainer. Which of the following BEST identifies this type of stretching?

• Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)

• Myofascial release

• Ballistic

• Dynamic

Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)

• Wrong: Ballistic - Considered risky and outdated for most general populations

A stretching technique that combines static stretching with isometric contractions to improve flexibility and range of motion.

It involves stretching a muscle group, then contracting the muscle against resistance while still stretched, followed by stretching the muscle further. 

What is Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)?

Section IV - Which hormone facilitates energy intake when energy storage is too low

Leptin

Insulin and glucagon

Send blood glucose into the body for use

RDA’s recommended protein amount

1.2 to 1.7 grams per kg of body weight per day

Section IV - Which of the following is the MOST appropriate cardiorespiratory assessment to determine intensity levels for a deconditioned client?

• Physician-supervised VOmax test

• Submaximal cycle ergometer test

• Talk test

• Rockport walking test

Talk test

• It’s safe, easy, and requires no equipment

• It’s done in real time during any activity (walking, cycling, etc.)

• It helps identify the first ventilatory threshold (VT1) — the point where speaking becomes noticeably harder

RPE 4

Start of discomfort

Talking becomes slightly strained

Approaching VT1

ACE’s RPE Scale (0–10)

RPE	Perceived Exertion	Corresponds to
0	Nothing at all	Resting, sitting
1–2	Very light	Easy walking, casual pace
3–4	Light to moderate	Breathing heavier but still comfortable | Approaching VT1
5–6	Moderate	Noticeably increased breathing, can still talk
7–8	Vigorous	Challenging, can speak but with effort | Approaching VT2
9	Very hard	Nearly max effort
10	Maximal effort	Exhausting, can’t sustain

Section IV - Which of the following is the MOST important factor for an ACE Certified Personal Trainer to consider when designing an initial exercise program for a client with overweight or obesity?

• Selecting exercises that the client will enjoy

• Collaborating with a registered dietician to include a proper nutrition plan

• Creating a program that will yield a 10% weight loss in the first 6 months

• Establishing a social support system

Selecting exercises that the client will enjoy

Intensity

Force per movement (e.g., speed, load, impact)

Section IV - When increased too much or too soon, which of the following factors MOST increases the risk of potential musculoskeletal injury in a client with overweight or obesity?

• Volume

• Intensity

• Time

• Frequency

Intensity

Section IV - Which of the following types of exercise would be CONTRAINDICATED for a client with overweight or obesity?

• Jumping

• Recumbent cycling

• Water exercise

• Walking

Jumping

1. High impact on joints

2. Jumping increases ground reaction forces, which scale with body weight

3. Can stress knees, ankles, hips, especially if there's already poor joint alignment or mobility

4. Lower neuromuscular control

5. Clients with overweight may lack coordination or strength for safe landings

6. This increases risk of sprains, falls, or compensatory patterns

7. Higher injury risk without greater benefit

Section IV - A new client with low-risk coronary artery disease wants to start a muscular-training program with an ACE Certified Personal Trainer. Which of the following is the BEST initial program design?

• Using selectorized machines (40-60% of 1-RM), complete 2-3 sets of exercises for all major muscle groups

• Using free weights (40-60% of 1-RM), complete one set of exercises for ail major muscle groups

• Using free weights (65-80% of 1-RM), complete one set of exercises for all major muscle groups

• Using selectorized machines (65-80% of 1-RM), complete one set of exercises for all major muscle groups

Using free weights (40–60% of 1-RM), complete one set of exercises for all major muscle groups

1. Low-to-moderate intensity (40–60% 1-RM)

2. Helps build muscular endurance without spiking blood pressure or heart rate

3. One set minimizes initial volume

4. Allows the trainer to monitor response and tolerance closely

5. Reduces risk of overexertion early on

Section IV - Which of the following would be a recommended muscular-training program for a client with osteoarthritis?

• Frequency: 1-2 days/week, Intensity: 30-40% of 1-RM, Time: 2-4 sets of 6-7 exercises

• Frequency: 5-6 days/week, Intensity: 50-80% of 1-RM, Time: 2-4 sets of 8-12 exercises

• Frequency: 2-3 days/week, Intensity: 30-40% of 1-RM, Time: 2-4 sets of 6-7 exercises

• Frequency: 2-3 days/week, Intensity: 50-80% of 1-RM, Time: 2-4 sets of 8-12 exercises

Frequency: 2-3 days/week, Intensity: 50-80% of 1-RM, Time: 2-4 sets of 8-12 exercises

Clients with osteoarthritis (OA) benefit from progressive resistance training — it:

1. Strengthens muscles around the joints, which reduces pain and improves function

2. Enhances joint stability and mobility

3. Maintains bone density, which is key for aging populations

Chronic, inflammatory, autoimmune disease that primarily affects the joints, causing pain, swelling, stiffness, and potential joint damage. It's considered an autoimmune disease because the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissues, leading to inflammation in the lining of the joints.

What is Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?

Section IV - Which of the following BEST defines exercise-induced bronchoconstriction?

• Permanent narrowing of the airways following moderate to vigorous exercise

• Permanent narrowing of the airways following very light to light exercise

• Temporary narrowing of the airways following very light to light exercise

• Temporary narrowing of the airways following moderate to vigorous exercise

Temporary narrowing of the airways following moderate to vigorous exercise

Section IV - Which of the following puts children at greater risk of heat-related illnesses compared to adults?

• Lower ratio of body surface area to mass

• Higher cardiac output

• Diminished sweating capacity

• Higher exercise economy

Diminished sweating capacity

What is the recommended frequency of aerobic activity for children and adolescents?

• Four days per week

• Five days per week

• Six days per week

• Seven days per week

Seven days per week

Section IV - Which of the following should be the focus of a training program performed early in a pregnancy when designing a program for a pregnant woman?

• Posterior leg and trunk strength

• Upper-body strength

• Body-weight exercises

• Low-back discomfort

Posterior leg and trunk strength

Section IV - What are the ACOG recommendations for a woman to resume exercise after delivery?

• Begin slowly and gradually increase duration, frequency, and then intensity

• 5-10 minutes three times per week

• Daily activity of 5-10 minutes

• 20-30 minutes three times per week

Begin slowly and gradually increase duration, frequency, and then intensity