research lecture practice questions!!

what is a research problem?

an area of concern where there is a gap in the knowledge base needed for nursing practice. It identifies a situation deserving investigation that will contribute to nursing practice

A nurse notices rising central-line infection rates. She gathers local data, sets an improvement goal, and uses PDSA cycles to test a new care bundle. This is an example of:

quality improvement (QI)

A new graduate nurse reads a research article and is asked to evaluate the study's methodology, sample size, and findings for clinical merit. This activity is called:

research critique/critical appraisal

In PICOT, what does the "C" stand for-and when might it be absent?

comparison/control

- it may be absent when there is no alternative intervention to compare against

must know Which level of evidence provides the STRONGEST support for a practice change?

level 1- systematic reviews & meta-analysis of RCTs

A nurse implements a falls prevention protocol using current best evidence, clinical expertise, and patient references. Which process best describes this?

evidence-based practice (EBP)

What are the THREE criteria used to grade the strength of a body of evidence?

quality, quantity and consistency

A researcher wants to understand the lived experience of patients with chronic pain. Which type of nursing research is MOST appropriate?

qualitative research (e.g. phenomenology) lived experience

Which type of journal article uses statistical techniques to synthesize findings from multiple quantitative studies into a pooled effect?

meta-analysis

A staff nurse notices that patients on her unit who receive structured preoperative teaching experience less postoperative anxiety than those who do not. She wants to formally study this observation. According to LoBiondo-Wood and Haber (2022), what is the nurse describing?

A. Research hypothesis

B. Research problem

C. Clinical question

D. Dependent variable

Answer: B. Research problem

The nurse has identified an area in clinical practice where a gap in knowledge exists - specifically, the relationship between preoperative teaching and postoperative anxiety. This constitutes a research problem: an area of concern that deserves systematic investigation. A hypothesis would predict an outcome (not yet identified here), a clinical question would be structured in PICO(T) format, and a dependent variable is a single measurable element, not a problem statement.

A nurse researcher writes: "Does a structured exercise program reduce depression scores in adults aged 65 and older living in long-term care facilities?" Which characteristic makes this a well-formed research question?

A. It is stated in declarative form

B. It predicts the direction of the relationship between variables

C. It specifies the variables, population, and setting clearly

D. It can only be answered through qualitative inquiry

Answer: C. It specifies the variables, population, and setting clearly

A well-formed research question must identify the key variables (structured exercise program = V;

depression scores = DV), the population (adults ≥ 65), and the setting (long-term care facilities). Option A is incorrect because research questions are interrogative, not declarative (that is true for hypotheses).

Option B is incorrect because research questions do not predict direction - hypotheses do. Option Dis incorrect because this question is clearly suited to a quantitative design.

A nursing student is reviewing a quantitative study and reads: "Patients who receive nurse-led discharge education will report fewer hospital readmissions within 30 days than patients who receive standard discharge instructions." How is this statement best classified?

A. Null hypothesis

B. Research purpose

C. Directional research hypothesis

D. Non-directional research hypothesis

Answer: C. Directional research hypothesis

This is a research (scientific) hypothesis because it states a predicted relationship between two variables (discharge education and readmissions). It is directional because it specifies the expected direction of the effect (fewer readmissions). A null hypothesis would state "no difference." A research purpose is a goal statement, not a prediction.

An evidence-based practice committee wants to determine whether therapeutic hypothermia improves neurological outcomes in adult cardiac arrest survivors compared to normothermia. Using the PICOT format, which element is represented by "within 6 months of discharge"?

A. Population (P)

B. Intervention (I)

C. Outcome (O)

D. Time frame (T)

Answer: D. Time frame (T)

In the PICOT format, T = Time frame — the specific period within which outcomes are measured. "Within

6 months of discharge" designates when the outcome will be assessed. P = adult cardiac arrest survivors; I

= therapeutic hypothermia; C = normothermia; O = neurological outcomes.

Which of the following best distinguishes a foreground clinical question from a background clinical question?

A. Foreground questions ask about general disease pathophysiology and are answered by textbooks

B. Foreground questions are structured with PICOT) and inform specific clinical decisions

C. Background questions require a systematic review to answer

D. Background questions are formulated using the PICOT framework

Answer: B. Foreground questions are structured with PICOT) and inform specific clinical decisions

Foreground questions are specific, structured using PICOT), and guide clinical decisions about treatments, diagnoses, and prognoses - answered by primary research and systematic reviews. Background questions ask general "what/why/how" questions about canditions and are answered by textbooks and review articles.

Options A and D incorrectly reverse these definitions.

A researcher conducts a qualitative grounded theory study exploring how oncology nurses cope with compassion fatigue. A colleague asks why the researcher did not state a hypothesis. What is the best response?

A. Hypotheses are optional in all types of research

B. Qualitative research uses questions rather than hypotheses because the goal is exploration of meaning, not prediction of outcomes

C. Grounded theory studies always begin with null hypotheses

D. Hypotheses are not needed because qualitative research lacks variables

Answer: B. Qualitative research uses questions rather than hypotheses because the goal is exploration of meaning, not prediction of outcomes

Qualitative research, including grounded theory, aims to explore phenomena and generate theory rather than test predetermined predictions. Research questions guide qualitative inquiry. Hypotheses are a priori predictions appropriate for quantitative designs. In grounded theory, hypotheses (propositions) may emerge from data - they are not stated at the outset.

Which of the following are recognized sources of nursing research problems? (Select all that apply)

A. Direct clinical observation of patient care situations

B. National nursing and health priority areas

C. Personal preference of the funding agency only

D. Review of the professional nursing literature

E. Gaps identified in prior research studies

F. The nurse researcher's theoretical or conceptual framework

Answers: A, B, D, E, F

A: Clinical observation is a primary source of research problems

B: National health priorities (e.g., NINR agenda) guide research problem selection

C (X): Funding agency preferences alone are not a legitimate source - problems must be clinically and scientifically justified

D: Professional literature review is a standard source for identifying gaps

E: Gaps and inconsistencies in prior studies are key drivers of new reseArch problems

F: Theoretical/conceptual frameworks suggest areas needing empirical testing

A nurse appraiser is evaluating the research question: "What is the effect of skin-to-skin contact on pain response in term neonates during heel stick procedures in the neonatal nursery? " Which criteria does this question meet for a well-formed research question?

(Select all that apply)

A. Stated as an interrogative sentence

B. Identifies the population (term neonates)

C. Specifies both independent and dependent variables

D. States a directional prediction about outcomes

E. Indicates the clinical setting (neonatal nursery)

F. Is written as a declarative statement

Answers: A, B, C, E

A: The question is interrogative ("What is the effect of...?")

B: Population is explicitly identified (term neonates)

C: IV= skin-to-skin contact; DV = pain response during heel stick

D (X): Research questions do not state directional predictions - hypotheses do

E: Setting is specified (neonatal nursery)

F (X): Research questions are interrogative, not declarative

Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding null hypotheses? (Select all that apply)

A. They state there is no relationship or difference between variables

B. They are used primarily for statistical hypothesis testing

C. They predict the expected direction of the study outcome

D. Failure to reject the null hypothesis proves it is true

E. They are commonly implied rather than explicitly stated in quantitative studies

F. They are required in all qualitative research designs

Answers: A, B, E

A: By definition, null hypotheses state no relationship or difference exists between variables

B: Null hypotheses are the formal mechanism for statistical significance testing

C (X): Predicting direction of outcome is characteristic of a directional research hypothesis, not a null hypothesis

D (X):Failure to reject the null does not prove it true - it means insufficient evidence was found to reject it

E: In many quantitative studies, the null hypothesis is implied rather than explicitly written

F (X): Null hypotheses are not used in qualitative research

A hospital's EBP council is formulating a PICOT question about pressure injury prevention in critically ill patients. Which of the following components belong in a correctly formatted PICOT question for this scenario? (Select all that apply)

A. Adult patients in the ICU at risk for pressure injuries (P)

B. The council's preference for a specific wound care product (not evidence-based)

C. Repositioning every 2 hours combined with pressure-redistribution mattresses (1)

D. Standard care or no structured repositioning protocol (C)

E. Incidence of hospital-acquired pressure injuries (O)

F. Within the patient's 30-day ICU stay (T)

Answers: A, C, D, E, F

A: P= Patient/Population clearly described

B (X): Council preferences that are not evidence-based have no place in a PICOT question

C: I = Intervention clearly defined

D: C= Comparison/control group identified

E: O= Clinically meaningful, measurable outcome

F: T = Specific time frame included

A nursing student reads a research article for the first time, skimming the title, abstract, and headings to get a general sense of the study before reading in depth. Which level of critical reading is the student performing?

A. Level 2 - Comprehensive reading

B. Level 3 - Analysis reading

C. Level 1 - Preliminary (skimming) reading

D. Level 4 - Synthesis reading

Answer: C. Level 1 - Preliminary (skimming) reading

Level 1 critical reading (preliminary/skimming) involves getting an initial overview of an article by reading the title, author credentials, abstract, and headings - without engaging in deep analysis. This is the orientation phase. Level 2 is comprehensive in-depth reading; Level 3 involves systematic analysis using critiquing criteria; Level 4 involves synthesis and application to practice.

A charge nurse evaluating a study on fall prevention states: "This entire study is worthless - the researchers didn't control for patient acuity at all." According to the principles of research critique described in Chapter 3, what is problematic about this evaluation?

A. The nurse correctly identified a methodological flaw and should not apply the study to practice

B. The statement reflects criticism rather than critique - it focuses only on a flaw without acknowledging any strengths

C. The nurse should not evaluate research without a doctoral degree

D. Identifying uncontrolled variables is not an appropriate part of a research critique

Answer: B. The statement reflects criticism rather than critique - it focuses only on a flaw without acknowledging any strengths

Clearly distinguishes between criticism (purely fault-finding, subjective, dismissive) and critique (balanced, objective, scholarly evaluation of both strengths and limitations). The charge nurse's statement is one-sided and dismissive. A proper critique would acknowledge what the study did well while noting that the failure to control for patient acuity is a limitation affecting internal validity. Educational credentials are irrelevant to the distinction between critique and criticism (Option C is incorrect).

An oncology nurse wants to apply a study's findings on pain management to her unit's practice. She reads the full article and evaluates each section using LoBiondo-Wood and Haber's critiquing criteria. She then decides the evidence is strong enough to justify a practice change. Which level of critical reading does this FINAL decision represent?

A. Level 1 - Preliminary reading

B. Level 2 - Comprehensive reading

C. Level 3 - Analysis reading

D. Level 4 - Synthesis reading

Answer: D. Level 4 - Synthesis reading

Level 4 (synthesis) is the highest level of critical reading. It involves integrating the findings from the critique with existing knowledge, determining overall trustworthiness, and making practice-related decisions. The decision to implement a practice change based on the evaluated evidence is the defining act of synthesis-level reading. Level 3 is the analysis of individual sections; Level 4 is the integration and application of that analysis.

A nurse is appraising a randomized controlled trial (RCT) that compared two wound care protocols. The nurse finds that the reliability coefficient for the primary outcome instrument is reported as 0.62. How should the nurse interpret this finding?

A. The instrument's reliability is acceptable; 0.62 exceeds the standard threshold

B. The instrument's reliability is below the generally accepted threshold of 0.70, which is a methodological imitation

C. Reliability coefficients are not relevant when critiquing RCTs

D. A coefficient of 0.62 indicates perfect inter-rater reliability

Answer: B. The instrument's reliability is below the generally accepted threshold of 0.70, which is a methodological limitation

When critiquing quantitative research, a reliability coefficient (Cronbach's alpha, inter-rater reliability, test-retest) of ≥ 0.70 is the widely accepted minimum standard. A coefficient of 0.62 falls below this threshold, indicating the instrument may not consistently measure what it is intended to measure - this weakens confidence in the y's results and represents a methodological limitation that should be noted in the critique.

When critiquing the discussion section of a quantitative study, which of the following is the MOST important criterion to evaluate?

A. Whether the participants signed consent forms

B. Whether the sample size was calculated using power analysis

C. Whether the conclusions drawn by the researcher are consistent with and supported by the actual data

D. Whether the study used probability sampling

Answer: C. Whether the conclusions drawn by the researcher are consistent with & supported by actual data The discussion section critique ceriters on whether the researcher's interpretations, conclusions, and implications logically follow from the data presented in the results section. Overstating conclusions beyond what the data support is one of the most common and serious flaws in published research. Options A, B, and D are appropriate critiquing criteria for other sections (ethics, methods, and methods respectively), not the discussion section.

A bedside nurse is using the evidence hierarchy to guide an EBP decision about pressure injury prevention.

She finds a single well-designed RCT (Level II), two quasi-experimental studies (Level III), and one expert opinion piece (Level VII). What is the most appropriate interpretation of this evidence?

A. The expert opinion should carry the most weight because it reflects clinical experience

B. The quasi-experimental studies are the most reliable because there are two of them

C. The RCT provides the strongest individual study evidence; the quasi-experimental studies offer supporting evidence; expert opinion alone is insufficient

D. All levels of evidence are equal in strength when making EBP decisions

Answer: C. The RCT provides the strongest individual study evidence; the quasi-experimental studies offer supporting evidence; expert opinion alone is insufficient

The evidence hierarchy (Levels I-VII) ranks evidence by methodological rigor. Level II (single RCT) is stronger than Level Ill (quasi-experimental) and far stronger than Level VII (expert opinion). Expert opinion alone is the weakest form of evidence and should not be used as the basis for practice change when experimental evidence exists.

Two studies

aa lower level do not collectively outrank a single study at a higher level of the hierarchy.

Which of the following activities are associated with Level 3 (Analysis) critical reading? (Select all that apply)

A. Skimming the abstract and headings to get a general overview

B. Evaluating the logical consistency between the research problem and the chosen design

C. Assessing whether the correct statistical tests were used for the data type

D. Reading the full article carefully for the first time to achieve comprehension

E. Using published critique criteria to systematically evaluate each section

F. Determining whether the study's limitations are honestly acknowledged

Answers: B, C, E, F

A (X): Skimming thetabstract is Level 1 (preliminary reading)

B: Evaluating logical consistency between sections is core Level 3 analysis

C: Assessing appropriateness of statistics is a Level 3 analytical task

D (X): Reading carefully for the first time is Level 2 (comprehensive reading)

E: Using published critique guidelines is the hallmark of Level 3 analysis

F: Evaluating whether limitations are acknowledged is a Level 3 analysis criterion

A nursing student is critiquing the literature review section of a published study. Which of the following questions represent appropriate critiquing criteria for this section? (Select all that apply)

A. Are most sources published within the last 5 years (or seminal works older)?

B. Does the review use primarily primary sources rather than secondary sources?

C. Does the literature review end with a clear statement of the gap in knowledge?

D. Is the researcher's hypothesis confirmed by all sources cited?

E. Is the review organized logically, building support for the study's purpose?

F. Are both supporting and conflicting findings included?

Answers: A, B, C, E, F

A: Currency of sources (within 5 years; seminal works excepted) is a standard literature review criterion

B: Primary sources (original research reports) are required; secondary sources (textbooks) are less rigorous

C: Concluding with a clear knowledge gap is essential - it justifies conducting the new study

D (X): A good literature review should include contradictory findings, not just confirming ones - this criterion is incorrect

E: Logical organization and flow toward the study's purpose is a required criterion

F: Including conflicting findings demonstrates objectivity and scholarly balance

Which of the following are characteristics of a research critique as distinguished from a research criticism?

(Select all that apply)

A. Evaluates both strengths and limitations of the study

B. Uses objective, evidence-based language

C. Focuses exclusively on identifying flaws

D. Applies established, published critiquing criteria

E. Is constructive and aimed at advancing the science

F. Is appropriate for guiding evidence-based practice decisions

G. Dismisses the researcher's work based on a single identified flaw

Answers: A, B, D, E, F

A: Balance of strengths and limitations is the defining feature of a critique

B: Objectivity and evidence-based language are hallmarks of scholarly critique

C (X): Focusing exclusively on flaws is the definition of criticism, not critique

D: Established criteria guide a systematic, reliable critique

E: Constructive purpose - advancing science - distinguishes critique from mere fault-finding

F: Critique is explicitly the tool used to determine whether evidence should inform EBP

G (X): Dismissing work based on a single flaw is criticism, not critique

When critiquing the methods section of a quantitative study, which of the following are key elements a nurse should evaluate? (Select all that apply)

A. Whether the research design is appropriate for the stated research question

B. Whether IRB approval and informed consent procedures are documented

C. Whether the sample size is adequate and justified by power analysis

D. Whether the researcher's personal opinions are consistent with the findings

E. Whether instruments are described, including their validity and reliability

F. Whether data collection procedures are described with enough detail to allow replication

G. Whether inclusion and exclusion criteria for the sample are clearly stated

Answers: A, B, C, E, F, G

A: Design appropriateness is the first and most critical methods criterion

B: Ethical protections (IRB, informed consent) are required criteria in methods appraisal

C: Sample size adequacy and power analysis justify statistical conclusions

D (X): The researcher's personal opinions have no place in the methods critique - this is not an evaluation criterion

E: Instrument validity and reliability directly affect the trustworthiness of findings

F: Replicability requires sufficient procedural description - this is a key criterion

G: Clear eligibility criteria protect internal validity and allow assessment of generalizability

A nursing student is preparing a literature review on medication error prevention. She finds a textbook chapter that summarizes ten relevant studies on the topic. How should she classify this chapter and how should she use it?

A. It is a primary source and should be used as the primary evidence for her review

B. It is a secondary source and should be used sparingly; she should seek out the original research articles it references

C. It is a grey literature source and should be excluded from nursing research literature reviews

D. It is a peer-reviewed source and can substitute for the original studies since it summarizes them accurately

B. It is a secondary source and should be used sparingly; she should seek out the original research articles it references

A nurse manager searches CINAHL using: "central line" AND "bloodstream infection" AND "ICU". Which Boolean operator did she use, and what effect does it have on her search results?

A. OR - it broadens the search to include any record containing at least one of the three terms

B. NOT - it excludes records that mention ICU from the results

C. AND - it narrows the search to retrieve only records that contain all three terms simultaneously

D. AND - it increases the total number of results by combining all records from each term separately

C. AND - it narrows the search to retrieve only records that contain all three terms simultaneously

A clinical nurse is reviewing an article on probiotics for antibiotic-associated diarrhea. Before including it in her EBP literature review, she wants to verify its credibility. Which of the following is the MOST important criterion to check?

A. Whether the article is available for free online

B. Whether the article was published in a peer-reviewed journal and is indexed in CINAHL or PubMed

C. Whether the article is less than 10 years old

D. Whether the article was written by a nurse rather than a physician

B. Whether the article was published in a peer-reviewed journal and is indexed in CINAHL or PubMed

A nursing student retrieves 612 records from CINAHL, PubMed, and Cochrane, After screening, 100 full-text articles are assessed; 72 are excluded. She includes 28 studies in her final synthesis.

Which tool should she use to transparently document this identification, screening, and selection process?

A. A literature matrix (summary appraisal table)

B. An annotated bibliography

C. A PRISMA (Preferred Reporting Items for Systematic Reviews and Meta-Analyses) flow diagram

D. A Boolean search log

C. A PRISMA (Preferred Reporting Items for Systematic Reviews and Meta-Analyses) flow diagram

A charge nurse says: "For our EBP project on pressure injury prevention, I only need to search Google Scholar - it's comprehensive enough." Her colleague disagrees. Which response BEST explains why a systematic database search using CINAHL is essential?

A. Google Scholar is sufficient; it indexes all peer-reviewed nursing journals, so no additional database searching is needed

B. Google Scholar captures all the same sources as CINAHL and PubMed; multiple databases only create duplicates

C. CINAL Complete is the premier nursing database - Google Scholar does not consistently index peer-reviewed nursing literature, lacks advanced filtering tools, and cannot confirm peer-review status

D. The nurse should search only the Cochrane Library, as it is the only database that provides reliable evidence for clinical nursing questions

C. CINAL Complete is the premier nursing database - Google Scholar does not consistently index peer-reviewed nursing literature, lacks advanced filtering tools, and cannot confirm peer-review status

A nursing researcher wants to study the relationship between self-care behaviors and glycemic control in adult patients

with Type 2 diabetes. She selects Dorothea Orem's Self-Care Deficit Theory as her study framework. At which level of theory abstraction is Orem's Self-Care Deficit Theory classified?

A. Middle-range theory — it focuses on a specific population and is directly testable

B. Practice theory — it is limited to patients with Type 2 diabetes in outpatient settings

C. Grand theory — it is broad in scope, explains the whole of nursing, and is not directly testable

D. Situation-specific theory — it was developed for adults with chronic metabolic conditions only

C. Grand theory — it is broad in scope, explains the whole of nursing, and is not directly testable

-Rationale: Orem's Self-Care Deficit Theory is a Grand Theory — it broadly addresses the nature and mission of nursing across all populations and settings. Grand theories are highly abstract and not directly testable, but guide nursing practice philosophically

A researcher studying post-operative pain defines pain as 'an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associatedwith actual or potential tissue damage' (IASP, 2020). She then states: 'Pain will be measured using the patient's self-reported score on the Numeric Rating Scale (NRS, 0-10) at 30 minutes after surgery. Which of the following correctly identifies these two statements?

A. Both statements are operational definitions — both describe how pain will be measured

B. The first is a theoretical framework; the second is a research hypothesis

C. The first is a conceptual definition (what pain means theoretically); the second is an operational definition

(how pain will be measured)

D. The first is a grand theory; the second is a middle-range theory derived from it

C. The first is a conceptual definition (what pain means theoretically); the second is an operational definition

(how pain will be measured)

-Rationale: A conceptual definition explains what the concept means within a theoretical context. An operational definition specifies how

the concept will be measured. Both are required for every study variable — the operational definition must be consistent with and derived

from the conceptual definition

A nursing researcher observes that patients with strong family support systems have shorter hospital stays after cardiac surgery. She conducts interviews, analyzes themes, and develops a new theory about family support and cardiac recovery. Which type of reasoning does this approach exemplify?

A. Deductive reasoning — the researcher starts with an established theory and tests a hypothesis

B. Inductive reasoning — the researcher moves from specific clinical observations to general theoretical conclusions

C. Deductive reasoning — the researcher tests Roy's Adaptation Model with cardiac patients

D. Middle-range theory testing — the researcher applies Pender's Health Promotion Model to cardiac surgery

B. Inductive reasoning — the researcher moves from specific clinical observations to general theoretical conclusions

-Rationale: Inductive reasoning moves from specific observations and data to general theoretical conclusions. This is characteristic of

qualitative research, especially grounded theory. The researcher starts with clinical observation, identifies patterns, and builds a new theory

from the data.

A nursing student critiques a published study on fall prevention. She notes that the authors state they used the Health

Promotion Model, but the variables measured in the study (response time, staffing ratios, and unit layout) do not match any concepts within Pender's framework. Using the critiquing criteria from Chapter 5, what methodological concern has the student identified?

A. The study should have used a grand theory rather than a middle-range theory for a clinical topic

B. The theoretical framework was named but does not logically fit the study's variables, population, or problem — there is a lack of consistency between the framework and the study design

C. Pender's Health Promotion Model is too abstract to use in quantitative research and should only be used in qualitative

studies

D. The student is incorrect — any recognized nursing theory can be applied to any study regardless of fit

B. The theoretical framework was named but does not logically fit the study's variables, population, or problem — there is a lack of consistency between the framework and the study design

-Rationale: A key criterion in critiquing a theoretical framework is logical consistency between the framework's concepts and the study's

variables, design, and population. When the framework is named but its concepts do not match what is studied, it indicates the framework

was not appropriately selected or applied — a significant methodological limitation.

A staff nurse on an oncology unit notices that many of her patients express uncertainty about their diagnosis, treatment outcomes, and future quality of life. She wants to use a nursing theory to guide a study on how patients manage this uncertainty. Which theory would be MOST appropriate as a framework for this study?

A. Roy's Adaptation Model — because patients must adapt to the stressor of uncertainty

B. Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness Theory — because it was specifically developed to explain how patients

experience and respond to uncertainty about illness

C. Orem's Self-Care Deficit Theory — because patients with uncertainty have a self-care deficit

D. Rogers' Science of Unitary Human Beings — because uncertainty affects the whole person

B. Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness Theory — because it was specifically developed to explain how patients

experience and respond to uncertainty about illness

- Rationale: Mishel's Uncertainty in Illness Theory is a middle-range theory developed specifically to explain uncertainty in patients facing

illness — addressing how uncertainty is appraised, coped with, and adapted to. It is the most precise and appropriate fit for this research

problem

Qualitative research is BEST described as a systematic approach designed to:

A. Test cause-and-effect relationships between variables

B. Describe life experiences and give them meaning

C. Predict outcomes using large random samples

D. Measure nursing interventions with statistical precision

B. Describe life experiences and give them meaning

The philosophical foundation of qualitative research is called the:

A. positivist paradigm

B. Naturalistic paradigm

C. empiricist paradigm

D. deterministic paradigm

B. Naturalistic paradigm

In qualitative research, sample size is primarily guided by:

A. power analysis

B. statistical significance

C. data saturation

D. random number tables

C. data saturation

Which of the following questions is MOST appropriate for a qualitative study?

A. what is the mean pain score for post-surgical pts?

B. does a mindfulness intervention reduce nurse burnout scores?

C. is there a significant correlation between staffing ratios and falls?

D. what is the lived experience of pts receiving a terminal cancer diagnosis?

D. what is the lived experience of pts receiving a terminal cancer diagnosis?

The concept of "bracketing" in qualitative research refers to:

A. selecting a sample using random number tables

B. setting aside the researcher's preconceptions before data collection

C. applying statistical controls to reduce cofounding

D. organizing data into numerical categories

B. setting aside the researcher's preconceptions before data collection

Qualitative research contributes to evidence-based practice by: (SATA)

A. identifying pt values and preferences

B. explaining barriers to implementing evidence

C. establishing statistical generalizations

D. generating hypotheses for quantitative testing

A. identifying pt values and preferences

B. explaining barriers to implementing evidence

D. generating hypotheses for quantitative testing

The criterion of CREDIBILITY in qualitative research is most analogous to which quantitative concept?

A. reliability

B. external validity

C. internal validity

D. statistical power

C. internal validity

A researcher studying ICU nurses' experiences with moral distress keeps a detailed journal of all decisions made during the study. This strategy supports which criterion of rigor?

A. credibility

B. transferability

C. dependability/confirmability

D. statistical reliability

C. dependability/confirmability

Which statement about qualitative research and EBP is MOST accurate?

A. qualitative research is too subjective to inform EBP

B. qualitative research provides Level I evidence equal to RCTs

C. systematic reviews of qualitative studies represent Level V evidence and are valued in EBP

D. qualitative research should always be conducted before quantitative studies

C. systematic reviews of qualitative studies represent Level V evidence and are valued in EBP

which of the following is a characteristic of qualitative research (SATA)?

A. inductive reasoning

B. small, purposive samples

C. standardized numerical measurement

D. emphasis on meaning and context

A. inductive reasoning

B. small, purposive samples

D. emphasis on meaning and context

A nurse researcher studies the meaning of "dignity in dying" by interviewing 8 hospice patients about their experiences. This BEST represents which qualitative tradition?

A. grounded theory

B. ethnography

C. phenomenology

D. case study

C. phenomenology

The purpose of grounded theory research is to:

A. describe the cultural beliefs of a group

B. generate a theory that explains a social process or interaction

C. explore the meaning of a lived experience for participants

D. conduct an in-depth study of a single organization

B. generate a theory that explains a social process or interaction

A researcher spends 6 months working as a staff nurse in an oncology unit while simultaneously collecting data. This approach is MOST consistent with which tradition?

A. phenomenology

B. grounded theory

C. ethnography

D. CBPR

C. ethnography

In grounded theory, "theoretical sampling" means:

A. randomly selecting participants from a theoretical population

B. using a sampling frame based on demographic theory

C. selecting participants who match a theoretical prototype

D. expanding the sample as the emerging theory directs

D. expanding the sample as the emerging theory directs

In community-based participatory research (CBPR), the community members are:

A. co-researchers who participates in all phases of the study

B. passive subjects recruited for convenience

C. informants who validate the researcher's observations

D. subjects assigned to experimental or control groups

A. co-researchers who participates in all phases of the study

Which of the following are TRUE about phenomenological research? (SATA):

A. it focuses on describing the lived experience of a phenomenon

B. bracketing is used to set aside researcher preconceptions

C. the sample is drawn using random assignment

D. colaizzi's method is commonly used for analysis in nursing research

A. it focuses on describing the lived experience of a phenomenon

B. bracketing is used to set aside researcher preconceptions

D. colaizzi's method is commonly used for analysis in nursing research

Which qualitative analysis process involves labeling meaningful segments of text with descriptive words?

A. triangulation

B. eidetic reduction

C. bracketing

D. coding

D. coding

An exploratory sequential mixed methods design proceeds in which order?

A. qualitative data collection --> quantitative buildings on findings

B. quantitative data collection --> qualitative explanation of results

C. simultaneous collection of quantitative and qualitative data

D. quantitative and qualitative data analyzed independently, then compared

A. qualitative data collection --> quantitative buildings on findings

Which of the following strategies support CREDIBILITY in qualitative research? (SATA)

A. member checking

B. prolonged engagement

C. peer debriefing

D. random sampling

A. member checking

B. prolonged engagement

C. peer debriefing

thick description in qualitative research serves primarily to support which criterion of trustworthiness?

A. credibility

B. confirmability

C. dependability

D. transferability

D. transferability

When critically appraising a qualitative study, the quantitative concept of "internal validity" is MOST closely replaced by which qualitative criterion?

A. transferability

B. dependability

C. confirmability

D. credibility

D. credibility

A nurse researcher finds that a published study uses ethnographic methods to answer the question "What is the lived experience of ICU pts during weaning from mechanical ventilation? This represents:

A. appropriate design selection

B. a design-question mismatch: phenomenology would better fit this question

C. a design-question mismatch: grounded theory would better fit

D. an example of mixed methods research

B. a design-question mismatch: phenomenology would better fit this question

Which appraisal criterion asks: "Is there sufficient detailed description of the context so readers can judge applicability of findings to their own setting?"

A. credibility

B. member checking

C. confirmability transferability/thick description

D. transferability/thick description

D. transferability/thick description

Which of the following is the MOST important indicator that qualitative findings are well-supported?

A. each theme is illustrated with direct participant quotes

B. a large sample size was used

C. the study was funded by the NIH

D. a random sample was drawn from the target population

A. each theme is illustrated with direct participant quotes

A systematic integration of findings across multiple qualitative studies that produces new interpretations is called:

A. systematic review

B. meta-analysis

C. content analysis

D. meta-synthesis

D. meta-synthesis

Which of the following are considered common methodological flaws in qualitative research? (SATA)

A. using a random rather than purposive sample

B. failure to address researcger reflexivity

C. premature closure (ending data collection before saturation)

D. themes described without supporting participant quotes

B. failure to address researcger reflexivity

C. premature closure (ending data collection before saturation)

D. themes described without supporting participant quotes

a single qualitative study that is critically appraised and deemed rigorous is classified at which level of evidence?

A. level II

B. level IV

C. level VI

D. level V

C. level VI

When appraising a grounded theory study, which of the following should the appraiser specifically look for? (SATA)

A. evidence that theoretical sampling was used

B. use of colazzi's seven step analysis method

C. identification of a core category or substantive theory

D. description of constant comparative analysis

A. evidence that theoretical sampling was used

C. identification of a core category or substantive theory

D. description of constant comparative analysis

A nurse wants to use qualitative evidence to improve care for pts receiving a new cancer diagnosis. Which question would qualitative research BEST answer?

A. what do pts need most from nurses immediately following a cancer diagnosis?

B. does a structured communication protocol reduce pt anxiety scores?

C. what is the average time nurses spend with newly diagnosed pts?

D. is there a significant correlation between nurse experience and pt satisfaction scores?

A. what do pts need most from nurses immediately following a cancer diagnosis?

The document that introduced respect for persons, beneficence, and justice is the:

A Nuremberg Code

B Declaration of Helsinki

C Belmont Report

D HIPAA Privacy Rule

C Belmont Report

Voluntary, informed agreement to participate in research, free of coercion, is called:

A Assent

B Informed consent

C Debriefing

D Confidentiality

B Informed consent

A study posing greater than minimal risk to participants requires which level of IRB review?

A Exempt review

B Expedited review

C Full board review

D No review is needed

C Full board review

The Tuskegee Syphilis Study is historically important because it:

A Was the first randomized trial

B Led to U.S. laws protecting human subjects

C Created the HIPAA Privacy Rule

D Proved penicillin was unsafe

B Led to U.S. laws protecting human subjects

The principle requiring researchers to maximize benefits and minimize harm is:

A Justice

B Autonomy

C Beneficence

D Anonymity

C Beneficence

When a minor agrees to take part while a parent gives permission, the minor's agreement is called:

A Consent

B Assent

C A waiver

D Compliance

B Assent

Collecting data so that even the researcher cannot link responses to a participant describes:

A Confidentiality

B Anonymity

C Beneficence

D Fidelity

B Anonymity

Which are the three principles of the Belmont Report? Select ALL that apply.

A Respect for persons

B Beneficence

C Justice

D Profitability

A Respect for persons

B Beneficence

C Justice

Which populations are considered vulnerable and need added protection? Select ALL that apply.

A Children

B Prisoners

C Cognitively impaired adults

D Healthy, salaried physicians

A Children

B Prisoners

C Cognitively impaired adults

Which elements must be disclosed during informed consent? Select ALL that apply.

A Study purpose and procedures

B Risks and potential benefits

C The right to withdraw at any time

D The researcher's personal salary

A Study purpose and procedures

B Risks and potential benefits

C The right to withdraw at any time

Federally defined research misconduct includes: Select ALL that apply.

A Fabrication

B Falsification

C Plagiarism

D Honest error or differing opinions

A Fabrication

B Falsification

C Plagiarism

When appraising the ethics of a study, the nurse confirms that, Select ALL that apply.

A IRB / ethics approval is reported

B Informed consent was obtained

C Rights and confidentiality were protected

D The sample exceeded 1,000 people

A IRB / ethics approval is reported

B Informed consent was obtained

C Rights and confidentiality were protected