1. Osteology 1-99

Femur is a long bone.

A. Yes B. No

A

(There are 5 types of bones in the human body. These are long bones, short bones, flatbones, irregular bones and sesmoid bones. Each long bone has an elongated shaft or diaphysis and two expanded ends (epiphyses) which are smooth and articular. The shaft typically has 3 surfaces separated by 3 borders, a central medullary cavity, and a nutrient foramen directed away from the growing end. Most bones of the limbs, including those of the fingers and toes, are long bones. The exceptions are those of the wrist, ankle and kneecap.)

Scapula is a long bone.

A. Yes B. No

B

(Flat bones are as they sound,strong, flat plates of bone with the main function of providing protection to the bodies vital organs and being a base for muscular attachment. the classic example of a flat bone is the Scapula (shoulder blade). The Sternum (breast bone), Cranium (skull), os coxae (hip bone) Pelvis and Ribs are also classified as flat bones. Anterior and Posterior surfaces are formed of compact bone to provide strength for protection with the centre consisting of cancellous (spongy) bone and varying amounts of bone marrow. In adults, the highest number of red blood cells are formed in flat bones.)

Sacrum is a short bone.

A. Yes B. No

B

(Irregular bones in the body are these which do not fall into any other category, due to their non-uniform shape. Good examples of these are the vertebrae, sacrum, hip bone, and bones in the base of the skull. They primarily consist of cancellous bone, with a thin outer layer of compact bone. Certain irregular bones (called Pneumatic Bones) contain large air spaces lined by epithelium. Eamples: maxilla, sphenoid, ethmoid, etc. they make the skull light in weight, help resonance of voice, and act as air conditioning chambers for the inspired air.)

Scaphoid is a flat bone.

A. Yes B. No

B

(Short bones are defined as being approximately as wide as they are long and have a primary function of providing support and stability with little movement. Examples of short bones are Carpels and Tarsals - the wrist and foot bones. They consist of only a thin layer of compact, hard bone with cancellous bone on the inside along with relatively large amounts of red bone marrow.)

Patella (knee cap) is a sesamoid bone.

A. Yes B. No

A

(Sesamoid Bones are bony nodules found embedded in the tendons or joint capsules. They have no periostem and ossify after birth. They are related to an articular ot nonarticular bony surface, and the surfaces of contact are covered with hyaline cartilage and lubricated by a bursa or synovial membrane.)

The clavicle possesses a rougher upper surface.

A. Yes B. No

B

The scapula possesses an articular surface on its lateral angle.

A. Yes B. No

A

The fibula is taking part in the formation of the knee joint.

A. Yes B. No

B

(The knee joint joins the thigh with the leg and consists of two articulations: one between the femur and tibia, and one between the femur and patella.)

The radius is the bone of the antebrachium that located on the same side as the thumb.

A. Yes B. No

A

Among the prominent bone markings of the scapula are the

A. supraspinous fossa, patellar fossa, iliac fossa

B. superoir border, medial angle, inferior border

C. coracoid process, acromion proces, scapular spine

D. olecranon process, coronoid process, styloid process

C

The component bones of the pectoral girdle include

A. ilium and pubis

B. clavicle and scapula

C. scapula and humerus

D. radius and ulna

B

The structures of the humerus that accept projections of the ulna in flexion and extension are

A. intertubercular groove, radial groove

B. coronoid fossa, olecrannon fossa

C. medial epicondyle, lateral epicondyle

D. adial fossa, trochlear notch

B

The growth in length of a bone is at the

A. articular cartilage

B. center of the shaft

C. diaphyseal line

D. epiphyseal plate

D

(The epiphyseal plate is a hyline cartilage plate in the metaphysis at each end of a long bone. The plate is found in children and adolescents; in adults, who have stopped growing, the plate is replaced by an rpiphyseal line.)

A structural feature of a typical cervical vertebra is

A. a transverse foramen

B. a dens

C. a long spinous process

D. a fovea

A

(Only the cervical vertebrae have three openings or foramina- the vertebral foramina and two transverse foramina. A characteristic feature of the vertaebrae C2 to C6 is a projection known as the bifid spinous process.)

The head of the femur articulates with the

A. glenoid cavity

B. acetabulum

C. obturator foramen

D. patella

B

Among the prominent bone markings of the tibia are the

A. interochanteric line, interochanteric crest, patellar surface

B. anterior crest, tibial tuberosity, medial malleolus

C. lateral malleolus, anterior crest, interosseous crest

D. medial malleolus, lateral malleolus, tibial crest

The two proximal carpals that articulate with the radius in making the wrist joints are the:

A. scaphoid and lunate

B. triangular (triquetrum) and pisiform

C. lunate and pisiform

A

The medial malleolus is a process on the

A. tibia

B. calcaneus

C. fibula

D. talus

A

The roughened vertical ridge on the posterior surface of the femoral shaft is the

A. greater trochanter

B. linea aspera

C. patellar surface

D. fovea capitis

Which portion of the sternum attaches to the greatest number of ribs?

A. manubrium

B. body

C. xiphoid process

D. all attach to the same number

B

(The second through tenth pairs of ribs attach to the body.)

Sulcus nervi ulnaris is placed:

A. on the shaft (body) of the humerus

B. behind the lateral epicondyle of humerus

C. on the shaft (body) of the ulna

D. behind the medial epicondyle of humerus

D

What are the names of the bones in the human thumb?

A. Condyle and meniscus

B. Middle and distal phalanges

C. Proximal and distal phalanges

D. Trapezoid and hamate

C

Where in the body can the pisiform bone be found?

A. Ankle

B. Wrist

C. Coccyx

D. Spine

B

What is the more familiar name for the thoracic cage?

A. Rib cage

B. Hand

C. Ankles

D. Skull

E. Hands

A

Where in the human body would you find the cuneiform bones?

A. Throat

B. Hand

C. Pelvis

D. Foot

D

What is the coxal bone also known as?

A. Elbow

B. Hib bone

C. Knuckle

D. Shin

B

Where in the human body can sesamoid bones be found?

A. Heart

B. Muscles

C. Tendons

D. Shoulder

C

How many bones are there in the human body?

A. 39

B. 94

C. 206

D. 215

C

What type of bone are the pisiform and the patella?

A. Cortical

B. Cancellous

C. Spongy

D. Sesamoid

D

A vitamin D deficiency can cause:

A. Enamel hypoplasia

B. Rickets

C. Lack of sunlight

D. Scurvy

B

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

A. 2

B. 5

C. 7

D. 10

7

How may thoracic vertebrae are there?

A. 7

B. 10

C. 12

D. 15

C

How many lumbar vertebrae are there?

A. 2 fused

B. 3

C. 5

D. 7

C

How many sacral vertebrae are there?

A. 2 fused

B. 5 unfused

C. 5 fused

D. 7 fused

C

How many coccygeal vertebrae are there?

A. 2 fused

B. 4 fused

C. 7 fused

D. 2 unfused

B

Choose the surface feature that represents a depression in a bone.

A. fossa

B. process

C. facet

D. condyle

A

The medullary cavity of a long bone is lined with a thin layer of connective tissue called the __________.

A. diaphysis

B. endosteum

C. periostem

D. epiphysis

B

_____________ are the type of bone cell that tears down bone during the building and remodeling process.

A. osteocytes

B. osteoblasts

C. osteoclasts

D. bone lining cells

C

Cervical vertebrae differ from lumber in all these aspects except ________.

A. size

B. bifid spinous process

C. presence of transverse foramina

D. presence of transverse processes

D

What portion of the scapula articulates with the clavicle?

A. acromion

B. glenoid cavity

C. spine

D. scapular notch

A

What location on the humerus is the site of frequent fractues?

A. anatomical neck

B. surgical neck

C. intertubercular groove

D. deltoid tuberosity

B

The _________ of the humerus receives a process by the same name that comprises the outer elbow bone.

A. coronoid fossa

B. deltoid tuberosity

C. trochlea

D. olecranon fossa

D

What portion of the radius articulates with the capitulum of the humerus?

A. styloid process

B. tuberosity of radius

C. head

D. ulnar notch

C

Which carpel bone articulates with the first metacarpel?

A. capitate

B. hamate

C. trapezoid

D. trapezium

D

How many phalanges are present in each hand?

A. 28

B. 14

C. 15

D. 30

B

At which location do the three bones of the ossa coxae ossify?

A. greater pelvis

B. acetabulum

C. pelvic brim

D. pelvic inlet

B

Through which point of the pelvic girdle does the sciatic nerve pass to the leg?

A. greater sciatic notch

B. anterior sacral foramen

C. obturator foramen

D. acetabular notch

A

What is the point of attachment for the patellar ligament on the tibia?

A. intercondylar eminence

B. medial condyle

C. tibial tuberosity

D. anterior crest

C

What process makes up the outer ankle "bone"?

A. medial malleolus of tibia

B. lateral malleolus of fibula

C. lateral epicondyle of tibia

D. head of fibula

B

Which tarsal bone articulates with the first metatarsal bone of the foot?

A. cuboid

B. lateral cuneiform

C. medial cuneiform

D. intermediate cuneiform

C

During the healing of a bone fracture, what is the final step in the healing process?

A. hematoma

B. remodeling of the bony callus

C. phagocyte activity

D. formation of bony callus

B

Bones that form in tendons in response to stress are called.

A. cartilaginous bones

B. sesamoid bones

C. latent bones

D. spongy bones

B

Which of the following is (are) not a part of the axial skeleton?

A. skull

B. ribs

C. os coxae

D. both B and C

C

Which of the following is not a part of the appendicular skeleton?

A. the vertebral column

B. the patella

C. the clavicle

D. the femur

A

Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?

A. support

B. hemopoiesis

C. mineral storage

D. coordination

D

Which of the following is (are) not protected by the skeletal system ?

A. liver

B. heart

C. muscles

D. central nervous system

C

Bone is primarily composed of:

A. phosphorous

B. calcium

C. magnesium

D. both A and B

D

In function, the skeletal system is most closely associated with the:

A. muscular system

B. mineral system

C. Nervous system

D. urinary system

A

Which of the following is not one of the categories of bone shape?

A. long bones

B. flat bones

C. thick bones

D. short bones

E. sesamoid bones

C

A facet is described as a:

A. marked bony prominence

B. sharp, slender process

C. flattened or shallow articulating surface

D. projection adjacent to a condyle

C

A small pit or depression on a bone is referred to as a:

A. fossa (big)

B. fissure

C. fovea (small)

D. meatus

C

Red bone marrow within certain long bones is in contact with the:

A. articular cartilage

B. endostem

C. epiphyseal plate

D. periostem

B

Large bone cells that enzymatically break down bone tissuse and that play an important role in bone growth, remodeling, and healing are known as:

A. osteogenic cells

B. osteoblasts

C. osteocytes

D. osteoclasts

E. bone-lining cells

D

Osteocytes within compact bone tissue are located in minute capsules, or spaces, known as:

A. lacunae

B. osteons

C. lamellae

D. trabeculae

E. sinuses

A

In compact bone, the matrix is laid down in concentric rings called:

A. osteons

B. lamellae

C. canaliculi

D. trabeculae

B

____________ builds up bone, while __________ breaks down bone.

A. Meatus/marrow

B. Osteoblast activity/ osteoclast activity

C. Epiphysis/diaphysis

D. Diaphysis/epiphysis

B

Calcification is the process of:

A. ossification

B. osteoporosis

C. growth

D. mitosis

A

_____________ is the process by which minerals are deposited in the matrix of cartilaginous bone tissue.

A. ossification

B. hardening

C. calcification

D. deposition

C

Spongy bone develops at the __________ ________ centers.

A. bone marow

B. histological zone

C. primary ossification

D. secondary ossification

D

A(n) ______________ consists of five histological zones.

A. Epiphyseal plate

B. primary ossification center

C. secondary ossification center

D. cartilage ring

A

The ___________ is a reigon of transformation from cartilage tissue to bone tissue.

A. ossification zone

B. calcification zone

C. cartilage ring

D. none of the above

A

Which of the following is not one of the four curvatures of the vertebral column?

A. branchial curve

B. thoracic curve

C. cervical curve

D. lumbar curve

A

Processes that limit the twisting of the vertebral column are the:

A. spinous processes

B. transverse processes

C. lateral processes

D. articular processes

D

Which of the follow is (are) not considered part of the rib cage?

A. clavicles

B. false ribs

C. sternum

D. costal cartilages

A

The three components of the sternum, listed from superior to inferior in position, are:

A. xiphoid process, sternal angle, costal notch

B. manubrium, body, xiphoid process

C. jugular notch, clavicular notch, costal notch

D. body, manubrium, clavicular notch

B

Certain structures are common to all ribs; for example;a:

A. tubercle

B. head

C. neck

D. both b and c

D

Osteoporosis, the disorder characterized by weakening of bones, primarily as a result of calcium loss, is most common in which group?

A. postmenopausal women

B. elderly men

C. children

D. all adults

A

The most virulent type of bone cancer, which frequently metasizes through the blood to the lungs, is:

A. osteoid osteomas

B. osteoma

C. osteogenic sacroma

D. none; bone cancer is not virulent

C

A fissure is defined as:

A. a deep pit or socket

B. a rounded opening through a bone

C. a groove that accommodates a vessel, nerve, or tendon

D. a narrow, slitlike opening

D

Which of the following is found only on the femur?

A. tubercle

B. trochanter

C. tuberosity

D. head

B

Which of the following associations is not correct?

A. endosteum/yellow bone marrow

B. medullary cavity/ endosteum

C. medullary cavity/ periosteum

D. red bone marrow/ spongy bone

C

Which of the followig secures the periosteum to the bone?

A. perforating fibres

B. epiphyseal plate

C. endosteum

D. diploe

A

Trabeculae

A. are found in spongy bone

B. give spongy bone a latticework appearance

C. are found in compact bone

D. both A and B

D

Which of the following is a primary curve of the vertebral column?

A. cervical

B. lumber

C. thoracic

D. pelvic

D. both C and D

E

Which is not a characteristic of lumbar vertebrae?

A. thin, long spinous processes

B. tranverse foramina

C. large bodies

D. thick spinous processes

E. both A and B

E

Which is not part of the appendicular skeleton? (T/F)

A. vertebral column

B. patella

C. clavicle

D. os coxae

E. skull

A=T,B=F,C=F,D=F,E=T

All of the following are functions of the skeletal system (T/F)

A. suppport

B. blood cell production

C. calcium storage

D. excretion

E. respiration

A=T,B=T,C=T,D=F,E=F

Osteoclasts (T/F)

A. deposit calcium into bone.

B. destroy bone matrix.

C. are a type of white blood cell.

D. A and C are correct.

E. A and B are correct.

A=F,B=T,C=T,D=F,E=F

All of the following are bones of the thorax (T/F)

A. clavicle

B. sternum

C. true ribs

D. false ribs

E. sacrum

A=F,B=T,C=T,D=T,E=F

The bone of the upper limb is the: (T/F)

A. radius

B. ulna

C. humerus

D. femur

E. talus

A=T,B=T,C=T,D=F,D=F

The bone of the upper limb is the: (T/F)

A. radius

B. ulna

C. humerus

D. femur

E. lunate

A=T,B=T,C=T,D=F,D=T

The ribs (T/F)

A. are the bones forming the lateral thoracic wall

B. are 14 pairs

C. are several types described as typical or "true" ribs, "false" ribs, "floating" ribs

D. have many features in common: head, neck, tubercle, angle, body, costal groove

E. known as "floating" are attached to the sternum

A=T,B=F,C=T,D=T,E=F

Ilium (T/F)

A. is a fan-shaped bone that forms the lateral prominence of the pelvis

B. is one of three bones that form the os coxae

C. has a body that participates in the formation of the glenoid cavity

D. has an anterior superior iliac crest

E. has arcuate line which is inferior boundary of the iliac fossa

A=T,B=T,C=F,D=T,E=T

The phalanges are (T/F)

A. long bones

B. short bones

C. are 13

D. are 14

E. are 15

A=T,B=F,C=F,D=T,E=F

The hip bone (os coxae) consists of (T/F)

A. os coccygis

B. os pubis

C. os ischii

D. os sacrum

E. os ilium

A=F,B=T,C=T,D=F,E=T

The elemnets in the proximal end of radius are

A. processus styloideus

B. circumferentia articularis

C. incisura radialis ulnae (radial notch)

D. tuberositas radii

E. fovea articularis

A=F,B=T,C=F,D=T,E=T

In the adult vertebral column (T/F)

A. the primary curves are in the thoracic and sacral region

B. there is more flexion and extension in the lumbar region than in the thoracic region

C. there is more rotation about a longitudinal axis in the throacic region than in the lumbar region

D. the transverse processes are posterior to the articular processes in all the vertebrae

E. the shape of the intervertebral discs contributes to the secondary curves.

A=T,B=T,C=T,D=F,E=T

Lumber vertebrae show the following features (T/F)

A. they have flat articular processes

B. their transverse processes become progressively longer from above downwards

C. the plane of the joints between the articular processes is sagittal

A=F,B=F,C=T

In the thoracic vertebrae (T/F)

A. all the spinous processes are long and point downwards

B. all the transverse processes have articular facets for the ribs

C. all the bodies have two articular facets on each side for the ribs

D. the transverse processes increase in length from above downwards

E. all the superior articular processes are more or less in the coronal (frontal ) plane.

A=F,B=F,C=F,D=F,E=T