National Pesticide Applicator Certification Core Manual - Ch 4 - Pesticide Formulations

What is the term for the actual chemical within a product mixture that controls the pest? A) Inert Ingredient B) Adjuvant C) Active Ingredient D) Carrier Material

C) Active Ingredient. This is the definition of the active ingredient, which performs the pest control function.

Which characteristic is typically associated with a pesticide solution when mixed with water? A) Requires constant agitation B) Appears opaque or milky C) Truly dissolves and is usually transparent D) Settles out quickly

C) Truly dissolves and is usually transparent. A solution is formed when a liquid or dry substance completely dissolves in water, much like sugar.

Why might inert ingredients be added to a pesticide product? A) To increase its flammability B) To make the active ingredient less effective C) For ease of handling and to make measuring easier D) To cause more rapid deterioration of application equipment

C) For ease of handling and to make measuring easier. Inert ingredients are added to provide for safety, make handling easier, and improve the active ingredient's performance.

True or False: An adjuvant is always sold separately from the pesticide product and never incorporated into the formulation.

False. An adjuvant can be a formulation additive or an additive sold separately to mix with the product when tank mixing.

What does the abbreviation "80SP" in a pesticide product name primarily indicate? A) 80 pounds of active ingredient per gallon B) 80% active ingredient by volume C) 80% active ingredient by weight in a soluble powder formulation D) 80 units of pesticide per spray

C) 80% active ingredient by weight in a soluble powder formulation. This code indicates the percentage of active ingredient and the type of formulation.

Which disadvantage is most uniquely associated with emulsifiable concentrates (ECs) compared to many other formulations? A) High drift hazard B) Requires constant agitation C) Phytotoxicity due to petroleum-based solvents D) Attractiveness to children and pets

C) Phytotoxicity due to petroleum-based solvents. ECs can cause plant injury and may damage treated surfaces because of their solvents.

A mixture where fine solid particles are suspended in a liquid and will settle if undisturbed, often requiring agitation, is known as a: A) Solution B) Emulsion C) Suspension D) Homogenized liquid

C) Suspension. Suspensions consist of solid particles dispersed in a liquid, which will settle unless agitated.

Which type of liquid formulation is almost 100% active ingredient and is primarily used in agriculture, forestry, or mosquito control? A) Ready-to-Use (RTU) B) Emulsifiable Concentrate (EC) C) Solution (S) D) Ultra-Low Volume (ULV)

D) Ultra-Low Volume (ULV). ULV formulations are special-purpose concentrates with very high active ingredient percentages.

True or False: Wettable powders (WPs) generally leave no visible residue on treated surfaces.

False. Wettable powders typically leave visible residues on treated surfaces.

What is a specific disadvantage of using baits for pest control, particularly in areas accessible to the public? A) They require highly specialized application equipment. B) They are difficult to confine to the target site. C) They may be attractive to children, domestic animals, and wildlife. D) They pose a high inhalation exposure risk to the applicator.

C) They may be attractive to children, domestic animals, and wildlife. This makes careful placement and inspection crucial for baits.

Which dry formulation type is often formulated into granular-sized particles, making them easier to handle with less inhalation hazard than wettable powders? A) Dusts (D) B) Soluble Powders (SP) C) Water-dispersible Granules (WDG) or Dry Flowables (DF) D) Baits (B)

C) Water-dispersible Granules (WDG) or Dry Flowables (DF). These are similar to wettable powders but are granulated, reducing inhalation hazard.

The consistency of mayonnaise is characteristic of which type of liquid formulation? A) Flowables (F) B) Invert Emulsions C) Solutions (S) D) Ready-to-Use (RTU)

B) Invert Emulsions. These are described as having the consistency of mayonnaise.

Which type of adjuvant is primarily used to allow petroleum-based pesticides to mix with water? A) Buffers B) Stickers/Extenders C) Emulsifiers D) Safeners

C) Emulsifiers. Emulsifiers help oil-based active ingredients mix with water to form stable emulsions.

True or False: Jar tests are primarily used to determine the compatibility of different pesticide products when tank mixing.

True. Jar tests help check for physical incompatibility, such as heat, clumping, or precipitation, before full-scale mixing.

What does the abbreviation "1EC" in a product name signify? A) 1% Emulsifiable Concentrate B) 1 pound active ingredient per gallon in an emulsifiable concentrate C) 1 gallon of active ingredient D) 1 part emulsifier to 1 part concentrate

B) 1 pound active ingredient per gallon in an emulsifiable concentrate. This is a common way to express the concentration of active ingredient in liquid formulations.

Which formulation typically contains a small amount of active ingredient, often 1% or less per unit volume, and is ready to use without further dilution? A) Ultra-Low Volume (ULV) B) Emulsifiable Concentrate (EC) C) Ready-to-Use (RTU) Low Concentrate Solutions D) Flowable (F)

C) Ready-to-Use (RTU) Low Concentrate Solutions. These products are pre-diluted and require no further mixing.

What is a common disadvantage of aerosol formulations? A) Requires significant agitation B) High potential for drift and runoff C) Difficult to confine to a target site or pest D) Leaves considerable residue

C) Difficult to confine to a target site or pest. Aerosols, especially those from smoke or fog generators, are challenging to keep contained.

True or False: Soluble powders (SPs) generally have a high inhalation hazard during mixing.

True. Because they are finely ground powders, soluble powders can pose an inhalation hazard.

Which type of formulation is often encased in a protective coating to allow for timed release of the active ingredient? A) Granules (G) B) Wettable Powders (WP) C) Microencapsulated D) Baits (B)

C) Microencapsulated. These formulations feature an active ingredient enclosed in small coatings for controlled release.

What is a key advantage of liquid solutions (S) in terms of equipment? A) Abrasive to pumps and nozzles B) Easy on equipment and unlikely to plug screens C) Requires specialized equipment for application D) Causes deterioration of rubber and plastic hoses

B) Easy on equipment and unlikely to plug screens. Solutions do not contain abrasive particles and fully dissolve, making them gentle on equipment.

A pesticide that is active as a poisonous gas and penetrates cracks, crevices, and stored commodities is typically a: A) Systemic B) Fumigant C) Repellent D) Attractant

B) Fumigant. Fumigants are unique in their gaseous form for pest control in enclosed spaces.

22.

True or False: All product labels will explicitly recommend the addition of an adjuvant for optimal performance.

False. While labels often recommend adjuvants, some may prohibit their use, and many pesticide products already contain an adjuvant.

What is the typical active ingredient percentage by weight range for soluble powders (SPs)? A) Less than 1% B) 2% to 15% C) 15% to 95% D) Almost 100%

C) 15% to 95%. Soluble powders usually contain a high percentage of active ingredient, often more than 50%.

What happens if agitation ceases in a spray tank containing a wettable powder (WP) formulation? A) The active ingredient becomes inactive. B) The solution will remain transparent. C) The powder will quickly settle out. D) The mixture will turn white.

C) The powder will quickly settle out. Wettable powders are suspensions that require constant agitation to keep particles dispersed.

Which formulation type is characterized by active ingredients being absorbed into or coated onto coarse, ready-to-use particles, and is generally not intended to be mixed with water? A) Dusts (D) B) Soluble Powders (SP) C) Granules (G) D) Wettable Powders (WP)

C) Granules (G). Granules are coarser than dusts and are applied dry, without mixing with water.

What does "phytotoxicity" specifically refer to in the context of pesticide application? A) Plant damage B) Pest resistance C) Soil contamination D) Human skin irritation

A) Plant damage. Phytotoxicity is defined as plant damage caused by the pesticide.

Which type of adjuvant increases the viscosity (thickness) of spray mixtures, helping to reduce drift and slow evaporation? A) Wetting agents B) Buffers C) Thickeners D) Compatibility agents

C) Thickeners. Thickeners are designed to increase the consistency of the spray solution.

True or False: Liquid baits are only effective against ants and are not used for rodent control.

False. Liquid baits are used for controlling both sugar-feeding ants and rodents, particularly where water is scarce.

What is a significant drawback of Ultra-Low Volume (ULV) formulations that necessitates specialized equipment? A) They are highly corrosive to application equipment. B) They have an extremely high drift hazard. C) They require significant manual agitation. D) They leave considerable visible residues.

B) They have an extremely high drift hazard. The very small droplets produced by ULV applications lead to a high drift risk, requiring specialized equipment for precise application.

The process where an active ingredient is dissolved in oil, then mixed with an emulsifier, resulting in an oil/active ingredient droplet suspended in water, is called a(n): A) Solution B) Suspension C) Emulsion D) Colloidal dispersion

C) Emulsion. This describes the formation of an emulsion, where one liquid is dispersed within another.

Which type of formulation is often packaged in a water-soluble bag to minimize human exposure during mixing? A) Flowables (F) B) Microencapsulated (M) C) Water-Soluble Packaging (WSP) D) Aerosols (A)

C) Water-Soluble Packaging (WSP). These packets dissolve in water, preventing direct handler contact with the pesticide.

What is a primary reason manufacturers add inert ingredients to pesticide formulations? A) To reduce the effectiveness of the active ingredient B) To increase the product's flammability C) To make the active ingredient work better, for instance, by improving penetration D) To prevent the product from ever being absorbed by human skin

C) To make the active ingredient work better, for instance, by improving penetration. Inert ingredients enhance the performance of the active ingredient, including better penetration and increased effectiveness.

True or False: Petroleum-based solvents in emulsifiable concentrates can cause wear and tear on rubber and plastic hoses.

True. This is a known disadvantage of ECs, leading to deterioration of certain equipment materials.

Which characteristic is a disadvantage of dusts (D) due to their fine, dry inert carrier? A) They require complex mixing procedures. B) They have a very high drift potential. C) They are highly corrosive to equipment. D) They typically require significant agitation.

B) They have a very high drift potential. The very fine particles in dusts make them susceptible to drifting off target.

What type of adjuvant is crucial for ensuring that a spray mixture maintains a desirable pH range, especially when mixing with hard water? A) Wetting agents B) Buffers or pH modifiers C) Spreaders D) Defoaming agents

B) Buffers or pH modifiers. These adjuvants help prevent pesticide degradation by stabilizing the pH of the spray mixture.

Which formulation might be applied with a syringe or bait gun and is known for being odorless and offering minimal exposure to the applicator? A) Dusts (D) B) Baits (B) (general) C) Pastes (P) or Gels (GL) D) Wettable Powders (WP)

C) Pastes (P) or Gels (GL). These specific bait formulations are designed for precise, low-exposure application.

What is a potential issue if a microencapsulated pesticide is used in a situation where bees are present? A) It may attract more bees to the area. B) The coating may prevent bees from interacting with the active ingredient. C) There is a risk of injuring or killing bees if the product is toxic to them. D) Bees may spread the microcapsules to non-target areas without harm.

C) There is a risk of injuring or killing bees if the product is toxic to them. The long restricted-entry intervals for highly toxic microencapsulated products are mentioned, implying potential harm to non-target organisms like bees.

True or False: Animal systemics are primarily applied to external surfaces to control only external parasites.

False. Animal systemics are absorbed into the tissues and control both external and internal blood-feeding insects and worms.

What is a key advantage of soluble powders (SPs) regarding phytotoxicity? A) They are highly phytotoxic. B) They cause moderate phytotoxicity. C) They have little phytotoxicity concern. D) Phytotoxicity is entirely dependent on the inert ingredients.

C) They have little phytotoxicity concern. Soluble powders form true solutions and are less likely to cause plant damage.

What is a potential consequence of tank mixing incompatible pesticide products? A) Increased effectiveness of both active ingredients B) The mixture becoming completely transparent C) Inactivity of active ingredients or increased phytotoxicity D) Reduced need for agitation

C) Inactivity of active ingredients or increased phytotoxicity. Incompatibility can lead to various problems, including product breakdown or enhanced plant damage.

Which abbreviation commonly indicates a "water dispersible granule" formulation? A) WP B) DF C) WDG D) WSP

C) WDG. This abbreviation specifically denotes water-dispersible granules, which are a type of dry flowable. DF also means dry flowable, but WDG is more specific to the granule form.

How do extenders function as adjuvants? A) By reducing foam in the spray tank B) By keeping pesticides active on the target for a longer period C) By altering the pH of the spray mixture D) By preventing pesticide particles from settling

B) By keeping pesticides active on the target for a longer period. Extenders, also known as stickers, prolong the effectiveness of the pesticide.

True or False: Most active ingredients in pesticides are naturally derived from plants or microbes.

False. While some active ingredients come from natural sources, the vast majority of active ingredients today are produced in laboratories.

Which factor should be a primary consideration when selecting a pesticide formulation? A) The brand color B) The specific odor of the concentrate C) Whether the formulation can be applied when and where it is needed D) The cost of the inert ingredients

C) Whether the formulation can be applied when and where it is needed. Practical application considerations are crucial for formulation selection.

What is the main disadvantage of "ready-to-use low concentrate solutions" in terms of cost? A) They are very inexpensive per unit volume. B) They have a high cost per unit of active ingredient. C) Their cost is negligible due to minimal dilution. D) They require expensive specialized application equipment.

B) They have a high cost per unit of active ingredient. The convenience of RTUs often comes with a higher price for the actual pesticide content.

What is a common disadvantage of granular (G) formulations regarding non-target organisms? A) They are rarely effective against non-target pests. B) They may be hazardous to non-target species if fed upon. C) They cause widespread phytotoxicity to surrounding plants. D) They are highly volatile and spread rapidly.

B) They may be hazardous to non-target species if fed upon. Granules can be mistaken for food by animals, posing a risk.

Which term describes a product added to a spray tank to assist the pesticide in its application, such as a spreader or a sticker? A) Active Ingredient B) Inert Ingredient C) Diluent D) Adjuvant

D) Adjuvant. Adjuvants are additives that improve pesticide performance or application characteristics.

True or False: Emulsifiable concentrates (ECs) are generally easy to clean up if spilled on surfaces.

False. Spills and splashes of ECs are often difficult to clean up and/or decontaminate due to their oil content.

What is a key advantage of liquid flowables (F or L) compared to wettable powders? A) They require constant, vigorous agitation. B) They are typically more abrasive to equipment. C) They do not settle out in the spray tank. D) They pose a higher inhalation hazard.

C) They do not settle out in the spray tank. Flowables are essentially pre-mixed wettable powders in a liquid carrier, reducing settling issues.

The "National Pesticide Applicator Certification Core Manual" chapter discussing pesticide formulations helps applicators understand the role of: A) Industrial cleaning agents B) Agricultural fertilizers exclusively C) Adjuvants D) Pest breeding cycles

C) Adjuvants. The module specifically aims to help applicators understand the role of adjuvants.

What specific issue can arise if a dry pesticide formulation like a dust becomes damp? A) It will become a true solution. B) It may clump or plug application equipment. C) Its active ingredient percentage will increase. D) It will become less prone to drift.

B) It may clump or plug application equipment. Dampness can cause dry formulations to become difficult to apply.

True or False: Invert emulsions are designed to promote drift and rapid evaporation of the pesticide.

False. Invert emulsions are designed to reduce drift and runoff and allow for slower evaporation, keeping more pesticide on target.

What is the typical consistency of a liquid invert emulsion? A) Like water B) Like milk C) Like mayonnaise D) Like hot chocolate

C) Like mayonnaise. This is the specific consistency mentioned for invert emulsions.

Which type of adjuvant reduces the surface tension of water, helping sprays to spread evenly over the leaf surface? A) Stickers B) Buffers C) Surfactants D) Defoaming agents

C) Surfactants. Surfactants, including wetting agents and spreaders, reduce surface tension for better coverage.

Why is "calibration critical" when applying Ultra-Low Volume (ULV) formulations? A) Because they are highly abrasive to equipment. B) Because they have a very low active ingredient percentage. C) Because small errors in concentration can lead to high dermal and inhalation exposure. D) Because they require significant agitation.

C) Because small errors in concentration can lead to high dermal and inhalation exposure. Given their high concentration and low application rates, accurate calibration is essential for safety and effectiveness.

What is an advantage of paste or gel baits related to their placement? A) They stain porous surfaces easily. B) They can melt at high temperatures. C) They are easy to place in hard-to-reach areas. D) They attract a wide range of non-target animals.

C) They are easy to place in hard-to-reach areas. Their formulation allows for application with syringes or bait guns, reaching inaccessible spots.

True or False: All forms of pesticide incompatibility result in visible heat, clumping, or precipitate.

False. Incompatibility can also result in inactivity of active ingredients or increased phytotoxicity, which may not be immediately visible as heat or clumping.

What does "LO" often stand for in pesticide brand name abbreviations? A) Low Odor B) Liquid Oil C) Light Opacity D) Long-lasting

A) Low Odor. This abbreviation indicates a reduced odor formulation.

Which type of formulation is often pre-mixed with a liquid carrier, essentially being a wettable powder in liquid form? A) Soluble Powder (SP) B) Emulsifiable Concentrate (EC) C) Flowable (F) or Liquid (L) D) Aerosol (A)

C) Flowable (F) or Liquid (L). Flowables are described as a wettable powder pre-mixed with a liquid carrier.

What is a primary disadvantage of dust (D) formulations in terms of application and residues? A) They require complex mixing and agitation. B) They do not adhere well to surfaces and are easily washed off. C) They are typically very abrasive to application equipment. D) They have a very strong odor.

B) They do not adhere well to surfaces and are easily washed off. Dusts leave residues that are susceptible to being dislodged or washed away.

Which type of adjuvant would be used to prevent the formation of excessive suds or bubbles in a spray tank? A) Wetting agent B) Buffer C) Defoaming agent D) Sticker

C) Defoaming agent. These adjuvants are specifically designed to reduce foam.

True or False: Pesticide-fertilizer combinations are generally granular or pellet formulations.

True. Many pesticide-fertilizer combinations are manufactured as granular or pellet formulations.

What distinguishes an "emulsion" from a "suspension" in terms of what is dispersed in the liquid? A) An emulsion has gas bubbles, a suspension has solid particles. B) An emulsion has one liquid dispersed within another liquid, a suspension has solid particles dispersed in a liquid. C) An emulsion has dissolved solids, a suspension has dissolved liquids. D) An emulsion requires no agitation, a suspension requires constant agitation.

B) An emulsion has one liquid dispersed within another liquid, a suspension has solid particles dispersed in a liquid. This describes the fundamental difference in their composition.

What is a specific risk associated with fumigant formulations? A) They are attractive to children and pets. B) They pose a very high risk of inhalation exposure. C) They are highly phytotoxic to most plants. D) They cause excessive wear on rubber hoses.

B) They pose a very high risk of inhalation exposure. Fumigants are highly toxic gases that require specialized protective equipment.

Which advantage is associated with both liquid solutions (S) and ultra-low volume (ULV) formulations regarding residue? A) They leave significant visible residues. B) They leave no visible residues. C) They only leave residues when applied indoors. D) Residue is dependent on the inert ingredients.

B) They leave no visible residues. Both solutions and ULV formulations are noted for leaving little to no residue.

What type of adjuvant ensures that pesticides and fertilizers can be mixed together in a tank without adverse reactions? A) Safeners B) Spreaders C) Compatibility agents D) Invert emulsifiers

C) Compatibility agents. These adjuvants specifically facilitate the mixing of different products.

True or False: According to a product label example, "Lexone 2E" contains 2 pounds of active ingredient per gallon.

True. The example label for Lexone 2E explicitly states it contains "2 lbs metribuzin per gallon."

What is a disadvantage of granular (G) formulations regarding achieving a uniform application? A) They require constant agitation. B) Their particles often cling to foliage. C) Uniform application can be difficult due to variations in particle weight and shape. D) They melt at high temperatures.

C) Uniform application can be difficult due to variations in particle weight and shape. This can make even distribution challenging.

Which type of formulation is often used in greenhouses, small buildings, and outdoor areas for insect control, and is typically contained in a pressurized self-contained unit? A) Granules (G) B) Wettable Powders (WP) C) Ready-to-Use Aerosols D) Solutions (S)

C) Ready-to-Use Aerosols. These are self-contained units that release pesticide under pressure for various applications.

What is an "inert ingredient" in a pesticide formulation? A) The chemical that actively controls the pest. B) Materials added with the active ingredient when the product is formulated. C) A substance that helps the active ingredient penetrate the pest's body. D) A type of adjuvant that makes the mixture safer.

B) Materials added with the active ingredient when the product is formulated. Inert ingredients are all materials in the product mixture other than the active ingredient.

What characteristic do pellets (P or PS) share with granules (G) regarding their mixing properties? A) Both must be mixed with water before application. B) Both are ready-to-use and generally not intended to be mixed with water. C) Both require constant agitation to remain dispersed in water. D) Both form true solutions when added to water.

B) Both are ready-to-use and generally not intended to be mixed with water. Pellets are similar to granules in their application method.

What is a specific advantage of wettable powders (WPs) in terms of human exposure compared to emulsifiable concentrates (ECs)? A) WPs are more easily absorbed through human skin and eyes. B) WPs pose a higher inhalation hazard. C) WPs have less absorption by human skin and eyes. D) WPs are more flammable.

C) WPs have less absorption by human skin and eyes. This makes them relatively safer in terms of dermal and ocular exposure compared to ECs.

True or False: Manufacturers always warranty their product even if it's mixed with other products not listed on the label.

False. Manufacturers only warranty their product alone or with specific product mixtures listed on the label.

What does "GL" stand for in pesticide brand name abbreviations? A) Granular Liquid B) Gelled Liquid C) Gel D) Gaseous Liquid

C) Gel. GL is the abbreviation for gel formulations.

Which type of formulation is characterized by its ability to reduce drift and runoff, and often functions as a sticker-spreader? A) Solutions (S) B) Ultra-Low Volume (ULV) C) Invert Emulsions D) Aerosols (A)

C) Invert Emulsions. These formulations are specifically designed to reduce drift and runoff and have sticker-spreader properties.

What is a disadvantage of baits (B) that may lead to secondary pest problems if not addressed? A) They can stain porous surfaces. B) Old bait may serve as a food source if inactive. C) They require complex equipment for application. D) They have a strong, persistent odor.

B) Old bait may serve as a food source if inactive. If not removed, old bait can attract other pests or provide sustenance for the target pest.

Which formulation is typically dissolved in a petroleum-based solvent with an emulsifier and turns white when mixed with water? A) Solutions (S) B) Flowables (F) C) Emulsifiable Concentrates (EC) D) Ultra-Low Volume (ULV)

C) Emulsifiable Concentrates (EC). This describes the composition and characteristic appearance of ECs when mixed.

True or False: Soluble powders (SPs) generally require constant agitation in the spray tank.

False. Soluble powders form true solutions and do not settle out, thus requiring no agitation once dissolved.

What is a key advantage of water-soluble packets (WSP) regarding safety? A) They contain almost 100% active ingredient. B) They eliminate human exposure when mixing. C) They significantly reduce the cost of the pesticide. D) They are always highly volatile.

B) They eliminate human exposure when mixing. The packet dissolves, meaning the handler does not directly touch the product.

What is a significant disadvantage of fumigants that affects both environmental safety and human health? A) They are highly corrosive to application equipment. B) They are highly toxic to all living organisms and non-specific. C) They leave excessive visible residues. D) They require constant agitation during application.

B) They are highly toxic to all living organisms and non-specific. Fumigants pose a broad risk due to their highly toxic gaseous nature.

Which type of spray mixture is described as one liquid dispersed within another, often appearing milky, like milk? A) Solution B) Suspension C) Emulsion D) Colloidal blend

C) Emulsion. Emulsions are characterized by one liquid dispersed within another, with milk as a common analogy.

What is a main reason why a "Ready-to-Use" (RTU) formulation might be preferred for smaller, specific applications? A) They are the most cost-effective per unit of active ingredient. B) They allow for precise measurement and complex mixing. C) They are convenient, requiring neither measuring nor mixing. D) They have the lowest drift potential of all formulations.

C) They are convenient, requiring neither measuring nor mixing. This simplicity makes them suitable for small-scale or residential use.

True or False: A pesticide label will always specify that household detergents can be used as effective adjuvants.

False. The information explicitly advises against using industrial products or household detergents as adjuvants.

What is the main purpose of "safeners" as a type of adjuvant? A) To extend the activity of the pesticide. B) To reduce the toxicity of the pesticide to the protected handler or plant. C) To improve the penetration of the pesticide into the plant. D) To prevent the pesticide from clumping.

B) To reduce the toxicity of the pesticide to the protected handler or plant. Safeners are designed to minimize harm to desirable organisms or surfaces.

Which formulation type is characterized by active ingredients incorporated into a solid material, such as a plastic, and released over time? A) Microencapsulated B) Baits C) Impregnates D) Water-soluble packets

C) Impregnates. These are products like ear tags or pest strips where the active ingredient is embedded in a solid matrix.

What does "WDG" denote in a pesticide product name? A) Wettable Dry Granules B) Water-Dispersible Granules C) Water Droplet Granules D) Wet Dry Granules

B) Water-Dispersible Granules. This is a common abbreviation for this type of dry formulation.

True or False: A solution spray mixture will typically appear cloudy or opaque.

False. Solutions are described as "TRULY dissolves in water… usually transparent."

What is a disadvantage of microencapsulated formulations relating to environmental conditions? A) Their effectiveness is significantly increased by high temperatures. B) The release rate of the active ingredient may vary depending on temperature or soil. C) They lose potency quickly in dry conditions. D) They are highly volatile in humid environments.

B) The release rate of the active ingredient may vary depending on temperature or soil. The encapsulation process leads to a slow release, which can be influenced by environmental factors.

Which formulation is generally considered to be the most versatile among liquid formulations? A) Solutions (S) B) Ultra-Low Volume (ULV) C) Emulsifiable Concentrates (EC) D) Invert Emulsions

C) Emulsifiable Concentrates (EC). They are often referred to as "the most versatile" formulations.

What is a specific disadvantage of liquid solutions (S) when considering human exposure? A) They are highly abrasive to skin. B) They are easily absorbed through the skin. C) They require significant respiratory protection. D) They cause severe eye irritation upon contact.

B) They are easily absorbed through the skin. Some active ingredients in solutions can be readily absorbed through human skin.

What type of adjuvant ensures that solid particles adhere better to a treated surface, resisting wash-off? A) Wetting agents B) Spreaders C) Stickers D) Buffers

C) Stickers. Stickers help the pesticide cling to surfaces and resist removal by rain or other factors.

True or False: The use of an adjuvant can sometimes be prohibited by the pesticide label.

True. Pesticide labels must always be read, and some may explicitly prohibit the use of certain adjuvants.

What is a significant disadvantage of granular (G) formulations regarding incorporation into the environment? A) They typically require constant agitation. B) They may need to be incorporated into the soil or planted medium. C) They cause rapid deterioration of application equipment. D) They leave excessive visible residues.

B) They may need to be incorporated into the soil or planted medium. This can be a necessary step for their effectiveness against certain pests.

Which characteristic is common to both dusts (D) and aerosols (A) in terms of application and safety? A) Both require highly specialized equipment. B) Both have high drift potential. C) Both are designed to be mixed with water before application. D) Both are completely odorless.

B) Both have high drift potential. Fine particles (dusts) and very fine droplets (aerosols) are highly susceptible to drift.

What does the term "Adjuvant" basically mean? A) An active ingredient B) A diluent C) An additive D) A carrier

C) An additive. The information states that "The term adjuvant basically means additive."

Which liquid formulation type is described as having "little agitation" required and being "easy on equipment"? A) Emulsifiable Concentrates (EC) B) Ready-to-Use (RTU) C) Ultra-Low Volume (ULV) D) All of the above

D) All of the above. These advantages are listed for ECs, RTUs, and ULVs in various parts of the material.

True or False: Field incompatibility between pesticides can still occur even if a jar test indicates compatibility.

True. The information notes that "Field incompatibility can still occur," even after a jar test.

What information is generally contained within the "EPA Reg. No." on a pesticide label, as seen in the examples? A) The date of manufacture B) The registered formulation number C) The percentage of inert ingredients D) The recommended application rate

B) The registered formulation number. The example labels (Lexone DF, Lexone 2E) show "EPA Reg. No. 12333-344," indicating a registration number.

Which disadvantage of wettable powders (WPs) is related to water quality? A) They are highly flammable in hard water. B) They are difficult to mix in hard water. C) Hard water increases their phytotoxicity. D) Hard water causes them to separate into a true solution.

B) They are difficult to mix in hard water. This is specifically listed as a disadvantage for wettable powders.