prev ex 4 that I think could be on ex 3 - yolo edition

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Last updated 12:03 PM on 7/15/26
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128 Terms

1
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what is true about negative sense, single-stranded RNA viruses

require a viral RNA polymerase to be packaged into viral particles

2
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what is the process of internalization during a viral infection called

penetration

3
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what is an enveloped virus composed of

nucleocapsid plus membrane plus glycoproteins

4
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new extracellular infections virus are detected during......

during the assembly phase of viral infection

5
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what are the microscopic or macroscopic degenerative changes or abnormalities in host cells and tissues due to viral replication called?

cytopathic effects (CPEs)

6
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which virus genome is directly translated into proteins upon entry into a cell

poliovirus

7
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what is the agent of herpangina, which includes vesicles and ulcers on the tonsils and palate?

coxsackievirus

8
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what is the receptor for most rhinoviruses?

ICAM-1

9
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the agent of Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS) is

a coronavirus

10
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what virus with a positive sense RNA genome that can be directly translated in protein also requires a second phase of translation to produce several smaller mRNAs transcribed form a negative sense copy of the RNA genome

coronavirus

11
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what flavivirus is transmitted by mosquitos form person-to-person and from monkeys-to-humans and causes jaundice in severe cases

yellow fever virus

12
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what are kopek's spots

lesions of the oral cavity associated with measles

13
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subacute sclerosis panenecephalitis is associated with a relative of which virus

measles

14
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bronchitis in children is caused by

respiratory syncytial virus

15
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post-exposure vaccination is recommended for an infection by which virus?

rabies

16
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what virus is characterized by cytoplasmic masses of nucleocapsids in brain tissue during the late stages of an infection

rabies virus

17
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which of the following is not true of the influenza virus hemagglutinin protein?

a. acts to promote fusion of influenza virus and cellular membranes

b. is the target of neutralizing antibodies elicited by the flu vaccine

c. cleaves sialic acid to promote influenza virus release

d. promotes aggregation of red blood cells

c. cleaves sialic acid to promote influenza virus release

18
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antigenic shifts in influenza viruses are caused by

random packaging of single stranded RNA genome segments during a coinfection with two types of influenza viruses

19
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how could the adenovirus E1b protein play a role in carcinogenesis

binds p53 and prevents p21 activation in response to DNA damage

20
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what are the characteristics of adenovirus

double-strand DNA genome, naked capsid

21
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conjunctivitis can be caused by

adenovirus

22
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which viruses are present in the greatest proportion of advanced periodontal lesions

cytomegalovirus and Epstein-Barr virus

23
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which drug blocks release of influenza A virus form an infected cell

tamiflu

24
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an adjuvant is used to

boost the immunogenicity of a killed (inactivated) virus vaccine

25
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passive immunity is used for all of the following excerpt:

a. to prevent disease after a known exposure

b. to ameliorate the symptoms of an ongoing disease

c. to protect immunodeficient individuals

d. to elicit production of secretory antibodies

e. to block the action of bacterial toxins

d. to elicit production of secretory antibodies

26
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what refers to the drop in viral titers that occurs in cell culture due to penetration of virus into host cells

viral eclipse

27
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what is a naked capsid virus composed of?

only viral genome + structural proteins surrounding/coating genome + other proteins (depending on virus)

28
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what is true about some small positive sense, single-stranded RNA viruses, like hepatitis A virus

can directly translate viral RNA upon entry into a new host cell

29
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what process is required for a viral infection to proceed once the viral nucleocapsid gains entry into a cell

uncoating

30
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which class of virus includes viruses with large genomes that proceed through three phases of viral gene expression (transcription/translation) during infection

double stranded DNA viruses

31
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for which RNA virus, initially encountered in the gastrointestinal tract, is a vaccine not available?

a. norovirus

b. adenovirus

c. hepatitis A virus

d. poliovirus

a. norovirus

32
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which viral agent of gastroenteritis has a single-stranded RNA genome and undergoes two phases of translation like coronavirus

norovirus

33
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what is true about the role pigs play in major periodic changes in influenza viruses

pigs can be inflected by influenza virus from birds and humans as well as other pigs

34
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antigenic drift in influenza is caused by

point mutations that occur during viral genome replication

35
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which of the following is not true of the influenza virus neuraminidase protein?

a. acts to promote fusion of influenza virus and cellular membranes

b. is not the target of neutralizing antibodies elicited by the flu vaccine

c. cleaves sialic acid to promote influenza virus release

d. does not promote aggregation of red blood cells

a. acts to promote fusion of influenza virus and cellular membranes

36
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what best describes the range of treatment strategies for preventing rabies

preexposure vaccination OR post exposure passive immunization plus post exposure vaccination

37
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what paramyxovirus is limited to replication in the region of initial contact and does not demonstrate significant spread to other sites by viremia

respiratory syncytial virus

38
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what is true about measles virus

infections by the measles virus are limited in the United States because of widespread vaccination

39
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members of what minus-stranded RNA virus family are characterized by helical necleocapsid and their ability to induce syncytia during infection

paramyxoviruses

40
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what naked capsid viruses can cause an aseptic meningitis OR vesicles/ulsers on the tonsils and palate OR pleurodynia, depending on the subtype

coxsackievirus

41
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which naked capsid, positive stranded RNA virus is acid-sensitive and replicates optimally at 33 degrees C, confining it to the upper respiratory tract

rhinovirus

42
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what virus is transmitted by anopheles mosquitoes from person-to-person and causes more severe disease to individuals that have partial immunity from a prior exposure to the virus

dengue fever virus

43
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what is true about Zika virus?

a. it is a toga virus

b. it is transmitted by Anopheles mosquitos

c. it is an enveloped, positive stranded RNA virus

d. humans are dead end hosts for the virus

c. it is an enveloped, positive stranded RNA virus

44
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members of what enveloped, plus stranded RNA virus family can cause an acute respiratory syndrome that is an atypical pneumonia, but more often cause milder disease, generically referred to as the "common cold"?

coronavirus

45
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passive immunization is used for all of the following except

a. to prevent disease after a known exposure

b. to ameliorate the symptoms of an ongoing disease

c. to protect immunodeficient individuals

d. to elicit production of secretory antibodies

d. to elicit production of secretory antibodies

46
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what are koplik's spots

lesions of the oral cavity associated with measles

47
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what are the microscopic or macroscopic degenerative changes or abnormalities in host cells and tissues due to viral replication called

cytopathic effects (CPEs)

48
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which vaccine protects solely or principally by induction of serum antibodies

tetanus vaccine

49
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how does amantidine block infection by influenza A virus

inhibits viral disassembly in endosome

50
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what is a property of the anti-cyclomegalovirus drug ganciclovir

is more toxic than acyclovir because it is more readily used by viral thymidine kinase

51
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what virus creates "giant cells" that are very characteristic of the course of an infection

measles

52
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what is the agent of hand, foot, and mouth disease, producing blisters on the hands, feet, and palate

coxsackievirus

53
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what is a naked capsid virus composed of

only nucleocapsid

54
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what virus is responsible for about 30% of cases of the "common cold", has an RNA genome that can be directly translated into protein, but also requires a second phase of translation to produce several smaller mRNAs transcribed from a negative sense copy of the RNA genome

coronavirus

55
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what flavivirus is transmitted by mosquitos from person-to-person, can cause jaundice, and was the first virus proven to be spread by an insect vector

yellow fever virus

56
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what virus does not invade neurons

respiratory syncytial virus

57
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reassortment of genetic information among influenza viruses is possible because of

random packaging of single stranded TNA genome segments during a coinfection with two types of influenza viruses

58
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which class of virus always brings its own RNA polymerase into a cell during infection

negative-sense, single stranded RNA viruses

59
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what paramyxovirus initially infects cells of the respiratory tract but characteristically replicates in the parotid gland after viremia

mumps virus

60
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which viral agent of gastroenteritis has a segmented double-stranded RNA genome

rotavirus

61
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when performing controlled viral infections in tissue culture (with a defined number of viral particles (visions)), during what phase do viral titers rise?

assembly phase

62
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which influenza virus protein mediates absorption of the virus onto a host epithelial cell surface

hemagglutinin

63
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which virus initially infects cells in the intestinal epithelium

poliovirus

64
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what spore forming bacterium produces an A-B exotoxin that blocks glycine release from axon endings of intraneurons that control motor neurons within muscles

clostridium tetani

65
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which organism is a gram-positive, spore-forming, strict anaerobic rod

clostridium perfringens

66
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clostridium _________ is part of the normal human intestinal bacteria flora

difficile

67
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blockage of acetylcholine release form host cells is caused by virulence factor of which bacterium

clostridium botulinum

68
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which of the following is NOT true about bacillus anthracis?

a. produces an adenylate cyclase called edema factor

b. produces a metalloprotease called metal factor

c. only Bacillus species that does not form spores

d. bacteria are gram positive rods

c. only Bacillus species that does not form spores

69
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what type of virulence factor of haemophilus influenza serotype B is specifically correlated with the ability of these bacteria to cause systemic infections

capsule

70
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this gram-negative coccobacillus is transmitted zoonotically via fleas and eventually infects lymph nodes, where it can cause a purulent infection. In some individuals the bacteria can subsequently spread to the lungs and be transmitted by aerosol from human to human

yersinia pestis

71
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what property is associated with listeria monocytogenes

is transmitted to human in contaminated meat and dairy products

72
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what is a property of the bacterial agent of Legionnaires disease

epithelial cells in the lung are this bacterium only main target for invasion

73
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a positive result with an acid-fast staining test on a sputum smear is indicative of

mycobacterium tuberculosis

74
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which of the following is true for cord factor of mycobacterium tuberculosis

a. used for the Mantoux reaction diagnosis test for exposure to this bacterium

b. contains mycolic acid

c. contributes to smooth, flat appears of bacterial colonies

b. contains mycolic acid

75
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which of the following is true about tuberculosis

a. a clinical symptom of the disease is the lack of a Mantoux reaction

b. a 3 month course of penicillin is a standard treatment for the disease

c. untreated, the disease usually progresses rapidly over the course of 1 week, leading to death

d. most individuals exposed to the bacterial agent do not develop disease

d. most individuals exposed to the bacterial agent do not develop disease

76
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t/f

individuals normally clear the bacterial agent of leprosy via cell-mediated immunity

true

77
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which is not a property of Nocardia

a. opportunistic pathogen

b. agent of bronchopulmonary infections and brain abscesses

c. has filamentous, branched cellular growth

d. contains mycolic acids in cell walls

d. most individuals exposed to the bacterial agent do not develop disease

e. is a zoonotic agen (sheep and goats)

e. is a zoonotic agen (sheep and goats)

78
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a pregnant 22-year-old woman was seen at an urgent care clinic and presented with fever, malaise, headache, and a macular rash (flat, red) over much of her body. Upon questioning, she reported that about 1 year earlier she had a painless ulcer on her vagina that healed spontaneously after a few weeks. a diagnostic test revealed the pathogen and the likely connection between her previous and current symptoms. what is the most likely diagnosis made following her urgent care visit

she has secondary syphilis

79
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what is the treatment for a child born with congenital syphilis to clear the infection

penicillin

80
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what is a symptom of late stage, chronic disease with Borrelia burgdorferi

arthritis

81
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trachoma is a form of _______

blindness

82
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what is a proper of chlamydia trachomatis

a. has a thick peptidoglycan layer

b. transmitted by fecal-oral route

c. elementary body is actively replicating form

d. reticulate body is inert, transit form

e. some serotypes cause a gonorrheal-like disease

e. some serotypes cause a gonorrheal-like disease

83
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what is true about mycoplasma pneumoniae

a. gram positive

b. facultative anaerobe

c. causes severe, life-threatening lung infections

d. cells pass through filter that traps most other bacteria

d. cells pass through filter that traps most other bacteria

84
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what is a property characteristic of cariogenic bacteria (versus non-cariogenic bacteria)

presence of acid stress response proteins

85
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what role does ammonia production from arginine and urea play for oral bacteria

creation of a more basic (pH) local environment

86
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what is true of dental plaque

a. the first colonizing bacteria during plaque formation bind tooth enamel directly

b. prevotella oralis is an early colonizer

c. epithelial cells produce glucans in response to the dental biofilm

d. the pellicle is the coating that forms on the plaque surface after bacterial coaggregation

e. sugar consumption causes increased levels of streptococcus mutans in plaque

e. sugar consumption causes increased levels of streptococcus mutans in plaque

87
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which bacteria are common late colonizers of dental plaque when oxygen is depleted, especially between teeth

prevotella melaninogenicus

88
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which bacterium is strongly associated with acute necrotizing ulceratize gingivitis

fusobacterium nucleatium

89
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dental carries correlates with

high numbers of streptococcus mutans

90
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which genus is specifically associated with aggressive periodontitis

aggregatibactor

91
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how does lysozyme act as an antibacterial agent

lysozyme cleaves tend the bond between N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetrylmuramic acid

92
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what is an example of a role of a toll-like receptor in oral defense

bind to lipopolysaccharide and signal bacterial presence

93
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which of the following is characteristic of salivary gland infections

a. spirochetes are the predominant organisms

b. smoking decreases the risk of infection

c. blockage of a gland by calcium deposits decreases the risk of infection

d. dehydration increases the risk of infection

d. dehydration increases the risk of infection

94
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which disease has oral manifestations that include ulcers on the palate

tuberculosis

95
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given an example where post-exposure vaccination is recommended

after being bitten by an animal suspected to be infected with the rabies virus

96
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what drug inhibits the function of influenza A virus M2 protein

rimantidine

97
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which virus genome is directly translated into proteins upon entry into a cell

coronavirus

(also true of poliovirus)

98
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name a virus that creates "giant cells" that are very characteristic of the course of an infection

measles virus

99
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What paramyxovirus is limited to replication in the region of initial contact and does not demonstrate significant spread to other sites by viremia?

respiratory syncytial virus

100
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What is true about measles virus?

A: initial infection in the gastrointestinal tract is followed by viremia

B: cough, coryza, and conjunctivitis are the only symptoms of the disease caused by infection

C: viremia spreads the virus to endothelial cells, causing a typical rash, but the virus does not replicate in any other tissue

D: the virus is spread through contaminated food and water

E: infections by the measles virus are limited in the United States because of widespread vaccination

E: infections by the measles virus are limited in the United States because of widespread vaccination