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How many chromosomes does a haploid human gamete have?
23
If you have chromosome 8 from your father + chromosome 8 from your mother, you have:
homologous chromosomes
How many copies of each chromosome are there in a karyotype?
4
In plants, which of the following adult plants is haploid?
gameteophyte
A main difference between animal and fungal replication cycles is:
fungal cycles can have haploid adults
Each of the following occurs twice in meiosis, EXCEPT:
dna replication
In meiosis I:
homologous chromosomes separate
When homologous chromosomes stick together, this is called:
synapsis
Which of the following is a name for when homologous chromosomes break and exchange DNA?
crossing over
If an organism has 3 haploid chromosomes, how many possible gametes could be formed by independent assortment alone?
8
Which of the following is NOT true?
all of these are true
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following is NOT a method for increasing genetic diversity of offspring?
mitosis
Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of growing cells. The measured DNA amounts were typically either 5 or 10 picograms per nucleus. In which phase of the cell cycle did the nucleus contain 5 picograms of DNA?
G1 Phase
Human gametes are produced by _____.
meiosis
Normal human gametes carry _____ chromosomes.
23
A diploid organism whose somatic (nonsex) cells each contain 32 chromosomes produces gametes containing _____ chromosomes.
16
The 3 events unique to meiosis all occur in meiosis I. Which of the following is NOT one of these unique events?
individual pairs of sister chromatids lining up on the metaphase plate
The parent cell that enters meiosis is diploid, whereas the four daughter cells that result are haploid.
DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis II. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis II.
Meiosis I produces _____ cells, each of which is _____.
two..haploid
Meiosis II typically produces _____ cells, each of which is _____.
four ... haploid
During _____ sister chromatids separate.
anaphase II
At the end of _____ and cytokinesis, haploid cells contain chromosomes that each consist of two sister chromatids.
telophase I
Synapsis occurs during _____.
Prophase I
Homologous chromosomes migrate to opposite poles during _____.
anaphase I
During _____ chromosomes align single file along the equator of a haploid cell.
Metaphase II
At the end of _____ and cytokinesis there are four haploid cells.
Telophase II
During _____ a spindle forms in a haploid cell.
Prophase II
Identify all possible products of meiosis in plant and animal life cycles.
Gametes (sperm and eggs) and Spores
A human cell containing 22 autosomes and a Y chromosome is
A Sperm
Two sister chromatids are joined at the centromere prior to meiosis. Which statement is correct?
Barring mutation, the two sister chromatids must be identical.
Another possible name or description for an allele is:
All of the above (a gene
the DNA for a genetic trait on a chromosome
the DNA for a phenotypic trait on a chromosome
several nearby related genes on a chromosome coding for a trait
all of the above)
Why did Mendel use pea plants?
peas have many different phenotypic variations
Mendel's Law of Segregation includes all of the following EXCEPT:
alleles behave independently from other alleles
3 multiple choice options
A purple pea flower has which of the following genotypes?
PP or Pp
Mendel observed that traits like flower color and pea (seed) color did not correlate with each other and behaved separately, and he called this:
The law of Independent Assortment
If you have a purple flowered pea and you a test cross with a white flowered pea, and the offspring are all purple, what was the genotype of the purple pea?
PP
if an organism has the genotype ppYyrr - how many recessive traits will it express?
2
Consider 2 different plants with the genotypes GgTt and ggtt. These plants can produce how many types of gametes each?
four and one, respectively
If you cross two homozygotes and get offspring with intermediate traits, this means the alleles were:
incompletely dominant
If you have type A blood, but your child has type B blood, then:
your spouse has type B or AB blood
Which of the following produces the largest range of variation in a trait?
polygenic inheritance
Geneticists often track thousands of F1 and F2 offspring, but humans only have a few offspring, so instead of Punnett squares, in human genetics we often use:
pedigrees
If you are a "normal" height adult and you have 4 children with a homozygous dwarf, on average how many of your children will be dwarfs?
4
n a plant where Y = yellow flowers = dominant and y = green flowers = recessive, if you cross a yellow plant (of unknown genotype) with a green plant and the F1 generation is always green - which of the following is correct:
this is not possible
A Punnett square analysis says that if you have AO type blood and your spouse has AO type blood, that 25% of your children will have type OO blood, but you have 4 children and that are all have the type A antigen. This is because:
You did not have enough children to see the statistical averages
When an F1 plant undergoes meiosis, what gamete types will it produce, and in what proportions?
1/2 Y and 1/2 y
All of the following people or pairs of people made significant advances in our understanding of DNA, which ones did no actual experiments?
Watson and Crick
Who showed that DNA is the genetic material?
Hershey and Chase
If a piece of double stranded DNA has 20% adenine, what % guanine is it?
30
Replication of double stranded DNA is:
semi-conservative
DNA and RNA sequences have a 5' end and a 3' end (5 prime and 3 prime) - what do the 5' and 3' refer to?
the number of the carbon in the ribose
Which protein actually adds DNA nucleotides to a growing DNA strand?
polymerase
What is the main replicative polymerase in E. coli?
DNA Pol III
DNA is synthesized (and written) in one direction, which direction?
5 to 3
Which of the following is involved in BOTH leading and lagging strand synthesis?
RNA Primase
If the only 3 proteins involved are nuclease, DNA polymerase I, and ligase - what process is occurring?
nucleotide excision repair
What is the end of a chromosome called?
telomere
The first step in DNA condensation involves:
DNA winding around histone proteins to form nucleosomes
DNA replication involves "leading strand synthesis" and "lagging strand synthesis" - why are 2 different procedures required?
because DNA can only be synthesized 5' to 3' but the two strands run in opposite directions
What is the first thing made during DNA replication?
RNA
Which of the following is NOT part of transcription?
making protein
How many different codons are there?
64
Transcription starts when RNA polymerase binds at a
promoter
RNA polymerases can do something DNA polymerases cannot. What?
begin polymerizing without a primer
Prokaryotes are missing which of the following?
RNA processing
What cuts introns out of an mRNA?
spliceosome
Attaching an amino acid to an tRNA is called:
Charging
Which of the following is false?
mRNA has the anti-codon
Ribosomes have A, P, and E sites. What does E stand for?
exit
A codon is 5' ACG 3', what is the anti-codon?
5'CGU 3'
What is the energy source for translation?
GTP
What part of a protein directs where it goes within the cell?
the signal peptide
When a DNA mutation results in a different amino acid being put into a protein, what kind of mutation is this?
missence
If an mRNA has an intron, that means:
it was made in a nucleus, it will be spliced, it was made in a eukaryotic cell, andit also has a poly A tail
What is "release factor" ?
a protein
A promoter + an operator sequence + one or more genes is:
an operon
Which of the following is true?
a repressible operon's default mode is "on", an inducible operon's default mode is "off", the lac operon's default mode is "off", and the trp operon's default mode is "on"
When the cell has too much tryptophan, what does the excess trp bind to in order to shut down trp synthesis?
the trp repressor
Chromatin can be turned "on" for transcription by:
acetylation
What is a co-repressor?
a small molecule that binds to a repressor protein
Which of the following is NOT a possible place where expression of different genes is controlled?
transcription of tRNAs
In control of transcription in eukaryotes versus prokaryotes - for eukaryotes the control regions on the DNA are:
more numerous and often farther away from the genes
Which of the following RNA species regulates gene expression as its primary function?
miRNA
Which of the following is not a mechanism for gene regulation?
how long a gene lasts
Which small protein targets or marks other proteins for destruction?
ubiquitin
What does alternative RNA splicing do?
removes some of the exons from the mRNA
Alternative mRNA splicing cannot occur in prokaryotes because:
they have no introns
If the gene for p53 gets damaged, what happens?
it turns into an oncogene, it stops regulating the cell cycle, it sometimes results in cancer, and it stops being an effective transcription regulator or alters its regulation pattern
Some transcriptional regulators are called master regulators because they turn on or off other transcription factors and control many different genes. Which of these is a master regulation?
MyoD, p53, Ras, and Bicoid
Which of the following techniques would allow you to get material to make a karyotype?
Question 1
amniocentesis
Which of the following describes an allele?
all of the answers are descriptions of an allele
In a plant where: Y = yellow flowers = dominant and y = green flowers = recessive, if you cross a yellow plant (of unknown genotype) with a green plant and the F1 generation is half yellow and half green flowered plants, this means that the unknown plant's genotype is:
Yy
When gene A controls the expression of the phylogenetic trait for gene B, this is called:
epistasis
If
Y = yellow flowers = dominant
y = blue flowers = recessive
You cross a yellow plant (of unknown genotype) with a blue plant and the F1 generation is all yellow. This means that the genotype of the yellow plant is:
YY
Who first published the structure of double stranded DNA?
Watson and Crick
If a double stranded piece of DNA has 40% guanine, what % adenine does it have?
40
What does DNA helicase do?
unwinds and separates the DNA strands in front of a replication bubble
What direction does RNA polymerase synthesize RNA?
5 to 3
Which of the following is made during translation?
protein
Ribosomes consist of
proteins and rRNA