Exercise Physiology & Neuro-Muscular Review (Ch. 2-4, 7)

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A comprehensive set of flashcards covering homeostasis, metabolism, energy systems, nervous and muscular physiology, and exercise adaptations for exam preparation.

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86 Terms

1
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What is the definition of homeostasis?

Maintaining a constant and normal internal environment at rest.

2
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How does steady state differ from homeostasis?

A physiological variable remains stable during stress (e.g., exercise) but not at its normal resting value.

3
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What feedback mechanism do most physiological control systems use?

Negative feedback.

4
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In negative feedback, how is the initial disturbance handled?

It is reversed to restore normal conditions.

5
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During blood glucose regulation, which hormone lowers high blood sugar?

Insulin.

6
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What happens if insulin is ineffective, as in diabetes?

Glucose stays in the blood, causing hyperglycemia.

7
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Give two examples of homeostatic regulation besides glucose control.

Temperature regulation (sweating/shivering) and pH balance via lungs/cardiovascular system.

8
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What causes Type 1 diabetes?

Autoimmune destruction of insulin-producing beta cells.

9
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What is the primary problem in Type 2 diabetes?

Tissues become resistant to insulin despite its presence.

10
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Define adaptation in physiology.

Long-term structural and functional changes that help maintain homeostasis.

11
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Define acclimation.

Short-term physiological adjustment to an environmental stress.

12
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Give two examples of acclimation.

Heat adaptation increases sweating efficiency; high-altitude training raises red blood cell count.

13
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Which signaling pathway sends hormones through the bloodstream to distant cells?

Endocrine signaling.

14
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In which signaling type does a cell communicate with itself?

Autocrine signaling.

15
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What is metabolism?

The sum of all chemical reactions in the body.

16
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Differentiate anabolism and catabolism.

Anabolism synthesizes molecules; catabolism breaks them down.

17
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Which reaction type requires energy input?

Endergonic reaction.

18
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Which reaction type releases energy?

Exergonic reaction.

19
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What are coupled reactions?

An exergonic reaction drives an endergonic reaction.

20
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Define oxidation in biochemical terms.

Loss of electrons (or hydrogen).

21
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Define reduction.

Gain of electrons (or hydrogen).

22
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When NAD+ gains electrons, what molecule is formed?

NADH.

23
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When FAD gains electrons, what molecule is produced?

FADH2.

24
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List the three components of ATP.

Adenine, ribose, and three phosphate groups.

25
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What reaction releases energy from ATP?

ATP → ADP + Pi.

26
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Name the three energy systems that resynthesize ATP.

Phosphagen system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation.

27
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Which energy system uses phosphocreatine for immediate ATP?

Phosphagen (ATP-PC) system.

28
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Where does glycolysis occur?

In the cytoplasm.

29
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What is the end product of glycolysis when oxygen is absent?

Lactic acid.

30
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How many net ATP are produced per glucose via glycolysis?

2 ATP.

31
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Into what molecule is pyruvate converted before entering the Krebs cycle?

Acetyl-CoA.

32
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Name the two electron carriers generated by the Krebs cycle.

NADH and FADH2.

33
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What is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain?

Oxygen.

34
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What does beta-oxidation produce from fatty acids?

Acetyl-CoA.

35
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Which pathway converts certain amino acids to glucose?

Gluconeogenesis.

36
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What temperature range is optimal for most enzymes?

37–40 °C.

37
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How does intense exercise–induced acidosis affect enzymes?

Low pH reduces enzyme function.

38
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Approximately how many ATP are yielded from complete oxidation of one glucose molecule?

About 32 ATP.

39
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Roughly how many ATP come from oxidation of one fatty acid such as stearic acid?

About 106 ATP.

40
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What are free radicals?

Molecules with unpaired electrons that cause oxidative stress.

41
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What substances neutralize free radicals?

Antioxidants.

42
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For how long does the ATP-PC system dominate energy supply?

About 1–5 seconds.

43
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During what duration is glycolysis the primary ATP source?

Approximately 6–120 seconds.

44
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After 1–4 minutes of exercise, which energy system predominates?

Aerobic metabolism via Krebs cycle and ETC.

45
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Define VO₂ max.

Maximum oxygen uptake during intense exercise.

46
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What is oxygen deficit?

Early-exercise period when ATP demand exceeds aerobic supply.

47
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What is EPOC?

Elevated post-exercise oxygen consumption to restore homeostasis.

48
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At what VO₂ max percentage does lactate threshold occur in untrained people?

50–60 % VO₂ max.

49
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In trained endurance athletes, lactate threshold occurs at what VO₂ max percentage?

65–80 % VO₂ max.

50
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Name one cause of lactate accumulation during exercise.

Low muscle oxygen, recruitment of fast-twitch fibers, accelerated glycolysis, or reduced lactate removal.

51
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Does lactate cause muscle soreness?

No; soreness is due to microscopic muscle damage.

52
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According to the crossover concept, which fuel increases with higher exercise intensity?

Carbohydrate.

53
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What training adaptation most improves aerobic metabolism and lowers lactate buildup?

Increased mitochondrial volume.

54
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How quickly is lactate typically cleared from blood after exercise?

Within about 60 minutes.

55
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What is the Cori cycle?

Conversion of lactate to glucose in the liver.

56
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What two structures compose the central nervous system?

Brain and spinal cord.

57
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Which PNS division brings sensory information to the CNS?

Afferent (sensory) division.

58
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Name the neuron structures that receive impulses.

Dendrites.

59
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What glial cells form the myelin sheath in the PNS?

Schwann cells.

60
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What does the Na⁺/K⁺ pump move and in which directions?

3 Na⁺ out and 2 K⁺ in.

61
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During an action potential, which ion influx causes depolarization?

Na⁺.

62
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Which phase restores negativity inside the neuron?

Repolarization via K⁺ exit.

63
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What type of postsynaptic potential increases action-potential likelihood?

Excitatory Postsynaptic Potential (EPSP).

64
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Which proprioceptor senses muscle stretch?

Muscle spindle.

65
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Which proprioceptor monitors tension and prevents excessive force?

Golgi tendon organ.

66
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Define motor unit.

A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates.

67
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Which motor units are recruited first according to the size principle?

Type I (slow-twitch) small units.

68
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What brain region coordinates movement and balance?

Cerebellum.

69
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Which autonomic division is known for “fight or flight”?

Sympathetic nervous system.

70
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Which neurotransmitter is released by sympathetic postganglionic neurons?

Norepinephrine.

71
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List one benefit of regular exercise to brain health.

Increased blood flow, neurogenesis, or reduced risk of dementia/depression.

72
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What is the primary function of skeletal muscles related to movement?

Force production for movement and breathing.

73
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Name the connective tissue layer surrounding an entire muscle.

Epimysium.

74
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What stem cells aid muscle growth and repair?

Satellite cells.

75
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Which two contractile proteins form cross-bridges?

Actin and myosin.

76
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What organelle releases Ca²⁺ to trigger contraction?

Sarcoplasmic reticulum.

77
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Which structure conducts action potentials deep into a muscle fiber?

T-tubules.

78
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Which sarcomere band contains only thin filaments?

I-band.

79
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What happens to the H-zone during full muscle contraction?

It disappears.

80
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What neurotransmitter is released at the neuromuscular junction?

Acetylcholine.

81
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During the power stroke, ATP is hydrolyzed into what products?

ADP and Pi.

82
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Why is ATP also required for muscle relaxation?

It detaches myosin from actin and powers Ca²⁺ reuptake.

83
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What condition occurs when no ATP is available after death?

Rigor mortis.

84
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How does thixotropy affect muscle stiffness after prolonged sitting?

Muscles feel stiff but loosen with movement.

85
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What reflex automatically withdraws a limb from a painful stimulus?

Withdrawal reflex.

86
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What is neural fatigue theory?

Suggests exercise fatigue results from reduced neurotransmitter availability causing lower motor output.