Managerial Accounting Final

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100 Terms

1
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What is the first step in strategic planning?

A) Defining action items

B) Performing SWOT analysis

C) Setting the mission

D) Allocating resources

C) Setting the mission

2
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Which element defines the "boundaries of acceptable activities" for a company?

A) Vision

B) Mission

C) Values

D) Objectives

B) Mission

3
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SWOT analysis focuses on analyzing:

A) Only internal factors

B) Only external environment

C) Internal and external factors

D) Customer perceptions

C) Internal and external factors

4
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What represents a company's long-term aspiration?

A) Strategy

B) Vision

C) Business plan

D) Tactical plan

B) Vision

5
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In strategic planning, what comes after listing resources?

A) Strategic options

B) Tactical planning

C) Financial planning

D) SWOT Analysis

A) Strategic options

6
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Which model is used to evaluate organizational aspects?

A) Porter's 5 Forces

B) SWOT

C) BCG Matrix

D) McKinsey 7S

D) McKinsey 7S

7
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What is the purpose of a contingency plan in strategy?

A) Improve marketing channels

B) Increase brand loyalty

C) Prepare for unexpected changes

D) Increase short-term profits

C) Prepare for unexpected changes

8
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Fact-based conclusions in a strategic analysis help prevent:

A) Extinction by instinct

B) Financial mismanagement

C) Operational inefficiency

D) Stakeholder dissatisfaction

A) Extinction by instinct

9
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When adjusting strategy, managers should learn from:

A) Customers and competition

B) Only shareholders

C) Internal reports only

D) Marketing data only

A) Customers and competition

10
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The Balanced Scorecard measures:

A) Only financial performance

B) Short- and long-term goals

C) Only operational efficiency

D) Only market share

B) Short- and long-term goals

11
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In firm valuation, the P/E ratio represents:

A) Price to Equity

B) Price per Share divided by Earnings per Share

C) Net profit divided by total assets

D) Dividend yield

B) Price per Share divided by Earnings per Share

12
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A higher P/E ratio generally suggests:

A) Low growth expectations

B) Strong expected growth

C) Low investor confidence

D) High debt levels

B) Strong expected growth

13
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Return on Investment (ROI) measures:

A) Future expenses

B) Gains relative to the initial investment

C) Company debt

D) Total number of shares

B) Gains relative to the initial investment

14
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Investors primarily seek:

A) Brand loyalty

B) High returns with minimal risk

C) New product features

D) High initial sales volume

B) High returns with minimal risk

15
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If your projected EPS is 4 and your price multiplier is 10, what is your projected stock price?

A) 4

B) 10

C) 40

D) 400

C) 40

16
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A higher projected stock price leads to:

A) More shares needing to be sold

B) Fewer shares needing to be sold

C) Higher operating costs

D) Lower profitability

B) Fewer shares needing to be sold

17
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Venture Capitalists will typically cut financial projections:

A) By 10%

B) In half

C) By 90%

D) By 5%

B) In half

18
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A key way to improve investor risk assessment is:

A) Having optimistic statements

B) Ignoring threats

C) Providing a good assessment of current conditions

D) Promising 10x returns

C) Providing a good assessment of current conditions

19
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What is the real-world equivalent of a quarter in the simulation?

A) 1 month

B) 3 months

C) 6 months

D) 1 year

D) 1 year

20
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A simple method for estimating ROI includes starting with:

A) Dividends

B) Projected Earnings Per Share (EPS)

C) Gross profit

D) Operating cash flow

B) Projected Earnings Per Share (EPS)

21
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In Q1, companies are expected to:

A) Launch three brands

B) Name their company and open a sales outlet

C) Acquire another company

D) Pay dividends

B) Name their company and open a sales outlet

22
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What is the goal during the test market phase (Q2)?

A) Maximize profits

B) Maximize learning

C) Launch a national campaign

D) Increase shareholder dividends

B) Maximize learning

23
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Managing cash during early quarters is critical because:

A) Cash flow will always be positive

B) You must survive early uncertainty

C) Debt will be easily available

D) Investors fund negative balances automatically

B) You must survive early uncertainty

24
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Stockouts can cause:

A) Increased customer loyalty

B) Customer ill-will

C) Higher unit production costs

D) Reduced marketing effectiveness

B) Customer ill-will

25
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What does a price response function measure?

A) Stock price volatility

B) Competitor marketing budgets

C) Customer reactions to price changes

D) Factory output

C) Customer reactions to price changes

26
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Which of the following is NOT a goal of competitive benchmarking?

A) Emulating good decisions

B) Predicting future competitor moves

C) Ignoring competitor strategies

D) Identifying threats

C) Ignoring competitor strategies

27
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In the early quarters, most companies should expect:

A) Immediate profitability

B) Net losses and negative cash flow

C) Large market share

D) Steady dividend payments

B) Net losses and negative cash flow

28
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Projecting pro forma cash flows involves preparing:

A) Optimistic scenarios only

B) Worst-case and pessimistic scenarios

C) Only breakeven analysis

D) Only sales projections

B) Worst-case and pessimistic scenarios

29
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Managing human resources effectively includes:

A) Providing no benefits to save costs

B) Balancing compensation and productivity

C) Hiring only temporary workers

D) Ignoring job satisfaction

B) Balancing compensation and productivity

30
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A Just-in-Time production system minimizes:

A) Production errors

B) Inventory and storage needs

C) Brand diversification

D) Marketing costs

B) Inventory and storage needs

31
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High production levels result in:

A) Higher per-unit production costs

B) Lower per-unit production costs

C) Lower production risks

D) Higher storage requirements

B) Lower per-unit production costs

32
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Low production levels can lead to:

A) Lower unit costs

B) Stockouts and lost sales

C) Higher employee morale

D) Lower customer demand

B) Stockouts and lost sales

33
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Fast Eddy in financial planning is used to:

A) Predict competitor actions

B) Speed up financial decisions

C) Lower advertising costs

D) Reduce employee turnover

B) Speed up financial decisions

34
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Ending cash position should be at least how much in a pessimistic scenario?

A) 50,000

B) 100,000

C) 200,000

D) 500,000

B) 100,000

35
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Ending cash position should be at least how much in a worst-case scenario?

A) 25,000

B) 75,000

C) 100,000

D) 500,000

C) 100,000

36
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Pro Forma Financial Statements are based on:

A) Historical data

B) Budget assumptions

C) Marketing survey results

D) Competitor price reports

B) Budget assumptions

37
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A balanced cash strategy requires:

A) Aggressive borrowing

B) Large product inventories

C) Careful cash flow control

D) High executive compensation

C) Careful cash flow control

38
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The goal of cash management is to:

A) Increase operating losses

B) Avoid insolvency

C) Cut marketing budgets

D) Increase employee bonuses

B) Avoid insolvency

39
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Over-producing can lead to:

A) Stockouts

B) Excess capacity

C) Lower production costs

D) Higher customer satisfaction

B) Excess capacity

40
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Under-producing can lead to:

A) Lower unit costs

B) Stockouts and customer dissatisfaction

C) Reduced marketing need

D) Excess cash

B) Stockouts and customers dissatisfaction

41
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Customer value can be described as:

A) The features of a product

B) The cost to produce a product

C) The benefits received minus the price paid

D) The number of units sold

C) The benefits received minus the price paid

42
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An example of customer value is:

A) Low advertising costs

B) A car’s smooth handling and safety

C) Executive salaries

D) Factory efficiency

B) A car’s smooth handling and safely

43
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Value is built into a product through:

A) Employee incentives

B) Advertising campaigns

C) Attributes and features

D) Stockholder investments

C) Attributes and features

44
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What is the net difference customers consider?

A) Brand image and price

B) Price and production cost

C) Payment terms and taxes

D) Price paid and benefits received

D) Price paid and benefits received

45
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Which interview method helped understand customer value?

A) Quantitative survey

B) Focus group

C) In-depth individual interview

D) Financial audit

C) In-depth individual interview

46
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A Customer Satisfaction Score of 70 indicates:

A) Unacceptable product

B) A very strong brand rating

C) A bad sales process

D) Critical production errors

B) A very strong brand rating

47
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Why should companies monitor customer satisfaction?

A) To track internal profitability

B) To benchmark against competitors

C) To reduce production costs

D) To cut labor costs

B) To benchmark against competitors

48
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How does differential advantage affect price elasticity?

A) Decreases price sensitivity

B) Increases marketing budget

C) Raises unit production costs

D) Lowers customer loyalty

A) Decreases price sensitivity

49
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What reduces price sensitivity?

A) Higher executive bonuses

B) Differential advantage

C) Employee bonuses

D) Stockholder dividends

B) Differential advantage

50
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The ultimate value of a product is linked to:

A) Its number of features

B) Its market share

C) The real benefit delivered to the customer

D) Its factory location

C) The real benefit delivered to the customer

51
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Skillful adjustment involves:

A) Reducing production only

B) Following competitors blindly

C) Responding to customer feedback

D) Increasing salaries only

C) Responding to customer feedback

52
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Strategic analysis must consider:

A) Internal financial projections only

B) Only customer complaints

C) Internal and external factors

D) Only competition pricing

C) Internal and external factors

53
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What must you reverse engineer in competitive benchmarking?

A) Financial statements

B) Management decisions

C) Competitor strategies

D) Production processes

C) Competitor strategies

54
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What is the goal of financial management within the firm?

A) Only marketing growth

B) Maximizing short-term revenues only

C) Identifying strengths and weaknesses

D) Minimizing brand launches

C) Identifying strengths and weaknesses

55
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Why is measuring brand profitability important?

A) To determine executive pay

B) To cut marketing staff

C) To allocate resources wisely

D) To avoid selling products

C) To allocate resources wisely

56
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Competitive benchmarking allows you to:

A) Hide weaknesses

B) Copy financial reports

C) Predict competitor moves

D) Focus only on internal goals

C) Predict competitor moves

57
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Production operations should align with:

A) Advertising team wishes

B) Financial and marketing goals

C) Employee bonus plans

D) Vendor recommendations

B) Financial and marketing goals

58
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Competitor strategy prediction helps in:

A) Increasing factory output only

B) Preemptive strategic action

C) Boosting production costs

D) Avoiding international markets

B) Preemptive strategic action

59
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Customer feedback directly impacts:

A) Internal cash flow

B) Production floor staffing

C) Future marketing decisions

D) Sales outlet leases

C) Future marketing decisions

60
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Key strategic lesson from Dwight Eisenhower:

A) Planning is everything

B) Speed is more important than accuracy

C) Ignore competitor moves

D) Focus only on short-term results

A) Planning is everything

61
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What is the key reason plans fail?

A) Poor implementation

B) Wrong initial assumptions

C) High costs

D) Fast decision-making

62
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Emergent strategy means:

A) Planning strictly by budgets

B) Reacting flexibly to real events

C) Ignoring competitor feedback

D) Spending heavily on marketing

63
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Fast response to changes indicates:

A) Lack of planning

B) Poor strategic direction

C) Good management

D) Slow market adjustment

64
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Planning vs. Plans concept suggests:

A) Plans are useless; planning is crucial

B) Plans should never change

C) Planning and plans are identical

D) Focus on perfect plans only

65
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Napoleon's advice was to check if you are:

A) Rich

B) Lucky

C) Smart

D) Educated

66
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Strategic acid-tests involve checking:

A) Objectives, Resource Allocation, Advantage

B) Production plans only

C) Marketing budgets only

D) Employee satisfaction only

67
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Good long-term strategy includes:

A) Ignoring short-term needs

B) Strong short-term financial position

C) Spending all cash reserves

D) Focusing only on market share

68
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A weak short-term financial position can:

A) Strengthen marketing results

B) Endanger long-term survival

C) Increase brand loyalty

D) Decrease customer satisfaction

69
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Financial validation ensures:

A) Good employee morale

B) Accurate financial projections

C) Increased advertising costs

D) Reduced competition

70
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Strategic thrusts must be:

A) Vague and broad

B) Aligned to chosen strategy

C) Focused on maximum expansion only

D) Centered on employee turnover

71
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Market makers must:

A) Create demand actively

B) Wait for market orders

C) Focus only on manufacturing

D) Ignore advertising needs

72
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Salespeople's productivity depends on:

A) Their education

B) Compensation packages and job satisfaction

C) How many brands the firm offers

D) Advertising expenditure only

73
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How often should advertising be placed?

A) Randomly

B) As often as possible without strategy

C) Based on market response and competitor actions

D) Only once a year

74
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Price elasticity is impacted by:

A) Financial liquidity

B) Differential advantage

C) Factory production capacity

D) Number of advertisements

75
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A good ad campaign must be:

A) Long and complicated

B) Focused and targeted

C) Expensive and flashy

D) Without customer research

76
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Differential advantage shifts:

A) Customer awareness

B) Demand curve upward

C) Employee loyalty

D) Company profit margin

77
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Market response is:

A) Static

B) Dynamic and changing

C) Always favorable

D) Always negative

78
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High compensation packages improve:

A) Employee turnover

B) Customer service

C) Executive profit sharing

D) Advertising ROI

79
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Undercompensating employees can result in:

A) Higher production output

B) Low morale and productivity

C) Stronger brand image

D) Increased sales

80
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Sales outlet location is critical because:

A) It determines brand colors

B) It affects customer access and sales volume

C) It reduces advertising need

D) It cuts manufacturing costs

81
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Manufacturing productivity is linked to:

A) Advertising reach

B) Efficient use of resources

C) Increasing salaries

D) Higher market share only

82
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The Balanced Scorecard helps in:

A) Measuring only profitability

B) Measuring financial and non-financial success

C) Reducing staff turnover

D) Increasing production costs

83
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Human Resources reports provide:

A) Employee engagement insights

B) Competitor brand information

C) Factory maintenance reports

D) Only marketing expense data

84
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Activity-Based Costing (ABC) analyzes:

A) Direct labor costs only

B) Cost drivers across activities

C) Marketing ROI

D) Shareholder dividends

85
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Industry benchmarks help assess:

A) Internal weaknesses only

B) Executive salaries

C) Company performance relative to competition

D) Annual depreciation

86
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Razor's edge production management focuses on:

A) Balancing production with cash availability

B) Maximizing factory size

C) Reducing human resources needs

D) Increasing product prices

87
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Pessimistic scenarios simulate:

A) Best market conditions

B) 50% decrease in demand

C) Double market growth

D) High employee turnover

88
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When should you rerun factory simulations?

A) After every marketing decision

B) After every major operational decision change

C) Only before opening a second sales outlet

D) At the start of each fiscal year

89
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Pro Forma Cash Flow should always be checked for:

A) Product margins

B) Ending cash sufficiency

C) Advertisement expense

D) Brand loyalty

90
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Worst-case scenarios assume:

A) Maximum cash inflows

B) 100% brand loyalty

C) Severe demand drop

D) No competitor movement

91
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Strategy crafting differs from:

A) Emergency planning

B) Strategy formulation

C) Financial auditing

D) Production scheduling

92
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Strategic Planning relies on:

A) Random guesses

B) Distilled and analyzed information

C) Aggressive marketing only

D) Copying industry leaders

93
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A "touch of class" in presentations improves:

A) Executive bonuses

B) Investor confidence

C) Brand production

D) Employee satisfaction

94
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Weaknesses identified in SWOT analysis should be:

A) Ignored

B) Addressed with action plans

C) Hidden from investors

D) Outsourced to consultants

95
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Business continues during:

A) Strategy restructuring

B) Market shutdowns

C) Competitor takeovers

D) Factory renovations only

96
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Strategic options arise from:

A) Competitive advertising

B) SWOT conclusions

C) New shareholder elections

D) Factory audits

97
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Investing in the future requires:

A) Buying new inventory

B) Investment in learning and innovation

C) Cutting all non-essential staff

D) Spending all available cash

98
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Financial risk must be balanced against:

A) Strategic goals

B) Executive bonuses

C) Factory overhead costs

D) Competitor advertisements

99
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Good strategic management involves:

A) Monitoring objectives vs results

B) Outsourcing financial functions

C) Ignoring customer loyalty

D) Avoiding all debt

100
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Marketplace success requires mastering:

A) Single department operations

B) Integrated strategic and operational management

C) Only production processes

D) External brand sponsorships