NCLEX Review Flashcards: Management of Care, Fundamentals, Safety, Pharmacology (Based on Lecture Notes)

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A set of practice flashcards covering management of care, fundamentals, safety, infection control, Ostomy care, NG feedings, central lines, TPN, pharmacology suffixes, and common NCLEX-style scenarios based on the provided lecture notes.

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96 Terms

1
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What NCLEX test plan area accounts for 17-23% of readiness and includes collaboration, confidentiality, delegation, prioritization, ethics, and informed consent?

Management of care

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What component of management of care involves planning discharge and coordinating resources for optimal outcomes?

Case management (within management of care)

3
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What is a clinical/critical pathway?

A standardized order set that predicts steps and timing for care to standardize treatment and control costs

4
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What is the difference between an incident report and a variance report?

An incident report documents an incident; a variance report documents deviation from the expected plan; terms can be used interchangeably in practice

5
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ISBAR is a communication framework used for handoffs. What does ISBAR stand for?

Introduction, Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation

6
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What is the first step in priority-setting when multiple patient needs arise?

Begin with the highest priority task and complete it before moving to the next; re-prioritize as new information appears

7
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In NCLEX-style prioritization, which type of problem is highest priority?

Acute (systemic) problems before local or chronic problems

8
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Differentiate actual vs potential problems in prioritization.

Actual problems are current, real issues; potential problems are risks to monitor; address actual problems first

9
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What is considered the most reliable indicator of fluid status in heart failure management?

Daily weights; weight is the best indicator of fluid status in HF

10
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Which IV meds require titration and are usually within the RN scope?

IV insulin, heparin drips, and other continuously titrated IV meds (not typically started or titrated by LPN/UAP)

11
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Who typically performs Foley catheter insertion and sterile dressing changes?

Licensed personnel (RN/LPN); UAP generally cannot perform Foley insertion (practice varies by setting)

12
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Who obtains informed consent for a surgical procedure?

The surgeon performs the consent; the nurse witnesses and ensures patient understanding and voluntariness

13
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Which action is the highest priority in a patient with acute glomerulonephritis and very low urine output?

Address the low urine output as a potential renal distress and monitor closely for renal function changes

14
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Which tasks are appropriate for a UAP (unlicensed assistive personnel) to perform?

Ambulating a client with a walker (when not the first time); other ADL support; not initiating referrals or complex assessments

15
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Which action should be taken before starting an IV or medication via IV piggyback?

Ensure IV access is established and notify if any issues; for IV meds, do not start IV if not already in place and under order

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What is the purpose of an NG tube?

Gastric decompression and relief of distention in ileus/obstruction; bowel rest when needed

17
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What is the best initial method to verify NG tube placement?

Chest X-ray verification is the gold standard for initial placement

18
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What determines whether to refeed residuals during NG feeding?

For intermittent feeding: residuals >100 mL typically prompt holding/refeed decisions; for continuous feeding, residual limits vary (often 100-250 mL q4h) per order

19
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What types of meds can be given via NG tube?

Most meds can be crushed and given via NG tube; avoid enteric-coated, extended-release (ER) meds; flush with 20-30 mL water between meds

20
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If a patient with an NG tube is on suction, what should you do before giving meds?

Keep suction off for 60 minutes after giving medications through the NG tube

21
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Name three enteral feeding routes.

Nasogastric (NG), nasoduodenal, nasojejunal tubes; also PEG, gastrostomy (G) or jejunostomy (J) tubes

22
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What head-of-bed elevation is recommended for NG feeding to reduce aspiration risk?

Head of bed at least 30 degrees

23
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Residual and placement checks during NG feeding: when are they performed and how often?

Placement verified by X-ray initially; residual checked per order (continuous q4h or as intermittent with each feed); pH check possible if tube is in place and appropriate

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What is a common feeding complication that would require slowing or stopping the rate?

Symptoms of intolerance: cramping, nausea, vomiting, or high residuals

25
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What is the difference between a G-tube and a J-tube?

G-tube feeds into the stomach; J-tube bypasses the stomach and feeds into the jejunum; choice depends on GI function and tolerance

26
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What is the acronym for stoma color assessment and what color is normal?

Brick red to beefy red is normal; pale, dusky, blue, or black indicates compromised blood supply

27
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What should you assess before applying an ostomy wafer?

Measure stoma size to ensure proper fit; ensure wafer is not too tight or too loose around the stoma

28
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What feeding device might be used for newborns with cleft lip/palate?

Special feeding devices (e.g., cleft palate/nuc nipple feeders) to aid feeding and reduce aspiration

29
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What are key SIDS prevention recommendations?

Back-to-sleep position; pacifier use can be protective; avoid pillows, stuffed toys, and loose bedding; car seat rear-facing in back seat

30
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What are the four main types of central lines with a brief use case?

PICC (long-term IV access), implanted port (port-a-cath for frequent access), tunneled central line (long-term), non-tunneled central line (short-term, critical access)

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Which type of central line requires sterile technique and usually a surgical dressing change?

Central lines (PICC, port, tunneled) require sterile technique and dressing changes; not peripheral lines

32
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What is TPN and how is it delivered?

Total parenteral nutrition; hypertonic solution delivered via a central venous line; not through NG tube; bags changed every 24 hours; strict glucose monitoring

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What lab monitoring is typically done for a patient on TPN?

Blood glucose every 4-6 hours; electrolytes; lipid panel; liver function tests; CBC; monitor hydration status

34
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What are two major risks with TPN that require close monitoring?

Hyperglycemia/hypoglycemia due to dextrose; risk of infection from central line; ensure patency and sterile technique

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What is the recommended approach to prepare and administer a TPN bag?

Every 24 hours, prepare a new bag with updated orders/labs; change tubing with each bag; use a dedicated line and monitor for signs of complications

36
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Which antibiotic is first-line for syphilis treatment?

Penicillin

37
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Which body system signs would you monitor in a patient with Lyme disease?

Fever, fatigue, joint pain; treat with doxycycline; report to provider as needed; consider skin rash after tick bite

38
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What PPE is required for airborne isolation and what are the room requirements?

N95 respirator; private negative-pressure room; six feet distance; limit visitors to about 30 minutes

39
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How do you manage a patient with suspected meningitis in terms of isolation and signs to monitor?

Place on appropriate isolation; initiate antibiotics after cultures; monitor Brudzinski and Kernig signs; seizure precautions; quiet room

40
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What is the initial management for a patient on seizure precautions?

Provide a quiet environment; cluster care minimized; keep bed in safe position; monitor for seizures

41
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What is PROM vs PPROM and their management goals?

PROM = premature rupture of membranes; PPROM = preterm PROM; monitor for infection; use tocolytics and bed rest as ordered; fetal monitoring

42
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What is a key nursing intervention for preventing autonomic dysreflexia in patients with spinal cord injury?

Identify and remove triggering stimuli (e.g., kinked catheter, constipation); sit patient up; monitor BP and HR

43
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What is the role of bleach in infection control for HIV/AIDS patients and other blood-borne pathogens?

Disinfect spills and contaminated surfaces with EPA-registered bleach solutions; treat all blood/bodily fluids as potentially infectious

44
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What are common signs of neutropenic precautions in cancer patients?

Private room; no fresh fruits/flowers; meticulous hygiene; no raw foods; avoid infection risk; monitor for fever

45
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What is the correct handling for ocular eye drops to minimize systemic absorption and interactions between drops?

Apply gentle pressure on the inner canthus for 1 minute; wait at least 5 minutes between different eye drops; avoid touching dropper to eye

46
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Which suffix is associated with ACE inhibitors and give two examples?

Pril; examples: captopril, lisinopril

47
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Which suffix is associated with ARBs and give an example?

Sartan; example: losartan, valsartan

48
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Which suffix is associated with beta-blockers and give an example?

Lol; example: metoprolol, atenolol

49
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Which suffix indicates calcium channel blockers and give an example?

Dipine (or sometimes other endings like diltiazem); examples: amlodipine, nifedipine

50
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Which suffix is characteristic of H2 receptor antagonists and give an example?

Tid ine; examples: famotidine, ranitidine

51
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Which suffix resembles a PPI but is not a PPI and requires careful attention to avoid trick questions?

Prazole-like endings; proper PPI examples: pantoprazole, omeprazole; an entrant impostor example discussed was aripiprazole (Abilify)

52
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What is the teaching point for patients taking statins in terms of monitoring and dietary considerations?

Monitor liver enzymes (LFTs) and CK for rhabdomyolysis; avoid grapefruit juice; report muscle aches; normal total cholesterol <200

53
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What are signs of statin-induced rhabdomyolysis and when is CK particularly important?

Muscle pain, weakness, dark urine; CK elevated; highest risk in first weeks of therapy

54
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Which foods should be avoided with certain GI conditions like GERD and dumping syndrome, and what are the common diet strategies?

Smaller, more frequent meals; avoid large meals; for GERD remain upright after meals; for dumping syndrome separate meals and fluids; fluids separate from meals

55
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What dietary advice is commonly given for diverticulitis during acute and recovery phases?

Clear liquids during acute phase; high-fiber diet after recovery; avoid seeds/nuts if prescribed; bowel rest initially

56
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In Crohn’s disease, what appearance is typical in the GI tract and how does it differ from ulcerative colitis?

Crohn’s: cobblestone appearance; often bloody mucous diarrhea; ulcerative colitis: continuous colonic ulcers; both are inflammatory bowel diseases

57
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What dietary considerations are common for Crohn’s disease and for celiac disease?

Crohn’s: high-calorie, high-nutrient, may require low-fiber during flares; celiac disease: no gluten; monitor GI symptoms and diet

58
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What is the recommended pre-surgery status if a patient has taken Versed (midazolam) an hour before consent?

Consent should be canceled or rescheduled because patient may not be able to give informed consent while sedated

59
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What is the standard oxygen safety precaution for patients on home continuous oxygen therapy?

Avoid wool blankets near oxygen; keep oxygen equipment organized and accessible; avoid smoking; ensure proper storage of fuels

60
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What should be documented or considered when performing a sterile dressing change for a central line?

Use aseptic technique; sterile field; appropriate dressing; monitor for infection; maintain blood return; document care

61
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What is the nursing approach to a patient with a G-tube that requires feeding after a meal?

Check placement (X-ray initially); check residuals; flush with 20-30 mL water between meds and feeds; slow rate if intolerance

62
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What is a key nursing intervention to prevent infection in a patient with a central line?

Maintain aseptic technique; ensure dressing changes are sterile; monitor for signs of infection; monitor for blood return and patency

63
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Which patient actions would require contact precautions as a nurse?

Treating a patient with a contagious infection requiring gown and gloves; hand hygiene is essential; PPE as per isolation type

64
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What is the teaching point for correct urinary catheter care by patients with indwelling catheters?

Keep the catheter patent; secure to prevent traction; maintain clean technique around the meatus; avoid pulling on the catheter

65
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Which steps are important in a proper urinary catheter port/collection care in culture collection?

Clean port, clamp tubing below the port; collect specimen aseptically; re-clamp and resume drainage; label and send specimen

66
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What patient education points are important for a patient starting a new colostomy care regimen?

Educate on stoma care, measurement, skin barrier, proper wafer fit; assess stoma color; monitor output; keep skin intact

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How should a patient with premature rupture of membranes (PROM) be managed?

Monitor for infection; fetal monitoring; consider tocolytics if indicated; bed rest as ordered; observe for signs of infection

68
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What is a common nursing intervention for a patient with pancreatitis on TPN?

Monitor for signs of infection, monitor glucose, ensure proper electrolyte balance; monitor hepatic function; maintain hydration

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What is a practical tip for managing enteral feeding with multiple medications?

Crush medications one at a time; flush between meds; avoid mixing multiple medications together

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What is the best practice for a patient with acute kidney injury and requiring diuretics regarding urine output measurement?

Monitor daily weights; track urine output; adjust diuretic therapy based on response and lab data

71
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What are the key signs of a pneumothorax risk when inserting central lines?

Acute chest pain, shortness of breath, decreased breath sounds; monitor for respiratory distress after line placement

72
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What is the first-line management for a brachytherapy patient with sealed radiation implants regarding patient and staff safety?

Maintain distance (6 feet), limit time with the patient (30 minutes), use dosimeters and signage; restrict pregnant staff

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Which patient teaching point is essential for patients taking levothyroxine?

Take on an empty stomach, first thing in the morning; wait at least 30 minutes before eating; separate from other meds that affect absorption

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What is the recommended practice for administration of bisphosphonates (e.g., alendronate) to minimize GI side effects?

Take on an empty stomach with a full glass of water; remain upright for 30 minutes after taking; do not take with food

75
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What is the clinical sign of digoxin toxicity early in presentation?

Gastrointestinal symptoms (nausea, vomiting, anorexia), later visual changes (blurred vision, halos)

76
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What is the correct approach to a patient who is on hypotension-inducing nitroglycerin patches and experiences a headache?

Remove the patch; reassess; if pain persists, evaluate for alternative therapy; monitor BP and adjust dose

77
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Which statement correctly describes the management of a vesicant chemotherapy extravasation?

Stop infusion, aspirate if possible, administer antidote per protocol, and use extravasation kit; notify physician

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What is the main precaution for a patient on a neutropenic diet at home?

Avoid fresh fruits/vegetables, flowers; ensure good personal hygiene; avoid potential infection sources

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Which nursing practice helps prevent medication administration errors in enteral feeding?

Verify tube placement; check residuals; crush meds one at a time; flush between meds; avoid crushing extended-release meds

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What is the key dressing-change principle for a central venous catheter?

Sterile technique; maintain a sterile field; keep the line patent and dry; monitor for infection signs

81
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Which patient scenario illustrates the need for a privacy-preserving change of shift report?

Handoff at the bedside with patient involvement; no hallway report; ensure patient safety and understanding

82
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What is a common key difference between Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis in terms of pathology?

Crohn’s can affect any part of the GI tract with cobblestone appearance; UC is limited to colon with continuous ulcers

83
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Which patient condition would benefit most from a high-calorie, high-nutrient diet and pancreatic enzyme supplementation with meals?

Crohn’s disease with malabsorption; pancreatitis with exocrine insufficiency

84
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What is a standard nursing action when a patient has a new ostomy and is in the process of learning stoma care?

Provide hands-on instruction, assess comprehension, reinforce skin barrier and appliance fitting, monitor stoma color

85
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For newborn injections, which site is preferred for IM administration?

Vastus lateralis (eyes and thighs) for infants; ventrogluteal for older children

86
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What is a common discharge teaching point for a patient with a new colostomy regarding daily care?

Keep skin clean/dry, measure stoma size before applying wafer, monitor skin integrity, empty pouch regularly

87
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Which of the following best describes the management of a patient with suspected Lyme disease?

Administer doxycycline (or appropriate antibiotic); monitor symptoms; prevent tick exposure; report if necessary

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Which statement about SIRS/sepsis risk in neonates is accurate?

Neonates may present with temperature instability, poor feeding, tachypnea, lethargy; treat promptly with cultures and antibiotics

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What is the correct action to take when a patient on IV fluids begins to show signs of dehydration during TPN?

Assess intake, monitor urine output, adjust electrolyte balance, ensure adequate hydration; verify line patency and nutrition content

90
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What is the key concept of the ‘Parkland formula’ in burn care?

Fluids resuscitation calculation for burns (not detailed in notes); used to guide initial fluid management

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What is the correct approach to a patient with severe hypoxic symptoms after chest tube insertion with continuous bubbling in the suction control chamber?

Assess tube placement and function; ensure suction is active; monitor for air leaks and chest tube patency

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Which of the following actions is appropriate when assisting a patient with a walker?

Advance the walker, then step into it; use armrests to stand from a chair; ensure proper gait pattern (arm opposite leg)

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What should you verify before giving an MMR vaccine (or other vaccines) to a patient?

Assess for contraindications and ensure eligibility; ensure patient is not currently acutely ill; verify vaccine timing and dosing

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What is a key consideration when delivering IV piggyback medications?

Do not mix with IV push medications; ensure compatibility; verify administration sequence and flush between meds

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Which of the following best describes the appropriate management of a patient with a sealed radiation implant?

Maintain distance (6 feet), limit time with patient (30 minutes), monitor with dosimeters, restrict visitors; keep radioisotopes shielded

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What is a recommended nursing practice for preventing falls at home for elderly patients?

Install grab bars; wear proper shoes; remove throw rugs; use stair-edge markers; keep items within reach