Radiology unit 5

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55 Terms

1
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Which type of contrast is preferred for imaging the radius and ulna?

A. Long scale of contrast

B. Short scale of contrast

C. High contrast with many grays

D. Low mAs contrast

B. Short scale of contrast

2
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For a mediolateral view of the radius and ulna, what positioning aid is typically used?

A. V-trough

B. Foam wedge under sternum

C. Foam block under thorax

D. Sandbag on the carpus

C. Foam block under thorax

3
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The beam for radiographing the radius and ulna should be centered at:

A. Elbow joint

B. Carpus

C. Midshaft of the radius/ulna

D. Humeral head

C. Midshaft of the radius/ulna

4
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Which anatomical landmarks should be included in a radiograph of the radius and ulna?

A. Shoulder to carpus

B. Elbow to carpus

C. Midshaft to phalanges

D. Humerus to elbow

B. Elbow to carpus

5
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What type of contrast is needed for abdominal radiographs?

A. Short scale (blacks and whites)

B. Long scale (more grays)

C. Mixed scale

D. High contrast only

B. Long scale (more grays)

6
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When should an abdominal radiograph be taken?

A. On inhalation

B. During exhalation

C. During inspiration pause

D. At full inhalation

B. During exhalation

7
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Which preparation step may be necessary before taking abdominal radiographs?

A. Applying contrast media

B. Using an iodine scrub

C. Fasting and/or enema

D. Hydration therapy

C. Fasting and/or enema

8
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For a lateral abdominal view, a foam wedge should be placed:

A. Under the pelvis

B. Under the sternum

C. Under the head

D. Under the lumbar spine

B. Under the sternum

9
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In a VD abdominal projection, which device is used to support the patient?

A. V-trough

B. Foam block

C. Lead apron

D. Sandbag

A. V-trough

10
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Which region should be included in an abdominal radiograph?

A. Diaphragm to pelvic inlet

B. Liver to caudal ribs

C. Diaphragm to femoral head

D. Stomach to bladder

C. Diaphragm to femoral head

11
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For dogs, the beam in an abdominal radiograph should be centered at:

A. 13th rib (caudal aspect)

B. 10th rib

C. Umbilicus

D. Iliac crest

A. 13th rib (caudal aspect)

12
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For cats, the beam for an abdominal radiograph should be centered:

A. At the 13th rib

B. 2 fingers cranial to the 13th rib

C. 2 fingers caudal to the 13th rib

D. At the femoral head

C. 2 fingers caudal to the 13th rib

13
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Which type of contrast is required for thoracic radiographs?

A. Long scale (more grays)

B. Short scale (more black/white)

C. High contrast

D. Medium scale

A. Long scale (more grays)

14
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Thoracic radiographs should be taken:

A. During exhalation

B. During inhalation

C. At rest

D. After contrast administration

B. During inhalation

15
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For a thoracic lateral view, a foam wedge is placed:

A. Under abdomen

B. Under sternum

C. Under head

D. Under scapula

B. Under sternum

16
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Where should the beam be centered for a thoracic radiograph?

A. Mid-thorax

B. Caudal border of the scapula

C. At the heart

D. Over the diaphragm

B. Caudal border of the scapula

17
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Which region must be included in a thoracic radiograph?

A. Thoracic inlet to diaphragm

B. Thoracic inlet to last rib

C. Heart to sternum

D. Diaphragm to pelvis

B. Thoracic inlet to last rib

18
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Why should front legs be pulled cranially for thoracic and abdominal radiographs?

A. To elongate the thoracic cavity

B. To prevent rotation

C. To center the diaphragm

D. To balance exposure

A. To elongate the thoracic cavity

19
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What is the general purpose of radiographic positioning aids?

A. Improve radiation intensity

B. Reduce motion artifacts

C. Increase mAs

D. Change contrast

B. Reduce motion artifacts

20
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Fluoroscopy is primarily used for:

A. Evaluating bone density

B. Real-time imaging of moving structures

C. Detecting fractures

D. Assessing lung volume

B. Real-time imaging of moving structures

21
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Which procedure may involve fluoroscopic guidance?

A. Ultrasound

B. Orthopedic surgery

C. Dental radiography

D. MRI scan

B. Orthopedic surgery

22
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Which diagnostic study uses radioisotopes and a gamma camera?

A. CT

B. MRI

C. Nuclear scintigraphy

D. Fluoroscopy

C. Nuclear scintigraphy

23
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Technetium-99m has a half-life of approximately:

A. 2 hours

B. 6 hours

C. 12 hours

D. 24 hours

B. 6 hours

24
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After nuclear scintigraphy, waste is stored in a lead-lined container for:

A. 12 hours

B. 24 hours

C. 48 hours

D. 72 hours

C. 48 hours

25
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During a bone scan, the soft tissue phase occurs:

A. Immediately after injection

B. 5-10 minutes post-injection

C. 2-3 hours after injection

D. 6 hours after injection

B. 5-10 minutes post-injection

26
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The bone phase of a bone scan occurs:

A. Immediately after injection

B. 5 minutes later

C. 2-3 hours later

D. 6 hours later

C. 2-3 hours later

27
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Fluoroscopy operates in what special mode?

A. Dynamic mode

B. Continuous or pulsed 'fluoro' mode

C. Still-image mode

D. Single-exposure mode

B. Continuous or pulsed 'fluoro' mode

28
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The image intensifier in fluoroscopy functions to:

A. Generate x-rays

B. Increase brightness of the image

C. Store radiographs

D. Enhance resolution digitally

B. Increase brightness of the image

29
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Which fluoroscopy component captures X-rays and displays the image in real time?

A. Collimator

B. Flat panel detector

C. Grid

D. Anode disc

B. Flat panel detector

30
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What is optical coupling in fluoroscopy?

A. The alignment of the collimator

B. Linking radiograph exposures

C. Adjusting beam intensity

D. Transferring light between optical media

D. Transferring light between optical media

31
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Which piece of fluoroscopy equipment is C-shaped to move around the patient?

A. C-Arm

B. Image receptor

C. Light field projector

D. Lead apron

A. C-Arm

32
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A technique chart should be:

A. Generic for all machines

B. Based on patient breed

C. Specific to each x-ray machine

D. Optional for small animals

C. Specific to each x-ray machine

33
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Sante's Rule is used to calculate:

A. mA

B. SID

C. mAs

D. kVp

D. kVp

34
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Which factor is NOT part of Sante's Rule if thickness is 10cm or less?

A. Twice tissue thickness

B. Grid factor

C. SID of 40 inches

D. mA setting

B. Grid factor

35
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If thickness increases by 1 cm, how should kVp be adjusted?

A. Decrease 10-15% by 2

B. Increase 10-15% by 2

C. Double it

D. No change

B. Increase 10-15% by 2

36
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Which mA setting is preferred for radiography per ALARA?

A. Low mA, long time

B. High mA, short time

C. Low mA, short time

D. Medium mA, moderate time

B. High mA, short time

37
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How is mAs calculated?

A. mA / time

B. kVp × distance

C. mA × time

D. mA + time

C. mA × time

38
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Why is patient measurement important?

A. To ensure consistent diagnostic images

B. For safety only

C. To calibrate the generator

D. To measure SID

A. To ensure consistent diagnostic images

39
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Where is measurement taken for most anatomical regions?

A. Thinnest part

B. Thickest part

C. Midline

D. Lateral edge

B. Thickest part

40
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Inaccurate patient measurement can cause:

A. Improved image quality

B. None of the above

C. Reduced collimation

D. Over- or underexposure

D. Over- or underexposure

41
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Motion artifacts appear as:

A. Dark streaks

B. White spots

C. Fuzzy or indistinct structure

D. Sharp lines

C. Fuzzy or indistinct structure

42
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Foreign artifacts may include:

A. Bones

B. Gas pockets

C. Collars, leashes, gloves

D. Contrast material

C. Collars, leashes, gloves

43
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Equipment artifacts can be caused by:

A. Anesthetic gas

B. Image receptor or processing error

C. Patient motion

D. Positioning aids

B. Image receptor or processing error

44
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Which test verifies the correct exposure time of an x-ray generator?

A. Timer accuracy

B. mA linearity

C. Exposure reproducibility

D. HVL

A. Timer accuracy

45
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Which test ensures doubling mAs doubles output?

A. Timer accuracy

B. mA linearity

C. HVL

D. Collimator alignment

B. mA linearity

46
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The test that checks consistency of output for same exposure settings is:

A. Exposure reproducibility

B. Timer accuracy

C. kVp accuracy

D. Grid uniformity

A. Exposure reproducibility

47
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The half-value layer test assesses:

A. Beam quality and filtration

B. Beam intensity

C. Focal spot size

D. Grid ratio

A. Beam quality and filtration

48
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Which test ensures light field and x-ray field alignment?

A. Timer accuracy test

B. Collimator alignment test

C. Exposure reproducibility test

D. Linearity test

B. Collimator alignment test

49
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To perform a collimator alignment test, set SID to:

A. 36 inches

B. 40 inches

C. 48 inches

D. 50 inches

B. 40 inches

50
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During the collimator test, the exposure setting should be:

A. High kV and long time

B. Low kV and short exposure

C. Medium kV only

D. Automatic mode

B. Low kV and short exposure

51
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Why is proper calibration testing important?

A. Improves patient safety and image quality

B. Reduces patient size

C. Increases speed

D. Lowers mA needs

A. Improves patient safety and image quality

52
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Mechanical and electrical inspections are performed to:

A. Test for exposure timing

B. Ensure safety and functionality

C. Measure kVp accuracy

D. Reduce contrast

B. Ensure safety and functionality

53
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Which component ensures radiation output matches settings?

A. Generator

B. Collimator

C. Exposure timer

D. Control panel

A. Generator

54
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A technique chart should include which body regions?

A. Only thorax and skull

B. Skull, abdomen, pelvis, extremities, thorax

C. Abdomen and thorax only

D. Entire body

B. Skull, abdomen, pelvis, extremities, thorax

55
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Machine calibration should occur every:

A. 2 years

B. 3 years

C. 5 years

D. 10 years

C. 5 years