EMT Class 2024 TEST!!

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180 Terms

1
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As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with chest pain based on:

Medical Director approval

2
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Obtaining continuing medical education is the responsibility of the:

Individual EMT

3
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The continuous quality improvement (CQI) process is designed to?

Identify areas of improvement and provide remedial training if needed.

4
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The standards for pre-hospital emergency care and the individuals who provide it are typically regulated by the.

State office of EMS

5
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Which of the following skills or interventions is included at every level of pre- hospital emergency training?

Automated external defibrillation

6
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Continuing education in EMS serves to

maintain, update, and expand your knowledge and skills.

7
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The EMT certification exam is designed to:

ensure that EMTs are competent and have the same level of knowledge and skills.

8
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According to the National EMS Scope of Practice Model, an EMT should be able to:

assist a patient with certain prescribed medication

9
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EMS as we know it today had its origins in 1966 with the publication of:

Accidental Death and Disability The Neglected Disease of Modern Society

10
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Which type of medical direction do standing orders and protocols describe

Off- Line

11
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Which of the following is an example of a primary prevention strategy

Community awareness programs that emphasize the dangers of drinking and driving

12
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An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to:

Continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful

13
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Which of the following statement regarding the NREMT is correct?

The NREMT provides a national standards for EMS testing

14
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Which of the following criteria is required to become licensed and employed as an EMT?

Proof of immunization against certain communicable diseases

15
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If a defibrillator manufacturer claims that its device terminates ventricular fibrillation on the first shock 95% of the time, you should:

recognize that this does not mean the device will save more lives

16
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The person who is responsible for authorizing EMTs to perform emergency medical care in the field is the:

Medical director

17
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An EMS provider who has extensive training in various aspects of advanced life support (ALS) is called a(n):

Paramedic

18
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Which of the following skills would a layperson most likely be trained to perform before the arrival of EMS?

Bleeding control using a tourniquet

19
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Cardiac monitoring, pharmacological interventions, and other advanced treatment skills are functions of the:

Paramedic

20
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Which of the following descriptions most accurately portrays emergency medical services (EMS)

A team of health care professionals who are responsible for providing emergency care and transportation to the sick and injured.

21
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A positive TB skin test indicates that:

you have been exposed to TB

22
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Prescription glasses do not provide adequate eye protection because they:

Offer little or no side protection

23
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Which of the following infectious disease confers no protection from reinfection after expose?

Syphilis

24
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When decontaminating the back of your ambulance after a call, you should:

Allow surface to air dry unless otherwise indicated in the product directions

25
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The capacity of an individual to cope with and recover from stress is called:

Resilience

26
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Vaccination against the hepatitis A virus is unnecessary if you:

Have been infected with hepatitis A in the past

27
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A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than blank hours following the incident.

72

28
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The MOST important consideration at the scene of a hazardous materials incident is

Ensuring your personal safety

29
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Hazard that are associated with a structural fire include all of the following EXCEPT

Carbon dioxide deficiency

30
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Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser:

Requests sexual favors in exchange for something else.

31
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What should you do before attempting to access a patient trapped in a vehicle?

Ensure the vehicle is stable

32
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The spread of HIV and hepatitis in the healthcare setting can usually be traced to

careless handling of sharps

33
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The simplest yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to

wash your hands in between patients contacts

34
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Vectorborne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via:

animals or insects

35
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Which of the following is the MOST significant factor in determining whether a person will become ill from certain germs?

Immunity

36
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The MOST effective way to preserve your own body heat when functioning in cold, wet weather is to

wear at least three layers of clothing

37
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General adaptation syndrome is characterized by which of the following phases?

Alarm response, reaction and resistance, and recovery

38
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A 15- year- old boy was killed when he was struck by a car while riding his bicycle. He has numerous disfiguring injuries and has been placed in the back of the ambulance the shield him from curious bystanders. When the child's parents arrive at the scene, they demand to see him. You should

advise them that their son had severely disfiguring injuries and ask them if there is anyone they would like you to contact first.

39
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You have been working at the scene of a major building collapse for 8 hours. Many injured people are still being removed, and everyone is becoming frustrated and losing focus. This situation is most effectively managed by:

Requesting a CISM team to provide on-scene peer support

40
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The MOST serious consequence of drug or alcohol abuse among EMS personnel is:

Substandard or inappropriate patient care

41
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Which of the following general statement regarding consent is correct?

A patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse treatment

42
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An EMT would most likely be held liable for abandonment if he or she:

did not make provisions for continued care of an injured patient

43
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For a do not resuscitate (DNR) order to be valid, it must:

Clearly state the patients medical problem

44
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Acting in such a way as to make another person fear immediate bodily harm is called:

Assault

45
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You arrive at the scene of an apparent death. When evaluating the patient, which of the following is a definitive sign of death?

Dependent lividity

46
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The EMT"s scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the

medical director

47
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Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include:

Not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons

48
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Which of the following statements regarding Good Samaritan laws is correct?

Such laws will not protect the EMT in cases of gross negligence

49
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Two EMT's witnessed a call in which a coworker gave adequate medical care but ignored the patient's emotional needs. The coworker was deliberately rude solely because the patient was thought to be infected with the human immunodeficiency virus(HIV). The EMT's ignored the coworker's treatment of this patient and took no steps to prevent this behavior from happening again. This lack of action on the part of the two EMT's is considered

legal but unethical

50
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Which aspect of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) MOST affects EMS personnel?

Protecting patient privacy

51
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Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts abandonment?

A paramedic transfers patient care to an EMT

52
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Which of the following situations requires you to notify appropriate authorities?

Attempted suicide

53
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Putrefaction is defined as

decomposition of the body's tissues.

54
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The manner in which the EMT must act or behave when caring for a patient is called the:

Standard of care

55
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Which of the following MOST accurately defines negligence?

Deviation from the standard of care that might result in further injury

56
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In the eyes of the courts, and incomplete or untidy patient care form indicates:

Inadequate patient care was administered

57
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Which of the following patients has decision making capacity and can legally refuse emergency medical treatment?

A conscious and alert woman with severe abdominal pain

58
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As an EMT, the performance of your duties will be compared to that of:

Another EMT

59
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In many states, a minor may be treated as an adult for the purpose of consenting to or refusing medical treatment if the minor:

Is self-supporting and lives by him or herself

60
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Which of the following types of consent allows treatment of a patient who is unconscious or mentally incapacitated?

Implied

61
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Which of the following incidents does NOT require a report to be filed with local authorities?

Cardiac arrest

62
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Two-way communication that requires the EMT to "push to talk" and "release to listen" describes what mode of communication?

Simplex

63
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All information recorded on the PCR must be:

considered confidential

64
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In which of the following manners should you act and speak with a patient?

Calm and confident

65
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Which type of communications equipment functions as a radio receiver and searches across several frequencies?

Scanner

66
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You are caring for a 52- 52-year-old man who complains of chest discomfort. The patient is a retired paramedic and is very anxious because he thinks he is having a heart attack. Which of the following statements would be appropriate?

"It is possible that you are experiencing a heart attack. I am going to give you four baby aspirin to chew and swallow".

67
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A receives messages and signals on one frequency and then automatically retransmits them on a second frequency.

Repeater

68
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Any radio hardware containing a transmitter and receiver that is located in a fixed location is called a:

Base station

69
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When relaying patient information via radio, communications should be:

Brief and easily understood

70
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A patient's refusal of EMS treatment and/or transport must be:

an informed refusal

71
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When communicating with a visually impaired patient, you should:

determine the degree of the patient's impairment

72
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Communicating with hearing- impaired patients can be facilitated by doing all of the following, EXCEPT

elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation

73
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When providing a patient report via radio, you should protect the patient's privacy by:

not disclosing his or her name

74
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During the alert and dispatch phase of EMS communications, the dispatcher's responsibilities include all of the following, EXCEPT:

discouraging the caller from providing care until the EMS unit arrives

75
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Ethnocentrism is defined as:

considering your own cultural values as more important when interacting with people of a different culture.

76
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The patient care report (PCR) ensures:

continuity of care

77
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You could be sued for ___________ if your radio report to the hospital describes the patient in a manner that injures his or her reputation.

slander

78
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Which of the following statement regarding communication with a child is correct?

Standing over a child often increases his or her level of anxiety.

79
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As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should:

respond only after giving a verbal patient report to a nurse or physician

80
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Calming and reassuring an anxious patient can be facilitated by:

maintaining eye contact with the patient whenever possible.

81
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A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being:

bilateral

82
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The topographic term used to describe the parts of the body that are nearer to the feet is

inferior

83
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A patient with a pneumothorax has unilateral chest expansion. This means that:

only one side of his chest rises when he inhales.

84
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enlargement of the liver

hepatomegaly

85
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In relation to the wrist, the elbow is:

proximal

86
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The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the mid-line of the body is

medial

87
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Movement or motion away from the body's midline is called:

abduction

88
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After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called:

hemostasis

89
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An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position?

Prone

90
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A pregnant patient is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. This means that:

she has excessive vomiting

91
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The term "pericardiocentesis" means:

the removal of fluid from around the heart.

92
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A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a serve deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the forearm

distal

93
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A young male jumped from a tree and landed feet first. which aspect of his body has sustained the initial injury?

Plantar

94
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A patient in a semi- reclined position with the head elevated to facilitate breathing is in the position

Fowler

95
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Which of the following anatomic terms is synonymous with the word "dorsal"

Posterior

96
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A patient has bilateral femur fractures. This means that:

both femurs are fractured

97
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In relation to the chest, the back is

posterior

98
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A fracture of the humerus just above the elbow would be described as a

distal humerus fracture

99
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A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she

is excessively thirsy

100
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The term "supraventricular tachycardia" means:

a rapid heart rate that originates from above the ventricles.