Commercial Written prep

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Questions from Shepard air

Last updated 8:41 PM on 6/11/26
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89 Terms

1
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You have been hired as a commercial pilot at a new employer who utilizes aircraft equipped with FADECs. It is important to know that a FADEC

is a system that utilizes a computer to control components of the aircraft that manipulate the engine and propeller.

Full Authority Digital Engine Control

2
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A benefit of FADEC in a reciprocating aircraft engine is it

eliminates the need for the pilot to control the fuel-air mixture

3
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If an airplane is flown at (L/D)max, its total drag will be

Lower than total drag at CLmax

4
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Why is stalling airspeed higher when the CG is moved forward?

increased wing loading

5
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When an aircraft leaves ground effect, induced drag will

increase

6
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Longitudinal stability is measured about which axis?

Lateral

7
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If an airplane is in a 60° constant bank turn, you could expect the airplane to stall at

the same angle of attack as in level flight and a higher airspeed due to an increase in load factor

8
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Your planned departure will be from an airport with a higher density altitude than what you have previously experienced. You should know that under this condiotn, indicated airspeed at lift-off will

remain the same

9
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Structural damage or failure is likely to occur at airspeeds above

Vne

10
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Which center of gravity position could create undesirable flight characteristics including decreased static longitudinal stability, decreased dynamic longitudinal stability, control difficulties, violent stall characteristics and light control pressures?

C.G. aft of the C.G. envelope

11
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While flying straight and level in a trimmed condition, the pilot pulls back on the yoke momentarily. If the airplane remains in the new attitude when pressure is release, the airplane displays

neutral static stability

12
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One of the main function of flaps during the approach and landing is to

allow a stepper-than-normal approach without increasing airspeed.

13
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What change in airplane longitudinal control is required to maintain altitude while airspeed is being increased?

The angle of attack is decreased to compensate or the increase in lift

14
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You are going to an airport that has a higher density altitude than your departure airport. When you get to the airport, you can expect your aircraft performance to

decrease

15
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When flying a multiengine airplane, stalls should be conducted no lower than

3,000 feet AGL

16
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What wing planform is preferred in the design of low cost low speed airplanes, has a tendency to stall first at the wing root, provides adequate stall warning and aileron effectiveness, and is usually quite stable?

Rectangular

17
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Compared to best glide speed, minimum sink speed occurs at an airspeed that is

lower

18
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What is minimum sink speed?

Used to maximize the time that the airplane remains in flight. It results in the airplane losing altitude at the lowest rate. Minimum sink speed occurs at a lower airspeed than the best glide speed. Flight at the minimum sink airspeed results in less distance traveled. Minimum sink speed is not an often published airspeed but generally is a few knots less than best glide speed.

An example when to use it is when ditching an airplane at sea.

19
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What condition would result in a spin if a multiengine airplane was stalled?

Asymmetrical power

20
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Why does true airspeed differ form indicated airspeed as altitude increases?

It is due to lower air density that impacts the pitot tube and static port.

21
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What are Vx and Vy?

Vx produces the most altitude gain over a given distance; Vy produces the most altitude gain per unit of time

22
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Aircraft energy managment is a function of gaining energy through thrust and losing energy through

aerodynamic drag

23
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What is the purpose of trailing edge flaps?

They increase the lifting force of the wing

24
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Why does an airplane stall at a higher speed with a forward CG?

The critical AOA is reached at a higher airspeed due to increased wing loading.

25
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What are the dominating factors of the atmosphere that have a major effect on perfomance?

Pressure and temperature

26
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For a given angle of bank, in any airplane, the load factor imposed in a coordinated constant-altitude turn

is constant and the stall speed increases

27
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What perfomance is a characteristic of flight at maximum lift/drag ration in a propeller-driven airplane? Maximum

range and maximum distance glide

28
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Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable?

VS

29
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An aircraft which is unstable about its longitudinal axis has a tendency to

Bank left or right without constant correction

30
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Pitch setting means

the propeller blade setting as determined by the blade angle measured as specified by the propeller instruction manual

31
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The purpose of wing spoilers is to decrease

the lift of the wing

32
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If you increase airspeed in a turn, what must you do to maintain altitude?

Increase angle of bank

33
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Accelerating past critical Mach may result in the onset of compressibility effects such as

Stability difficulties

34
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When the angle of attack of a symmetrical airfoil is increased, the center of pressure will

have very limited movement

35
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True airspeed is best described as calibrated airspeed corrected for

altitude and non-standard temperature

36
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Why do some aircraft have a zero fuel weight limitation?

To ensure that wings are not over-stressed in flight

37
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What is the purpose of trailing edge flaps?

They increase the lifting force of the wing.

38
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When an airplane is in a spin, it rotates around a vertical axis

and the rising wing is less stalled than the descending wing

39
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Which is true regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady-state descent? The sum of all

forward forces is equal to the sum of all rearward forces

40
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14 CFR part 1 Defines VF as

design flap speed

41
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Which statement is true relative to changing angle of attack?

an increase in angle of attack will increase rag

42
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For airplanes with constant-speed propellers, the first indication of carburetor icing is usually

a decrease in manifold pressure

43
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If an airplane is flown at (L/D) Max, its total drag will be

at minimum

44
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If an airplane flies form an area of cold, dry air to an area of warm, moist air while maintaining the same airspeed, what affects will this have on lift and drag?

Lift and drag will decrease

45
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When an aircraft leaves ground effect, induced drag will

Increase

46
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As you slow a multiengine airplane, in which condition would the airplane reach a stall condition the soonest?

Airplane CG has shifted forward during flight

47
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What are the four fundamentals involved in maneuvering the aircraft?

Straight-and-level flight, turns, climbs, and descents

48
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Which of the following are considered aircraft class ratings?

Single-engine land, multiengine land, single-engine sea, and multiengine sea

49
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When may a pilot log time as a SIC?

When occupying a crewmember station in an aircraft that requires more than one pilot and the SIC is fully qualified.

50
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Prior to carrying passengers at night, the pilot in command must have accomplished the required takeoffs and landings in

the same category, class, and type of aircraft (if a type rating is required)

51
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Which is required equipment for powered aircraft during VFR night flights?

An electric landing light, if the flight is for hire

52
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You are a required flight crewmember. As a crewmember, you are required to have your shoulder harness fastended

during takeoff and landing.

53
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Unless an absence form a crewmember station is required to perform duties in connection with the operation of the aircraft, all required crewmembers must keep their saftey belt fastened any time

they are at their crewmember station.

54
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When is the pilot in command required to hold a category and class rating appropriate to the aircraft being flown?

On flights when carrying another person

55
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Regulations which refer to “operate” relate to that person who

causes the aircraft to be used or authorizes its use.

56
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Regulations which refer to the “operational control” of a flight are in relation to

exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.

57
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What are the basic weather minimums for departing out of each airspace? (Similar to Airspace Weather minimum triangle)

Class A: Flight visibility - N/A Distance from Clouds - N/A

Class B:

  • Flight visibility - 3 Statute Miles

  • Distance from Clouds - Clear of Clouds

Class C:

  • Flight visibility - 3 Statute Miles

  • Distance from Clouds - 1,000 feet above, 500 Feet Bellow, and 2,000 feet horizontally

Class D:

  • Flight visibility - 3 Statute Miles

  • Distance from Clouds - 1,000 feet above, 500 Feet Bellow, and 2,000 feet horizontally

Class E:

  • Flight visibility - 3 Statute Miles

  • Distance from Clouds - 1,000 feet above, 500 Feet Bellow, and 2,000 feet horizontally

Class E above 10,000MSL:

  • Flight Visibility - 5 Statue Miles

  • Distance form Clouds - 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 Statue Mile horizontally

Class G 1,200 feet or less above the surface (regardless of MSL altituded) except provided 91.155(b):

  • Day:

    • Flight visibility - 1 Statute Miles

    • Distance from Clouds - Clear of clouds

  • Night:

    • Flight visibility - 3 Statute Miles

    • Distance from clouds - 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally

58
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What are the requirements for operating under Special VFR?

ATC Clearance

Clear of Clouds

Visibility at least 1 Statute Mile

between sunrise and sunset

59
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You are PIC of a fliht that had to deviate from a rule. According to 14 CFR part 91, you must

send a written report if requested by the Administrator.

60
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Under 14 CFR Part 91, can a pilot who holds a commercial pilot certificate with airplane multiengine land category and class serve as second-in-command of a multiengine turbojet airplane in a domestic operations?

No, a type rating for the specific airplane is required

61
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With regard to the technique required for a crosswind correction on take off, a pilot should use

rudder as required to maintain directional control, aileron pressure into the wind, and higher than normal lift-off airspeed in both conventional- and nosewheel-type airplanes

62
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Risk management, as part of Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?

Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment

63
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What is the DECIDE Model?

  1. Detect: The decision maker detects the fact that change has occurred.

  2. Estimate: The decision maker estimates the need to counter or react to the change.

  3. Choose: the decision maker chooses a desirable outcome (in terms of success) for the flight.

  4. Identify: The decision maker identifies actions which could successfully control the change.

  5. Do: The decision maker takes the necessary action

  6. Evaluate: The decision maker evaluates the effect(s) of his action countering the change

64
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Risk Managment, as part of the Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with teach flight?

Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgment.

65
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The term Airport means an area of land or water that is

used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft, and includes its buildings and facilities, if any.

66
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Rapid breathing associated with hyperventilation would most likely result in

carbon dioxide leaving the body.

67
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One leg of your trip will be within 4 NM and 2,5000 feet AGL of a Class D airport. What should your speed be?

200 Knots

68
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Your think you are experiencing hyperventilation. Some symptoms may include

muscle spasms and impaired vision.

69
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(Refer to figure 53.) You are planning a VFR flight westbound departing from Fresno Chandler Executive (FCH), and your flight is passing through Lemoore MOA C and A. What action should you take?

Exercise extreme caution.

70
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Why is a fatigued pilot a hazard?

A pilot or copilot may not realize they are too tired to fly until serious errors are made.

71
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When operating an airplane for the purpose of takeoff or landing within Class D airspace under special VFR, what minimum distance from clouds and what visibility are required?

Remain clear of clouds, and the ground visibility must be at least 1 SM.

72
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How long does it take for the body to rid itself of 1 oz of alcohol after consumption?

3 hours.

73
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Pilots should be cautious about flying too soon after drinking because considerable amounts of alcohol can remain in the body for over

16 hours.

74
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When performing a maximum perfomance climb, what airspeed should be maintained until clear of all obstacles?

Maximum angle of climb speed.

75
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Declaring an emergency results in additional

assistance and priority handling.

76
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What consideration should a pilot take regarding the consumption of alcohol before a flight?

Any level of alcohol in the blood affects your flying abilities.

77
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What is the minimum altitude and flight visibility required for acrobatic flight?

1,500 feet AGL and 3 Miles.

78
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When calculating a wind triangle for dead reckoning, what navigation components are determined?

Groundspeed, heading, time.

79
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The Decide Model is comprised for a 6-step process to provide a pilot a logical way of approaching Aeronautical Decision Making. These steps are:

Detect, estimate, choose, identify, do, and evaluate.

80
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The Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) process identifies the steps involved in good decision making. One of these steps includes a pilot

identifying personal attitudes hazardous to safe flight.

81
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When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, the ‘taxiway directional sign’ indicates the

designation and direction of the taxiway(s) leading out of an intersection.

82
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A placard inside your aircraft reads, “Use of the air conditioner may cause the compass to read incorrectly.” The magnetic compass is

showing the effects of magnetic deviation.

83
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An early part of Aeronautical Decision Making (ADM) Process involves

taking a self-assessment hazardous attitude inventory test.

84
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Which type or approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions?

A power-on approach and power-on landing.

85
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While conducting an operational check of the cabin pressurization system, the pilot discovers that the rate control feature is inoperative. He knows that he can manually control the cabin pressure, so he elects to disregard the discrepancy and departs on his trip. He will handle the system himself. Which of the following alternatives best illustrates the INVULNERABILITY reaction?

What is the worst that could happen.

86
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One preflight risk mitigation strategy for environmental hazards is

avoidance.

87
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(Refer to figure 54, point 6.) The symbol ‘T/SFC’ located in the Class C airspace at Metropolitan Oakland (OAK) indicates that

the upper limit of the Class C airspace is changing within this sector.

88
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On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or continue the approach unless the

aircraft is continuously in a position form which a stabilized descent to the intended runway can be made.

89
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If ATC tells you to track outbound on the 180 radial, you should set your OBS to

180° and correct toward the CDI.