Human Diseases SBA Question Bank
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100 Terms
Which of the following signs may be a manifestation of primary biliary
cirrhosis?
Gynaecomastia
3 multiple choice options
A patient with poorly controlled epilepsy has just started a new mediation,
they are unsure of the name. They have an appointment next week to have
their full blood count checked. What medication are the most likely taking?
Carbamazepine
3 multiple choice options
A 78-year-old patient has poor eyesight and is waiting for surgery to improve
this. What is the most likely cause?
Cataract
3 multiple choice options
Which white patch on the oral mucosa can often be managed effectively
with topical beclometasone?
Lichen Planus
3 multiple choice options
A patient with multiple myeloma takes intravenous zoledronic acid. Which
of the following medications would increase their risk of osteonecrosis of
the jaw?
Prednisolone
3 multiple choice options
An epileptic patient has extensive gingival overgrowth. Which medication is
the most likely to cause this in this patient?
Phenytoin
3 multiple choice options
An 83-year-old edentulous patient with osteoporosis attends and Emergency
Department (ED) with a fractured mandible. The radiograph shows extensive
alveolar resorption with a displaced fracture extending through the left
body of the mandible. What is the most likely classification of this fracture?
Pathological
3 multiple choice options
In a patient with bone or joint problems, what is the most likely diagnosis in
a patient with Bouchard's nodes?
Osteoarthritis
3 multiple choice options
A patient with poorly controlled type 1 diabetes is what American Society of
Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification?
III
3 multiple choice options
Which part of the ear is affected in a patient who suffers from vertigo?
Labyrinth
3 multiple choice options
An elderly patient slips outside your dental practice. They hit their head but
did not lose consciousness. A week later she reattends and seems confused.
What type of brain injury is she most likely to have sustained?
Subdural Haematoma
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following drugs is a histamine H2-receptor antagonist?
Ranitidine
3 multiple choice options
A patient who reports hallucinations and difficulty sleeping, which has
improved with haloperidol, is most likely to suffer from which condition?
Paranoia
3 multiple choice options
A patient attends with a head injury. They are complaining of a headache
are irritable and cannot remember the incident. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
Concussion
3 multiple choice options
A 14-year-old has inherited a genetic disorder from their father where they
have multiple supernumery teeth. Which conditions is this most likely to be?
Cleidocranial Dysotosis
3 multiple choice options
Which neurotransmitter is most commonly targeted by medications used to
control Parkinson's disease?
Dopamine
3 multiple choice options
A 5-year-old patient attends an Emergency Department (ED) with a
fractured distal radius. The radiograph shows an incomplete fracture of the
bone with no displacement. What classification of fracture is this?
Green Stick
3 multiple choice options
A patient with epilepsy has been having a seizure in the dental chair for 5
minutes. How would you manage this patient?
5mg Buccal Midazolam
3 multiple choice options
Following a blow to the face, a patient has a derange occlusion, a tear in
the gingival mucosa and a step can be felt on the lower border of the
mandible. What type of fracture is this?
Open, Displaced
3 multiple choice options
What is the most likely type of shock to occur following a severe myocardial infarction?
Cardiogenic
3 multiple choice options
A patient has a 3-month history of pain following extraction of lower left
third molar (LL8). They had radiotherapy 7 years ago to manageoropharyngeal carcinoma. On examination there is gingival erythema and exposed bone in the extraction socket. Which pathological process is most likely to have led to this patient's current position?
Endarteritis Obliterans
3 multiple choice options
A patient with Barrett's oesophagus with oesophageal webbing is likely
demonstrating what type of altered cell differentiation?
Metaplastic
3 multiple choice options
Which is the most appropriate blood test that may be used to investigate a
79-year-old female patient, complaining of headaches, tenderness on
palpation of her right temple and decreased vision in her right eye?
C-reactive protein (CRP) levels
3 multiple choice options
The following drugs are used in the treatment of rheumatic disorders. From
the list below, which drug often needs to be avoided in patients with
asthma?
Ibuprofen
3 multiple choice options
Calcium carbonate can be prescribed as part of the management of gastric
ulceration. What is its principal mechanism of action?
Neutralise Gastric acid secretion
3 multiple choice options
23-year-old patient presents complaining of facial pain. On examination
they have pain when palpating the masseters bilaterally, there are no
palpable or audible joint noises. What is the most likely temporomandibular
disorder diagnosis?
myofacial pain
3 multiple choice options
A 56-year-old patient complains of a localised constant dull ache in the
upper right first molar (UR6) region. This tooth was extracted 6 months ago.There are no precipitating or relieving factors. Clinical and radiographic
examination exclude pathology. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Persistent dento-alveolar pain
3 multiple choice options
A patient attends your practice with a scabbed and ulcerated lesion on the
lateral aspect of their nose. It is quickly increasing in size and on
examination there are palpable ipsilateral cervical lymph nodes. What
would be the most appropriate management?
Refer to Oral maxillo facial surgery via 2-week wait pathway
3 multiple choice options
Two minutes after chlorhexidine mouthwash rinse, your patient starts to
complain of difficulty breathing and develops a wheeze. On examination you
note a rash developing at the upper part of their chest and their lips
starting to swell. What is the most appropriate medication to administer?
Adrenaline
3 multiple choice options
The part of the ear that is responsible for equalizing atmospheric pressure is
most likely to be the...
Eustachian tubes
3 multiple choice options
When assessing a trauma patient, what would be the most appropriate
technique to open their airway?
Jaw thrust
3 multiple choice options
Damage to cranial nerve V can lead to which of the following?
Anaesthesia
3 multiple choice options
Damage to cranial nerve III can lead to which of the following?
Ptosis
3 multiple choice options
A patient who had gallstones is most likely to have had which type of
surgery?
Cholecystectomy
3 multiple choice options
A 28-year-old patient reports a history of oral ulcers. On further questioning
they divulge that they have also been to their GP for genital ulceration and
their optician as they have had sore eyes. What diagnosis might you be
suspicious of?
Bechet's disease
3 multiple choice options
A patient presents with an indurated, rolled-edged ulcer to the tongue that
has been present for 1 month. What is the most appropriate initial
investigation?
incisional biopsy
3 multiple choice options
Your patient has lost consciousness in the dental chair and cannot maintain
their own airway. What airway adjunct would be most appropriate to use
with this?
Guedel airway
3 multiple choice options
Damage to the V cranial nerve could be assessed with which equipment?
Von frey hairs
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following cancers is often associated with human papilloma virus infection?
oropharyngeal cancer
3 multiple choice options
patient with a longstanding history of severe Crohn's disease is most likely
to have had which of the following surgery for symptom control?
Bowel resection
3 multiple choice options
Orthopneoa is a possible symptom of?
Left sided heart failure
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following are not likely causes of confusion in patients?
Prescription of a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug
3 multiple choice options
Koilonychia (spoon shaped fingernails) is a sign of?
Chronic iron deficiency anaemia
3 multiple choice options
A facially viable sign of hypercholesterolaemia is?
Xanthelasma
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following signs is not a potential feature of rheumatoid arthritis?
Dupuytren's contracture
3 multiple choice options
The stated alcohol consumption limit for females per week is?
14 units
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following is not a recognised cause of finger clubbing?
Myocardial infarction
3 multiple choice options
The artery used to take the pulse at the wrist in a patient is the?
Radial artery
3 multiple choice options
Tachycardia is defined as?
Pulse rate >100 beats per minute
3 multiple choice options
Bradycardia is defined as?
A pulse rate less than 60 beats per minute
3 multiple choice options
At post-mortem examination a patient who died of myocardial infarction would show evidence of?
Coagulative necrosis
3 multiple choice options
The skin has the potential to regenerate because?
The majority of cells are liable
3 multiple choice options
At post-mortem examination a patient who died of cerebral infarction would show evidence of?
colliquative necrosis
3 multiple choice options
Granulation tissue contains?
Fibrovascular tissue
3 multiple choice options
Granulomas contain?
Macrophages
3 multiple choice options
H1 receptors antagonists are prescribed to patients with?
Hay Fever
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following viruses is the causative agent in cases of herpangina?
Enterovirus
3 multiple choice options
Which diagnostic test is indicated if laboratory confirmation of herpes labialis is required?
Lesion swab for HSV PCR
What is the risk of HBV transmission through a needlestick injury?
30%
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following is the commonest route of HCV transmission in the UK?
Intravenous drug use
3 multiple choice options
What is the mechanism of action of acyclovir?
Inhibition of viral polymerase enzyme
3 multiple choice options
The most common AIDS opportunistic infection in the UK is?
Pneumocystis Jiroveci (Pneumonia)
3 multiple choice options
The most common form of oral candidiasis in HIV-infected patients is?
Pseudomembranous Candidasis
3 multiple choice options
The following is true regrind oral hairy leukoplakia?
Associated with Epstein - Barr infection
3 multiple choice options
The Following are indicator diseases for HIV?
Oral Candidiasis
3 multiple choice options
The following Is true of HIV?
Late diagnosis is associated with high morbidity and mortality
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following is not a part of the innate immune system?
CD8+ T-cells
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following is a true statement about the actions of the complement system?
Attracts phagocytic cells to the site of infection
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following is a possible cause of primary infection?
Chronic mucocutaneous Candidiasis
3 multiple choice options
Which of these is not a method of testing for allergic disease?
IgG4
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following statements is true when using skin prick testing diagnosis of type 1 allergies?
Better sensitivity compared with specific IgE testing
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following is not a risk factor for the development of latex allergy?
Pencillin Allergy
3 multiple choice options
In anaphylaxis, the correct of adrenaline to be administered intramuscularly is?
0.5ml 1:1000
3 multiple choice options
What is the mechanism of action of methotrexate?
Competitive inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase
3 multiple choice options
Behcets syndrome is not associated with?
Vitamin B12 deficiency
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following is defined as an organ-specific autoimmune disease?
Autoimmune thyroid disease
3 multiple choice options
Vascular Claudication:
is usually managed non-surgically
3 multiple choice options
Aortic Aneurysm:
Arise most commonly in the infrarenal abdominal aorta
3 multiple choice options
Carotid Artery Stenosis due to atheroma:
Can be managed with surgical endarterectomy
3 multiple choice options
The major risk factors for peripheral occlusive arterial disease include:
Hypertension
Deep vein thrombosis:
Is more common In patients undergoing lower limb surgery
3 multiple choice options
A DVT in the popliteal vein in the leg is most likely to embolise to:
The lungs
3 multiple choice options
The Term that describes leaking of blood from the right ventricle to the right atrium is?
Tricuspid regurgitation
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following is not a risk factor for atherosclerosis arterial disease?
Female gender
3 multiple choice options
The most common material/substance causing embolism is?
Thrombus
3 multiple choice options
Virchow's triad refers to the components predisposing to the pathological process of?
Thrombosis
3 multiple choice options
If a patient with asthma becomes wheezy during an oral surgery procedure, the correct inhaler treatment would be?
Salbutamol
3 multiple choice options
The oxygen content of a room air is?
21%
3 multiple choice options
The key clinical features of hypoxia is?
Cyanosis
3 multiple choice options
The most common type of lung cancer is?
Squamous cell carcinoma
3 multiple choice options
The number of deaths in the UK each Year from lung cancer is?
35000
3 multiple choice options
OSAS is usually treated by?
CPAP
3 multiple choice options
The major cause of chronic lung infection in cystic fibrosis is?
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3 multiple choice options
A Typical adverse effect of an anticholinergic inhaler such as tiotropium?
Dryness of the mouth
3 multiple choice options
community acquired pneumonia is most commonly caused by?
Streptococcus Pneumonia
3 multiple choice options
A typical case of diffuse lung fibrosis is?
Asbestos
BMI grade 1 lies in the range of?
25-30
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following does not promote gastrooesophageal reflux?
Milk
3 multiple choice options
Crohn's disease?
Is characterised by transmural inflammation
3 multiple choice options
Which of the following is a proton pump inhibitor?
Omeprazole
3 multiple choice options