Nursing Exam 4

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246 Terms

1
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What is the definition of Assessment?

A. Cause or origin of a disease

B. Abnormal tissue or organ damage

C. Systematic collection and evaluation of patient data

D. Open sores on mucosal lining

C. Systemic collection and evaluation of patient data

2
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Etiology refers to:

A. The sequence of disease progression

B. The cause or origin of a disease

C. Severe weight loss due to chronic illness

D. A productive cough

B. The cause or origin of a disease

3
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Pathogenesis is best described as:

A. The cause of a disease

B. The observable clinical signs

C. The sequence of events that lead to disease development

D. A chronic inflammatory condition

C. The sequence of events that lead to disease development

4
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A lesion is defined as:

A. An abnormal dilation of the esophagus

B. Abnormal tissue or organ damage

C. Inflammation of the stomach

D. A high-pitched inspiratory wheeze

B. Abnormal tissue or organ damage

5
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Cachexia refers to:

A. Loss of appetite

B. Severe weight loss and muscle wasting

C. Inability to breathe unless upright

D. Excessive urination

B. Severe weight loss and muscle wasting

6
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Gastritis is:

C. Inflammation of the stomach lining

7
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Hematochezia is:

A. Fresh blood in feces

8
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Melena indicates:

B. Dark, digested blood in feces

9
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Regurgitation differs from vomiting because it is:

A. Caused by parasites

B. Passive expulsion without retching

C. Associated with intestinal bleeding

D. Always linked to esophagitis

B. Passive expulsion without retching

10
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Tenesmus refers to:

A. Painful straining during defecation or urination

B. A productive cough

C. Involuntary diarrhea

D. Difficulty swallowing

A. Painful straining during defecation or urination

11
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Stertor is described as:

B. A loud snoring/snorting sound

12
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Stridor is:

C. High pitched inspiratory wheeze

13
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Dyspnea is:

A. Difficulty breathing with respiratory effort

14
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Hypoxemia refers to

B. Low oxygen in arterial blood

15
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Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized by:

B. Thickened heart walls

16
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Systemic hypertension means:

A. Elevated lung pressure

B. Elevated systemic blood pressure

C. Excessive heart contractions

D. Reduced cardiac perfusion

B. Elevated systemic blood pressure

17
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Polyuria means:

A. Excessive thirst

B. Excessive urination

C. Difficulty urinating

D. Blood in urine

B. Excessive urination

18
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Polydipsia refers to:

A. Excessive urination

B. Excessive drinking

C. Inability to swallow

D. Chronic dehydration

B. Excessive drinking

19
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Zoonosis is a disease that:

A. Affects only animals

B. Is spread by insects

C. Transmits between animals and humans

D. Only affects the GI system

C. Transmits between animals and humans

20
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Barrier nursing involves:

A. Isolating wildlife patients

B. Techniques to limit pathogen transmission

C. Administering IV fluids

D. Performing surgical sterilization

B. Techniques to limit pathogen transmission

21
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Radiography uses:

A. Sound waves

B. MRI technology

C. X-rays to visualize structures

D. Radiation therapy

C. X-rays to visualize structures

22
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Ultrasonography uses:

A. Radiation

B. Ultrasound waves to image internal organs

C. Electrical impulses

D. Magnetic fields

B. Ultrasound waves to image internal organs

23
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Which of the following is not one of the Five Freedoms?

A. Freedom from discomfort

B. Freedom from injury or disease

C. Freedom from aging

D. Freedom from fear and distress

C. Freedom from aging

24
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A veterinary nurse supports "freedom from hunger and thirst" by:

A. Reducing stress during handling

B. Providing access to clean water and proper nutrition

C. Using PPE

D. Facilitating natural behaviors

B. Providing access to clean water and proper nutrition

25
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What is the correct order of the four steps in the nursing process?

A. Diagnosis → Evaluation → Planning → Assessment

B. Assessment → Diagnosis → Planning → Implementation/Evaluation

C. Planning → Assessment → Treatment → Diagnosis

D. Implementation → Planning → Assessment → Diagnosis

B. Assessment → Diagnosis → Planning → Implementation/Evaluation

26
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Pathogenesis describes:

A. How a disease develops

B. The cause of the disease

C. The clinical symptoms

D. The structural changes seen in tissues

A. How a disease develops

27
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Clinical signs are:

A. Microscopic structural changes

B. Measurable or observable effects of disease

C. The cause of disease

D. A specific bacterial agent

B. Measurable or observable effects of disease

28
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Lower respiratory disease typically involves which signs?

B. Dyspnea coughing and hypoxia

29
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Common feline cardiovascular disease:

A. Dilated cardiomyopathy

B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

C. Congestive nephropathy

D. Tracheal collapse

B. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

30
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A common endocrine disease in cats is:

A. Hypothyroidism

B. Hyperthyroidism

C. Cushing's disease

D. Addison's disease

B. Hyperthyroidism

31
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Upper respiratory disease in dogs and cats typically presents with which signs?

B. Sneezing and nasal discharge

32
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Lower respiratory disease involves which structures?

C. Bronchi and lungs

33
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Which of the following is a hallmark sign of lower respiratory disease?

C. Coughing or dyspnea

34
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What does inflammation in the respiratory tract commonly lead to?

B. Swelling, exudate, and airway obstruction

35
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Cardiovascular disease pathogenesis often results in

C. Fluid buildup and decreased perfusion

36
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Dilated cardiomyopathy is characterized by:

B. Enlarged, weak heart muscle

37
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Which cardiovascular condition is most common in cats?

A. Dilated cardiomyopathy

B. Congestive heart failure

C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

D. Valvular stenosis

C. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

38
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Valvular disease involves:

B. Faulty valves causing regurgitation

39
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Congestive heart failure typically results in:

C. Fluid accumulation and coughing

40
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Which of the following is a common cause of digestive disease?

A. High blood pressure

B. Infections, toxins, or dietary indiscretion

C. Arthritis

D. Ear mites

B. Infections, toxins, or dietary indescretion

41
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Hepatobiliary disease often develops due to:

B. Bile flow disruption or tissue inflammation

42
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Pancreatitis falls under which disease category?

B. Digestive

43
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Which of the following is a hepatobiliary disease?

B. Cholangitis

44
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Hepatic lipidosis is best described as

B. Fat accumulation in the liver

45
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A common etiology for urinary disease is

B. Infection, stones, or congenital defects

46
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Urolithiasis refers to:

A. Liver inflammation

B. Stone formation in the urinary tract

C. Excessive drinking

D. High blood glucose

B. Stone formation in the urinary tract

47
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Which endocrine disease is most common in cats?

A. Hypothyroidism

B. Hyperthyroidism

C. Addison's disease

D. Diabetes insipidus

B. Hyperthyroidism

48
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Which endocrine disorder is common in dogs?

A. Hyperthyroidism

B. Hypothyroidism

C. Feline hyperesthesia

D. Addison's disease only

B. Hypothyroidism

49
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Cushing's disease involves:

A. Low cortisol

B. High cortisol

C. High insulin

D. Low T4

B. High cortisol

50
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Immune-mediated diseases occur when:

A. The immune system shuts down completely

B. The immune system attacks self-tissues

C. The body lacks white blood cells

D. The liver stops producing antibodies

B. The immune system attacks self-tissues

51
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Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia results from:

A. Viral destruction of red blood cells

B. Autoimmune destruction of red blood cells

C. Bone marrow cancer

D. Poor oxygen intake

B. Autoimmune destruction of red blood cells

52
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Infectious diseases in dogs and cats can be caused by:

A. Only bacteria

B. Bacterial, viral, fungal, or parasitic agents

C. Allergies

D. Vitamin deficiency

B. Bacterial, viral, fungal, or parasitic agents

53
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What is the correct pathogenesis of infectious disease?

A. Hormone imbalance → dehydration

B. Pathogen invasion → tissue damage → clinical signs

C. Dehydration → pathogen exposure → fever

D. Bone marrow suppression → infection

B. Pathogen invasion → tissue damage → clinical signs

54
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A key nursing protocol when treating infectious patients is:

A. Free roaming in the treatment area

B. Isolation or barrier nursing

C. Allowing them to share bowls with others

D. Restricting oxygen therapy

B. Isolation or barrier nursing

55
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Client education for infectious disease includes:

A. Avoiding vaccinations

B. Increasing social contact

C. Practicing hygiene and limiting contact with other animals

D. Feeding raw diets only

C. Practicing hygiene and limiting contact with other animals

56
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Kennel cough is most commonly caused by which pathogen?

A. Canine parvovirus

B. Bordetella bronchiseptica

C. Dirofilaria immitis

D. Feline herpesvirus

B. Bordetella bronchiseptica

57
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A classic clinical sign of kennel cough is:

B. Harsh, hacking cough with retching

58
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Which diagnostic method is MOST useful for confirming kennel cough?

B. Tracheal swab PCR

59
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The primary causative agent of canine influenza is:

FHV-1

60
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Dogs with influenza often show:

A. Seizures and ataxia

B. Cough, fever, nasal discharge

C. PU/PD

D. Hemorrhagic diarrhea

B. Cough, fever, nasal discharge

61
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The most accurate diagnostic for canine influenza is:

B. PCR on respiratory secretions

62
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Feline herpesvirus (FHV-1) typically causes:

B. Corneal ulcers

63
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Feline calicivirus classic sign is:

B. Oral ulcers

64
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A cat with sneezing, conjunctivitis, and nasal discharge most likely has:

A. FLUTD

B. Feline URI (upper respiratory infection)

C. Hyperthyroidism

D. Pancreatitis

B. Feline URI

65
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The most common diagnostic used in feline URI cases is:

A. PCR testing

66
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Which is a common cause of aspiration pneumonia?

A. Kidney failure

B. Regurgitation

C. Flea infestation

D. Hypothyroidism

B. Regurgitation

67
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A hallmark sign of bacterial pneumonia is:

A. Hypertension

B. Crackles on lung auscultation

C. Hematemesis

D. PU/PD

B. Crackles on lung auscultation

68
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Best diagnostic for pneumonia:

A. Thoracic radiographs

69
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Which pathogen causes fungal respiratory disease?

B. Blastomyces

70
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A dog with chronic cough, fever, weight loss, and systemic signs may have:

C. Fungal respiratory disease

71
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Best diagnostic for systemic fungal disease:

A. Fungal antigen test

72
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Canine heartworm infection is caused by:

A. Nematodes in intestines

B. Dirofilaria immitis larvae

C. Tapeworm

D. Protozoa

B. Dirofilaria immitis larvae

73
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Early pulmonary signs of heartworm include:

A. Exercise intolerance and cough

B. Blindness

C. PU/PD

D. Tremors

A. Exercise intolerance and cough

74
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The gold standard diagnostic for heartworm infection is:

A. PCR

B. Antigen test + microfilaria test

C. Radiograph of abdomen

D. Skin scrape

B. Antigen test + microfilaria test

75
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A dog with chronic unilateral bloody nasal discharge likely has:

B. Nasal neoplasia

76
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Facial deformity and sneezing with hemorrhagic discharge is suggestive of:

C. Nasal tumor

77
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Best diagnostic for nasal tumors

A. CT + biopsy

78
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Parvo commonly causes:

A. PU/PD

B. Severe vomiting and hemorrhagic diarrhea

C. Cough and nasal discharge

D. Head tilt

B. Severe vomiting and hemorrhagic diarrhea

79
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Classic CBC finding with parvo:

B. Leukopenia

80
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Best parvo diagnostic:

A. ELISA fecal antigen test

81
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Feline panleukopenia is caused by:

C. Feline parvovirus (FPV)

82
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Classic sign in FPV

B. Severe leukopenia

83
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Common cause of acute gastritis:

A. Epilepsy

B. Dietary indiscretion

C. Uroliths

D. Otitis externa

B. Dietary indiscretion

84
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Diagnostics for gastritis include all EXCEPT:

A. Ultrasound

B. Endoscopy

C. Fecal ELISA

D. Radiographs

C. Fecal ELISA

85
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Classic signs of HGE:

B. Sudden onset bloody diarrhea + high PCV

86
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The most definitive diagnostic for IBD:

B. GI biopsy

87
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A dog with chronic vomiting, weight loss, and appetite change might have:

A. IBD

B. Conjunctivitis

C. Heartworm

D. Pyometra

A. IBD

88
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Which sign strongly suggests a foreign body?

B. Persistent vomiting

89
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Best tool for diagnosing obstruction:

A. CT of head

B. Radiographs + ultrasound

C. Ear cytology

D. Skin punch biopsy

B. Radiographs + ultrasound

90
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The hallmark sign of GDV is:

A. Corneal ulcer

B. Acute abdominal distention

C. Chronic pruritus

D. PU/PD

B. Acute abdominal distention

91
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Most important GDV diagnostic:

A. Lateral abdominal radiograph

B. Fecal float

C. Ear cytology

D. UA

A. Lateral abdominal radiograph

92
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Ulcers are commonly caused by:

A. Hypothyroidism

B. NSAIDs or steroids

C. Hyperthyroidism

D. Diabetes

B. NSAIDs or steroids

93
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Hematemesis and melena indicate:

B. Gastric ulcers

94
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Colitis typically presents as:

A. Large bowel diarrhea with mucus and tenesmus

95
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Best diagnostic for colitis

A. Colonoscopy + biopsy

96
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CKD is typically caused by:

B. Multifactorial renal damage (glomerular, interstitial, toxins)

97
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A classic clinical sign of chronic kidney disease is:

A. Coughing

B. PU/PD

C. Hindlimb paralysis

D. Hematemesis

B. PUPD

98
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Dogs and cats with CKD often show:

B. Weight loss and dehydration

99
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Most important bloodwork values for diagnosing CKD:

C. BUN, creatinine, SDMA

100
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A hallmark urine finding in CKD

B. Isosthenuria (low, fixed specific gravity)