BMET CDC 1

(421) With positive logic, what does a circle (negation symbol) on the output of a gate represent?

c. When activated, the output will be a low.

1. (401) Resistors are classified by their
   

d. ohmic resistance and power rating.

2. (401) What protects a circuit from excessive current?
   

a. Fuse.

3. (401) What is the relationship between current, voltage, and resistance in a circuit?
   

c. Current is directly proportional to the applied voltage and inversely proportional to the circuit resistance.

4. (401) Given a circuit with a source voltage E of 45 volts (V) and resistance R of 5 ohms (Ω), what is the circuit's current I in amperes (A)?
   

a. 9A.

(401) What is the applied voltage E in volts (V) of a circuit if the current I is 3 amperes (A) and the resistance R is 45 ohms (Ω)?

d. 135V.

6. (401) If applied voltage E of 48 volts (V) produces a circuit current of 0.5 amperes (A), the circuit resistance in ohms (Ω) is
   

c. 96Ω.

(401) Which is an example of work not being done?

d. A compressed spring acting between two fixed objects.

8. (401) If the voltage across the load is 20 volts (V) and the current through the load is 4 amperes (A), the power delivered in watts (W) to the load is
   

d. 80W.

9. (401) If the current through the load is 4 amperes (A) and the load resistance is 4 ohms (Ω), the power in watts (W) delivered to the load is

d. 64W.

10. (401) Total electrical energy expended in an electrical circuit can be defined as the product of
    

c. time and power.

11. (402) In a series circuit, R1, R2, and R3 are 20 ohms (Ω) each and the applied voltage is 180 volts (V). The current in amperes (A) through R2 is
    

b. 3A.

12. (402) A series circuit consists of three resistors with resistive voltages of 40 volts (V), 80V, and 100V. What is the source voltage?
    

d. 220V.

13. (402) Most voltage measurements used to check proper circuit operation in electronic equipment are taken with respect to
    

a. ground.

14. (402) The resistance level of a short is
    

a. low.

15. (403) In a three-branch parallel circuit containing a 4-ohm (Ω), 5Ω, and 6Ω resistor, the current is
    

a. highest through the 4Ω resistor

16. (403) What is the equivalent resistance of six 120-ohm (Ω) resistors connected in parallel?
    

b. 20Ω.

17. (404) The total resistance of 10 ohms (Ω), 20Ω, and 25Ω connected in parallel is
    

a. 5.26Ω

18. (404) What is the total conductance, measured in Siemens (S), of a circuit containing a 10-ohm (Ω) and a 20Ω resistor connected in parallel?
    

c. 0.15S

19. (404) An open in a parallel branch causes a circuit's total resistance to
    

b. increase.

20. (405) Which type of circuit is used when it is necessary to have different voltage and current values from a single supply voltage?
    

c. Series-parallel.

21. (405) What is the minimum number of resistors required to form a series parallel circuit?
    

c. Three.

22. (406) The total voltage applied to a voltage divider is the
    

c. sum of the voltages across the divider.

23. (406) The sum of the power absorbed by all loads within a voltage divider is equal to the
    

a. total power supplied by the source.

24. (406) What are the two possible states of a Wheatstone bridge circuit?
    

c. Balanced and unbalanced

25. (407) An alternating-current generator converts
    

a. mechanical energy into electrical energy.

26. (407) What is the frequency in hertz (Hz) of an alternating current (AC) sine wave that repeats itself 500 times in 1/5 of a second?
    

d. 2,500 Hz.

27. (407) A sine wave's peak is 30 volts. What is its peak-to-peak value?
    

d. 60 volts.

28. (407) The most important value of a sine wave is
    

b. effective value.

29. (408) The creation of a magnetic field with current is
    

c. electromagnetism

30. (408) What can increase the strength of the magnetic field from an electromagnet?
    

d. Increasing the applied voltage and increasing the number of loops.

31. (409) Capacitance is the ability of an electrical circuit or device to
    

c. store an electrical charge.

32. (409) A capacitor has a capacitance of one farad (F) if it stores one coulomb of charge when connected across an electromotive force (EMF) of
    

a. 1 volt.

33. (409) Which factor does not affect capacitance?
    

b. Thickness of the plates

34. (409) In a simple capacitor, the plate area is two square inches, the dielectric material is air, and the distance between the plates is 0.01 inch (0.254 mm). To increase the capacitance,
    

a. change the dielectric material from air to mica.

35. (409) Compute the total capacitance in microfarads (μF) of a series circuit containing two capacitors: 5 μF and 10 μF.
    

b. 3.33 μF.

36. (409) Connecting capacitors in parallel causes the plate area to
    

a. increase and capacitance to increase.

37. (409) Compute the total capacitance in microfarads (μF) of a parallel circuit containing two capacitors: 5 μF and 10 μF.
    

c. 15 μF.

38. (409) Which capacitor type is polarized?
    

d. Electrolytic.

39. (410) What is the basic unit of inductance?
    

c. Henry.

40. (410) When two coils are close enough together so that the magnetic field of one coil couples to the other's magnetic field, it is referred to as
    

b. mutual inductance.

41. (411) The basis for transformer action is
    

d. mutual induction.

42. (411) A transformer with a turns ratio of 3:1 has a primary voltage of 120 volts, the secondary voltage will be
    

b. 40 volts.

43. (411) If a transformer with a turns ratio of 1:4 has a primary voltage of 20 volts, the secondary voltage will be
    

c. 80 volts.

44. (411) An autotransformer possesses which characteristic?
    

a. Contains only one winding.

45. (412) What are the three basic types of direct-current motors?
    

a. Series, shunt, and compound.

46. (412) When the load on a series direct current (DC) motor increases,
    

b. the armature speed decreases.

(413) Which two groups of elements are added as impurities to form a semiconductor?

c. Donor and acceptor.

48. (413) Reverse biasing a P-type and N-type material (PN) junction diode affects the junction barrier because the
    

d. holes and electrons are attracted away from the junction.

49. (413) As applied to semiconductors, "forward bias" means a positive voltage is applied to
    

a. the P-type material while a negative voltage is applied to the N-type material.

50. (414) What is an undesirable characteristic of a Zener diode?
    

d. Extreme sensitivity to temperature changes.

51. (415) In what manner must a transistor be biased to conduct current flow?
    

a. Emitter-base forward biased, collector-base reverse biased.

(415) The majority of current flow in a transistor with both the emitter-base and collector-base circuits connected flows from the

a. emitter through the collector.

53. (415) Collector current flow in a transistor is changed by varying the bias in the
    

d. emitter-base junction.

54. (415) The transistor amplifier configuration which produces a 180° out of phase output from the input signal is the common
    

c. emitter.

55. (415) The transistor amplifier with the characteristics of low input impedance, high output circuit impedance, in-phase input and output voltages, current gain of less than one, and high voltage gain is the common
    

a. base.

56.(415) The transistor amplifier with the characteristics of high input impedance, low output impedance, in-phaseinput and output voltages, moderate to high power gain, and a voltage gain of less than one is the common

d.collector.

57.(416) Which device has two base leads?

c.Unijunction transistor.

58.(417) Which semiconductor device requires an external trigger pulse (instead of an input signal) for operation?

b.Silicon controlled rectifier (SCR)

59.(417) When a silicon controlled rectifier's (SCR) anode and cathode are reversed biased, a trigger pulse appliedon the gate will cause it to

b.remain unchanged.

60.(417) Photosensitive devices are classified according to their

d.characteristics.

61. (417) What are the two basic types of optical coupled devices?
    

a. Optoisolator and optical interrupter.

62. (418) In the differential or common mode, the operational amplifier (OP AMP) amplifies the
    

c. difference between two input signals.

63. (418) What is the primary purpose of the closed loop operational amplifier (OP AMP) configuration?
    

d. Stability.

64. (418) Which operational amplifier (OP AMP) configuration provides a voltage gain of 1?
    

d. Voltage follower.

65. (419) What are the three important features of numbering systems?
    

c. A base or radix, place value, and a point.

66. (419) The fractional and whole part of a number in the binary system are separated by the
    

b. binary point.

67. (419) What numbering system is used by digital computers?
    

b. Binary.

68. (419) The binary numbering system uses base
    

b. two.

69. (419) Convert binary 01112 to its decimal equivalent.
    

c. 7.

70. (419) Which number is the decimal equivalent to binary 11001102?

b. 102.

71. (420) What is the major difference between the octal, decimal, and binary systems?
    

d. Base.

72. (420) Which number is the octal equivalent of binary 1100112?
    

b. 638.

73. (420) Which number is the binary equivalent of octal 7668?
    

d. 111110110.

74. (420) The advantage of the hexadecimal number system over the binary system is that the
    

c. hexadecimal number system requires fewer digits to represent numbers.

75. (420) Hexadecimal numbers are preceded by
    

a. the symbol X'.

76. (421) Which voltage level pair represents negative logic in a digital logic circuit?
    a. Binary 1 = -10V

a. Binary 1 = -10V; binary 0 = -5V.

78. (421) With positive logic, what is the minimum signal required to activate an OR gate?
    

b. Any high input.

79. (422) To produce a high output, an exclusive OR with more than two inputs must have
    

d. only an odd number of high inputs.

80. (422) The Schmitt trigger is designed to
    

b. correct signals.

81. (423) What are flip-flops used for in digital circuitry?
    

c. Storage.

82. (423) If both inputs are simultaneously provided to a reset-set (RS) latch flip-flop, the result will be
    

c. toggling of the flip-flop.

83. (423) In digital circuitry the clock signal's function is to
    

c. synchronize the operation of all circuit components.

84. (424) Which shift register can operate in all serial and parallel input/output combinations available?
    

d. Universal.

85. (424) In an up-counter, the count is increased by one each time a trigger is applied to the
    

b. Least significant digit (LSD) flip-flop.

86. (425) Analog-to-digital converter's (ADC) resolution is based on its
    

b. input voltage range and the number of different binary numbers it produces for an output.

87. (425) The output voltage of a digital-to-analog converter (DAC) can be as large as the
    

c. reference voltage.

88. (425) What stage of a digital-to-analog converter (DAC) determines how much of the reference voltage or current will appear at the converter output?
    

b. Scaling network.

89. (426) What device takes signals from multiple input signals and mixes them into a lesser number of outputs?
    

b. Multiplexer.

90. (426) What is the main function of a demultiplexer?
    

d. Data distribution.

91. (427) What combination of both number and letter designation would be used to identify a diode and semiconductor device?
    

a. 1N.

92. (428) The most predominant general-purpose linear integrated circuits is
    

d. operational amplifiers.

93. (428) Which characteristic of the complementary metal-oxide-semiconductor (CMOS) makes it excellent for use in battery-powered equipment?
    

b. Power consumption.

94. (428) What voltage range would transistor-transistor logic (TTL) consider invalid?
    

a. .8 to 2 volts.

95. (429) The frequency of equipment preventive maintenance (PM) is not established by the
    

a. equipment operator.

96. (429) What is a benefit of a properly managed preventive maintenance (PM) program?
    

a. Expands equipment life cycles.

97. (430) What step is most important when troubleshooting?
    

b. Think before you act

98. (430) What troubleshooting step is eliminated if the system has a visual indicator that lit up?
    

c. Analysis of malfunction symptoms.

99. (430) What is used to ensure credibility of your troubleshooting sequence?

a. Equipment service literature.

100. (430) What is the advantage of test point usage?

b. Rapid isolation of malfunctions.