BIO 330 Exam 2 Study Guide

Supercoiling is important for DNA structure because ________.

(a) It holds together the antiparallel strands of DNA in the double helix
(B) It provides energy for transcription
(C) It condenses the DNA so that it can fit inside the cell
(D) It prevents RNA from pairing with DNA in the double helix
(E) None of the above

(C)

Genes that encoded for polymerases, gyrases, ribosomal proteins, and other proteins
essential to replication, transcription, and translation are present on ________.
(A) Chromosomes
(B) Plasmids
(C) Chromosomes and plasmids
(D) Neither chromosomes nor plasmids
(E) None of the above

(A)

In Bacteria, a chromosome can be distinguished from a plasmid, because a chromosome
is a genetic element that ________.
(A) Is circular
(B) Is linear
(C) Encodes for essential functional genes
(D) Encodes for non-essential (“luxury”) genes
(E) None of the above

(C)

________ is an essential enzyme in DNA replication that unwinds the double-stranded
DNA, creating a ________ and exposing single-stranded DNA templates.
(A) DNA ligase / replication fork
(B) DNA gyrase / transcription bubble
(C) DNA helicase / replication fork
(D) DNA polymerase / transcription bubble
(E) None of the above

(C)

During DNA replication, the enzyme ________ synthesizes short strands of RNA
(primers) that serve as a starting point for DNA elongation.
(A) Primase
(B) Polymerase
(C) Gyrase
(D) Helicase
(E) None of the above

(A)

Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a method of DNA replication in vitro that uses
______ instead of the enzyme ______ to denature double-stranded DNA and expose
single-stranded DNA templates.
(A) Heat / DNA helicase
(B) Primers / DNA helicase
(C) Heat / DNA polymerase

(D) Primers / DNA polymerase
(E) None of the above

(A)

During the ________ step of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), the reaction mixture is
heated to 72ºC to allow the binding of the ________.
(A) Extension / DNA polymerase
(B) Extension / primers
(C) Annealing / DNA polymerase
(D) Annealing / primers
(E) None of the above

(A)

During the ________ step of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR), the reaction mixture is
cooled to 55ºC to allow the binding of ________.
(A) Denaturing / primers
(B) Annealing / DNA polymerase
(C) Annealing / primers
(D) Extension / DNA polymerase
(E) None of the above

(C)

The specificity of PCR amplification is determined by which ingredient in the reaction
mixture?
(A) DNA helicase
(B) DNA polymerase
(C) Nucleotides
(D) Primers
(E) None of the above

(D)

________ result from hydrogen bonds that form between nucleotides in the SAME strand
of an RNA molecule.
(A) Primary structures
(B) Secondary structures
(C) Tertiary structures
(D) Quaternary structures
(E) None of the above

(B)

In the process of transcription, promoters are specific sequences of ________ that are
recognized by ________.
(A) DNA / DNA polymerase
(B) RNA / DNA polymerase
(C) DNA / sigma factors
(D) RNA / ribosomes
(E) None of the above

(C)

________ is an essential enzyme in DNA transcription that unwinds the double-stranded
DNA, creating a ________ and exposing single-stranded DNA templates.
(A) DNA helicase / replication fork
(B) DNA helicase / transcription bubble
(C) RNA polymerase / replication fork
(D) RNA polymerase / transcription bubble

(D)

The structure of RNA polymerase in Archaea is ______.
(A) More similar to Eukaryotes than to other Prokaryotes (Bacteria)
(B) More similar to other Prokaryotes (Bacteria) than to Eukaryotes
(C) Simpler (fewer subunits) than bacterial RNA polymerase
(D) Simpler (fewer subunits) than eukaryotic RNA polymerase
(E) None of the above

(A)

Many pharmaceutical drugs specifically inhibit transcription in Bacteria but not Archaea. Why would drugs that inhibit transcription only affect Bacteria and not Archaea even though they are both prokaryotes?
(A) Bacteria lack a nucleus
(B) Archaea lack operons
(C) Archaea have ribosomes that are more similar to Eukaryotes than Bacteria
(D) Archaea have RNA polymerases that are more similar to Eukaryotes than Bacteria
(E) None of the above

(D)

Transfer RNA molecules ________.
(A) Function to transfer ribonucleotides to RNA polymerase during transcription
(B) Function to transfer the correct amino acids to the ribosome during translation
(C) Contain codons that bind to ribosomes during translation
(D) Are only present in the nucleus or eukaryotes
(E) None of the above

(B)

The codon on the ________ matches with the anticodon on the ________ to direct the addition of the correct amino acid to the growing polypeptide chain.
(A) mRNA / tRNA
(B) tRNA / mRNA
(C) DNA / mRNA
(D) tRNA / rRNA
(E) None of the above

(A)

Translation is terminated by ________ that recognize the stop codon and release the
newly synthesized protein.
(A) Inverted repeats
(B) Molecular chaperones
(C) Release factors
(D) Ribosome-release sequences
(E) None of the above

(C)

You are studying the expression of a bacterial gene coding for a new protein. By randomly mutating the DNA sequence directly upstream of the start codon of the gene, you create a mutant that produces the SAME amount of mRNA, but very FEW proteins. You conclude that the DNA sequence that you mutated is MOST likely a ________.
(A) Promoter region
(B) Ribosome-binding site
(C) Transcription termination sequence
(D) Non-coding DNA region

(E) None of the above

(B)

________ is a mechanism by which bacteria assess population density, producing internal signal molecules called autoinducers.
(A) Autophosphorylation
(B) Response regulation
(C) Signal transduction
(D) Quorum sensing
(E) None of the above

(D)

Aliivibrio fischeri is a symbiotic bacterium whose bioluminescence is controlled by quorum sensing. During a growth curve of A. fischeri, when would you expect to see the strongest bioluminescence?
(A) Lag phase
(B) Early to middle log phase
(C) Late log to early stationary phase
(D) Death phase
(E) None of the above

(C)

A triplet of bases on an mRNA molecule is known as a(n) ________.
(A) Amino acid
(B) Anticodon
(C) Codon
(D) Ribosome-binding sequence
(E) None of the above

(C)

alpha-helices and beta-sheets are formed by hydrogen bonds between amino acids and are examples of ________ structure in proteins.
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Tertiary
(D) Quaternary
(E) None of the above

(B)

Which type of protein would exhibit the MOST stability?
(A) A protein with more a-helices than B-sheets
(B) A protein with more B-sheets than a-helices
(C) A protein with equal amounts of B-sheets and a-helices
(D) A protein with only B-sheets
(E) None of the above

(A)

Hydrophobic interactions and disulfide bonds aid in the formation of ________ structure in proteins.
(A) Primary
(B) Secondary
(C) Tertiary
(D) Quaternary
(E) None of the above

(C)

_______ assist in the proper folding of newly synthesized and partially denatured proteins, ensuring proper protein structure and function.
(A) tRNA
(B) Ribosomes
(C) Release factors
(D) Molecular chaperones
(E) None of the above

(D)

An acidophilic, facultative aerobe is a bacterium that would grow BEST in an _____ environment.

(A) Oxygen-depleted, acidic

(B) Oxygen-rich, acidic

(C) Oxygen-depleted, alkaline

(D) Oxygen-rich, alkaline

 (E) None of the above

(B)

Which of the following best describes the response of an aerotolerant anaerobe exposed to oxygen?

(A) Oxygen would be lethal

(B) Oxygen would have no effect on growth

(C) Oxygen would cause a small increase in growth

(D) Oxygen would cause an exponential increase in growth

(E) None of the above

(B)

The decimal reduction times of bacteria ________ with increasing temperature. 

(A) Decrease 

(B) Increase

(C) Stay the same

(D) Have no relationship with

(E) None of the above

(A)

Which sterilization method is used to penetrate solids and liquids, such as the mail that gets sent to the White House or Congress?

(A) High-Efficiency Particulate Air Filters (HEPA)

(B) Ultraviolet radiation

(C) Flash pasteurization

(D) Ionizing radiation

(E) None of the above

(D)

You have discovered a new antimicrobial agent against bacteria. When you add the new chemical to a bacterial culture in exponential (log) growth phase, the live cell count remains constant and the total cell count remains constant. You classify the new antimicrobial agent as ______.

(A) Bacteriostatic

(B) Bacteriocidal

(C) Bacteriolytic

(D) Fungilytic

(E) All of the above

(A)

Q: An obligate anaerobe, is a type of bacteria that would grow best in _____?

Ans: An environment completely depleted of oxygen

Q: A bacterium that is _____ grows better with the presence of oxygen, but does not require it?

Ans: Fulcative aerobe

Q: A _____  can grow at very low levels of water

Ans: Xerophiles

Q: You discovery a bacteria that can grow in very high concentrations of sugar, this bacteria would be classified as a_______

Ans: Osmophiles

Q: This sterilization method only kills surface level microbes

Ans: Ultraviolet radiation

Q: Using a Bactericidal agent does what to the bacteria?

Ans: the cells die but stay intact

Q: How does a Bacterialcidal agent kill the bacteria?

Ans: It binds to specific cellular targets

Q: What does Bacteriolytic target?

Ans: the cell wall and cell membrane

Q: Mold is growing on a petri dish, and you see a clear ring from around the mold where other microbes cannot grow… this space is called___

Ans: The zone of inhibition

Q: an example of a Bactericidal is

Ans: Formaldehyde

Q: ____is a way to sterilize without heat, and can be completed using a natural compound such as cellulose

Ans: Filter sterilization

Q: this method of preservation? Uses rapid heating and cooling to reduce the number of microbes

Ans: Pasturization

Q: this type of microbial growth control is used for inhibiting pathogens on inanimate surfaces

Ans: disinfectant

Q: _____ is a type of synthetic drug that interferes with folic acid pathways, targets both gram positive and gram negative bacteria, and is considered a bacteriostatic.

Ans: Sulfa drugs

Q: _____ is a category of antibiotics that prevents peptidoglycan synthesis, and an example of an antibiotic in this category is penicillin.

Ans: B-Lactam

Q: Macrolide is a category of antibiotics that ________

Ans: Interferes with the protein synthesis of bacteria by affecting its amino acids, if someone is allergic to penicillin they usually take this drug.

Q: Which type of drug is most difficult to make selectively toxic and why?

Ans: Antiviral drugs because the drugs that target the virus also target the host cell

Q: Azidothymidine (AZT) is effective by targeting ______, which does not take place in the human body.

Ans: Reverse Transcription

Q: Antibiotics typically harm cells, but some cells can use antibiotics as…

Ans: signaling molecules and food sources

Q: Which option is a way penicillin resistance is created?

Ans: though inactivation (beta-lactamase) enzymes that target penicillin (from plismids, coded on plasmid that are passed through a population)

______ is the most important feature of an effective antimicrobial drug.

(A) Chemical structure

(B) Functional group

(C) Toxicity

(D) Selective toxicity

(E) All of the above

(D)

______ are broad spectrum, synthetic drugs (e.g. Ciprofloxacin) that inhibit microbial growth by interfering with DNA gyrase (stopping DNA replication).

(A) Quinolones

(B) Beta-lactams

(C) Macrolides

(D) Sulfa drugs

(E) None of the above

(A)

______ is a component of the cytoplasmic membrane in fungi and a specific target for antifungal drugs.

(A) Ergosterol

(B) Cholesterol 

(C) Mycolic acid

(D) Teichoic acid 

(E) None of the above

(A)

A bacterium containing a transport protein that actively pumps penicillin out of the cell is an example of which mechanism of drug resistance?

(A) Impermeability

 (B) Inactivation

(C) Efflux

(D) Target mutation

 (E) None of the above

(C)

 What does the 'Netflix Model" of antibiotics refer to?
(A) Allowing people to get a free Netflix subscription for a year, if they take the full 10 days of antibiotics

(B) Having a subscription to medical antibiotics on a month or yearly basis so that medical companies have incentives to make new antibiotics

 (C) Giving everyone a monthly antibiotic so that they can get build internal resistance

 (D) Allowing people to have the full 10 paid days off work, so they remember to take their antibiotics

 (E) None of the above

(B) 

Q: Which of the following is NOT true of regulatory proteins?

1. Homodimeric structure 

2. Transform mRNA into DNA 

3. Bind in major groove of DNA 

4. Interact with specific DNA sequences 

5. None of the above

2.

Q: Which regulation process controls gene expression at the level of translation?

1. Enzyme repression 

2. Enzyme induction 

3. Attenuation 

4. Antisense RNA 

5. None of the above

4.

Q: In negative control of transcription, how does the presence of an inducer affect transcription?

1. The inducer binds to the operator; transcription is blocked 

2. The inducer does not bind to the operator; transcription proceeds 

3. The inducer causes the repressor to bind to the operator; transcription is blocked 

4. The inducer prevents the repressor from binding to the operator; transcription proceeds 

5. None of the above

4.

Q: ______ is a mechanism by which bacteria assess population density, producing internal signal molecules called autoinducers.

1.  Autophosphorylation 

2. Response regulation 

3.  Signal transduction 

4. Quorum sensing 

5. None of the above

4.

Q: How is the activity of a riboswitch controlled?

1. By other riboswitches 

2. By regulatory proteins 

3. By metabolite binding that changes mRNA secondary structure 

4. By complementary small RNA (sRNA) binding to mRNA 

5. None of the above

3.

Q: A mutation that restores the wildtype function of gene is called a ______ mutation.

1. Indel 

2. Reverse 

3. Induced 

4. Spontaneous 

5. None of the above

2.

Q: Which of the following is NOT true about point mutations (substitutions)?

1. They can result in transitions or transversions 

2. They can result in adding or deleting nucleotides 

3. They can code for the same amino acid as wildtype (silent) 

4. They can code for a stop codon instead of an amino acid (nonsense) 

5. None of the above

2.

Q: You are working in a lab to determine if a new food preservative is mutagenic. After conducting an Ames Test, you find lots of colonies growing on the treatment plate (with the preservative) and few colonies on the control plate (no preservative). You conclude that the chemical is a ______ that led to ______ mutations within the colonies.

1. Non-mutagenic, induced 

2. Non-mutagenic, spontaneous 

3. Mutagenic, induced 

4. Mutagenic, spontaneous 

5. None of the above

3.

Q: Virus-mediated transfer of bacterial DNA from a host cell to a donor cell is called ______.

1. Conjugation 

2. Lysogeny 

3. Transformation 

4. Transduction 

5. None of the above

4.

Q: Insertion sequences differ from transposons because they ______.

1. Are transferred by the sex pilus 

2. Are transferred by bacteriophages 

3. Contain multiple genes with important functions (e.g. antibiotic resistance) 

4. Contain a single that codes for transposase 

5. None of the above

4.

Q: ____ is a type of point mutation that ______

1. Silent; Inserts a stop codon in the DNA sequence

2. Nonsense;the change of a single DNA base that leads to the substitution of an amino acid

3. Missense; a purine base is replaced by a pyrimidine base

4. Transition; a purine base is replaced by another purine base

5. Transversion; changes DNA sequence but not the amino acid sequence

4.

Q: ____ is a type of point mutation that ______

1. Silent; a purine base is replaced by a pyrimidine base

2. Nonsense; changes DNA sequence but not the amino acid sequence

3. Missense, the change of a single DNA base that leads to the substitution of an amino acid

4. Transition; Inserts a stop codon in the DNA sequence

5. Transversion; a purine base is replaced by another purine base

3.

Q: A spontaneous mutation can be caused by____

1. errors from DNA polymerase

2. External agents

3. Mutagens

4. Adaptive mutations

5. None of the above

1.

Q: An induced mutant can be caused from

1. error in DNA replication

2. Eternal agents

3. Errors in DNA polymerase

4. All of the above

5. None of the above

2.

Q: If DNA is transferred to a new cell and is accepted what happens

1. It is replicated independently

2. It is degraded by recipient cell

3. It is  inserted in recipient chromosome

4. A and C

5. None of the above

4.

Q: What are the three types of horizontal gene transfer?

1. Transformation, transduction, and conjugation

2. Transformation, transposition, and conjugation

3. Transposition, transformation, and innoculation

4. All of the above

5. None of the above

1.

Q: ____ is a type of transposable element that transfers multiple genes at a time

1. Transposons

2. Insertion sequences

3. Both A and B

4. None of the above

1.

Q: Which of the following can transfer multiple genes between organisms or within genomes?

1. Bacteriophage

2. Transposons

3. Insertion sequences

4. Both A and B

5. None of the above

4.

Which of the following is NOT true of regulatory proteins?

(A) Homodimeric structure

(B) Transform mRNA into DNA

(C) Bind in major groove of DNA

(D) Interact with specific DNA sequences

(E) None of the above

(B)

Which regulation process controls gene expression at the level of translation?

(A) Enzyme repression 

(B) Enzyme induction

(C) Attenuation

(D) Antisense RNA

 (E) None of the above

(D)

In negative control of transcription, how does the presence of an inducer affect transcription?

(A) The inducer binds to the operator; transcription is blocked

(B) The inducer does not bind to the operator; transcription proceeds

 (C) The inducer causes the repressor to bind to the operator; transcription is blocked

(D) The inducer prevents the repressor from binding to the operator; transcription proceeds

(E) None of the above

(D)

______ is a mechanism by which bacteria assess population density, producing internal signal molecules called autoinducers.
(A) Autophosphorylation 

(B) Response regulation

(C) Signal transduction

(D) Quorom sensing

(E) None of the above

(D) 

How is the activity of a riboswitch controlled?

(A) By other riboswitches

(B) By regulatory proteins

(C) By metabolite binding that changes mRNA secondary structure

(D) By complementary small RNA (sRNA) binding to mRNA

(E) None of the above

(C)

You perform an Ames test with some Taco Bell queso to test if it had the ability to induce mutations. Your chosen mutated organism is unable to produce the amino acid histidine, and you make two plates with a media containing low amounts of histidine. One plate is a control, and one plate is your test group, containing queso and the media. Each of your groups had a low amount of growth. This most likely means that...

1. (A)  The queso was able to induce a reversion mutation in the bacteria, enabling them to produce histidine, and grow at a low level.

2. (B)  The queso had no mutation-inducing properties, so the bacteria were unable to produce histidine, stunting their growth.

3. (C)  The bacteria were disgusted by the queso.

4. (D)  AandC

5. (E)  None of the above

B

You are working with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus in your microbiology lab, attempting to develop an effective antibiotic to combat it. Eureka! Through sheer dumb luck, you've discovered and isolated a compound that can efficiently attack the cell wall. Such an antibiotic would be classified as...

(A) Bactericidal (B) Fungilytic (C) Bacteriolytic

(D) Bacteriostatic
(E) None of the above

C

What happens to a bacterium when it has a very low mutation rate?

1. (A)  The bacteria will thrive and become stronger as a species since all mutations are

   negative

2. (B)  Nothing will be affected; the bacterium will continue to live just as it was

3. (C)  The bacteria won’t be able to evolve and will go extinct

4. (D)  The bacteria will rapidly evolve since no mutations are slowing it down

5. (E)  None of the above

C

You’re mixing different solutions in the lab to see what your bacteria can survive in. In a

high salt concentrated solution, the bacteria die, but in a high sugar concentrated solution, it

thrives. What did you discover about your bacteria?

(A) It’s an obligate anaerobe

(B) It’s an osmophile

(C) It’s a halophile

(D) A and B are correct

A and C are correct

B

You have created a solution with a pH below 5.5 to test your bacterium in. After inoculating your bacteria, you let them incubate for the next 48 hours. When you check on your bacteria, they have all died, what happened?

1. (A)  The bacteria were an alkaliphile

2. (B)  The bacteria were an xerophile

3. (C)  The bacteria were an acidophile

4. (D)  The bacteria were a thermophile

5. (E)  The bacteria were a psychrophile

A

Which of the following can transfer multiple genes between organisms or within genomes?

1. (A)  Bacteriophage

2. (B)  Transposons

3. (C)  Insertion sequences

4. (D)  Both A and B

5. (E)  None of the above

D

RNA Genomes mutate only in _______ at a _______ frequency than DNA Genomes.

1. (A)  viruses, lower

2. (B)  viruses, higher

3. (C)  bacteria, higher

4. (D)  bacteria, lower

5. (E)  None of the above

B

What are the three types of horizontal gene transfer?

1. (A)  Transformation, transduction, and conjugation

2. (B)  Transformation, transposition, and conjugation

3. (C)  Transposition, transformation, and inoculation

4. (D)  All of the above

5. (E)  None of the above

A

You discover a bacterium that can grow in very high concentrations of sugar because it can tolerate the pressure sugar creates. These bacteria would be classified as ______.

1. (A)  Xerophiles

2. (B)  Osmophiles

3. (C)  Halophiles

4. (D)  Glucophiles

5. (E)  None of the above

B

Imagine you are a helpful microbe living in the human body, working to protect your host by developing new ways to fight harmful bacteria. One day, you meet a new ally who specializes in destroying bacterial cells using viruses. This new friend becomes essential to your work by helping eliminate bacterial pathogens more efficiently. Your ally is a....

1. (A)  Bacteriophage

2. (B)  Actinomycete

3. (C)  Antibiotic

4. (D)  A vaccine

5. (E)  Virus

A

During a study of a pathogenic E. coli strain, researchers discovered a genomic island containing genes for toxin secretion and adhesion, flanked by insertion sequences. Further Analysis reveals that these genes are absent in nonpathogenic E. coli strains and were likely acquired through horizontal gene transfer.

(A) It represents a core genome region that has undergone gene duplication and divergence to produce virulence factors.

2. (B)  It is part of pathogenicity island within the pan-genome, transferred via transduction, and flanked by mobile DNA elements.

3. (C)  It represents a chromosomal inversion event caused by homologous recombination during DNA repair, producing new virulent genes.

4. (D)  It is a conjugative plasmid insertion that has been integrated by the F plasmid, making the strain a permanent Hfr cell.

5. (E)  It represents a synthetic operon assembled through laboratory mutagenesis and not a product of natural microbial evolution.

B

What is the defining technological difference between metagenomic and proteomic analyses?

1. (A)  Metagenomics uses electrophoresis, proteomics uses sequencing.

2. (B)  Proteomics requires DNA fragmentation; metagenomics requires protein digestion.

3. (C)  Metagenomics sequences nucleic acids, proteomics identifies proteins via mass

   spectrometry

4. (D)  Both use PCR amplificaation of environmental RNA

5. (E)  Proteomics determines gene function directly from codon usage.

C

Which of the following occurred first?

1. (A)  First Animal Genome

2. (B)  First Y east Genome

3. (C)  First Human Genome

4. (D)  First Plant Genome

5. (E)  None of the above

B

Which of the following is NOT an example of Chemical Mutagens

1. (A)  Mobile DNA

2. (B)  Chemical modifiers

3. (C)  Intercalating Agents

4. (D)  Nucleotide Base Analogs

5. (E)  None of the above

A

What kind of method would be utilized to detect chemical mutagens?

1. (A)  Pacific Biosciences Platform

2. (B)  Sanger Sequencing

3. (C)  Transcriptomics

4. (D)  Ames Test

5. (E)  None of the above

D

Which of the following best describes Internal signals?

1. (A)  They are small molecules that enter the cell

2. (B)  They are large molecules that enter the cell

3. (C)  They are small molecules that do not enter the cell

4. (D)  They are large molecules that do not enter the cell

5. (E)  None of the above

A

Proteomics is the study of ______ .

1. (A)  Total Protein Production

2. (B)  Protons

3. (C)  Genomes

4. (D)  Protozoa

5. (E)  None of the above

A

Which category kills all cells and endospores on inanimate objects?

1. (A)  Antiseptics

2. (B)  Disinfectants

3. (C)  Sterilants

4. (D)  Sanitizers

5. (E)  None of the above

C

Which of the following best describes pathogenicity islands?

1. (A)  Segments of DNA that code for antibiotic resistance and are inherited only vertically

2. (B)  Clusters of virulence genes found in pathogenic bacterial strains that are often

   transmitted horizontally.

3. (C)  Regions of DNA that regulate bacterial metabolism under normal growth conditions.

4. (D)  Random mutations that occur in bacterial chromosomes leading to loss of virulence.

5. (E)  None of the above

B

Clostridium botulinum is often found in improperly stored honey and can cause severe illness in infants if contracted. Clostridium botulinum is classified as a ______.

(A) Xerophile

2. (B)  Psychrophile

3. (C)  Osmophile

4. (D)  Alkaliphile

5. (E)  None of the above

C

If you ran a daycare, in order to prevent the spread of germs amongst the children, you would wipe down the surfaces of the tables and toys with a(n)_____.

1. (A)  Sterilant

2. (B)  Disinfectant

3. (C)  Antiseptic

4. (D)  germicide

5. (E)  All of the above

B

A(n)______ is an antimicrobial drug that was used to treat Dr. Erwin’s latent tuberculosis and functioned by interfering with the mycolic acids in the bacterial cell walls.

1. (A)  β-lactam drug

2. (B)  Sulfa drug

3. (C)  Quinolone

4. (D)  Isoniazid

5. (E)  None of the above

D