IFR Cards

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Last updated 7:31 PM on 6/30/26
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172 Terms

1
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How do you choose an alternate (1-2-3 Rule)?

For at least 1hr before and 1hr after ETA: Ceiling is at least 2000’ above airport elevation and Visibility is at least 3SM.

A destination alternate is always required unless an instrument approach is published and available for the destination.

2
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What is a STAR?

Standard Terminal Arrival

An ATC arrival procedure that transitions a pilot from the enroute phase to the approach where a landing can be made. Reduces workload, minimizes communication and simplifies clearance deliveries.

*You do not have to accept.

3
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What is a Fix?

The location in which you’re: - Holding - The point around a VOR/DME - Waypoint or intersection.

This allows pilots to confirm position, define routes and start instrument approaches.

4
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Describe the Entry type: Teardrop

Cross the fix, fly outbound on track of 30° turn inside from course.

Fly outbound then inbound and continue the turn as established.

5
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Describe the Entry type: Direct

Fly directly to the fix and enter the hold.

6
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Describe the Entry type: Parallel

Cross the fix, hold parallel heading to non-holding side. Fly Inbound (1 minute) then Outbound then into the hold.

7
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What are the fundamental IFR skills?

Instrument Cross-Check

Instrument interpretation

Aircraft control

8
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What is Attitude Instrument Flying? What are the two different methods?

Controlling the aircraft by reference to flight instruments only.

Methods: Control and Performance – Primary and Supporting.

9
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What is a Magnetometer?

Electronic compass that replaces traditional compass and reduces turn/acceleration errors.

10
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What is a Trend Vector? Which Instruments use it?

The pink line that shows where your aircraft will be in 6 seconds.

Airspeed indicator, altimeter, HSI (turns).

11
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What are your Privileges (IFR)?

Can fly IFR

Can fly Special VFR at night

Can act as a safety pilot for IFR training

12
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What are your Limitations (IFR)?

Currency

Can only fly IFR in an aircraft equipped for IFR

Cannot fly passengers for compensation

13
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Describe Instrument currency.

Within the preceding 6 Calendar Months: Must complete 6 instrument

approaches

holding procedures

intercepting/tracking courses through navigation systems

14
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What is CRAFT?

A method for pilots to keep track of their IFR clearance.

C - Clearance to destination airport

R - Route

A - Altitude

F - Frequencies

T - Transponder Code

15
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When completing a Hold, how do you know when you’ve crossed the fix (VOR, GPS, DME)?

VOR – to/from flag will flip

GPS – pointer to waypoint will flip

DME – will show distance from the fix.

16
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If the distance isn’t marked on the map, how long are legs in a hold if above/below 14000ft?

Below 14000’ – 1 minute inbound legs.

Above 14000’ – 1.5 minute outbound legs.

17
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What is IMC?

Instrument Meteorological Conditions Visibility is < 3SM & Ceiling is below 1000ft AGL.

18
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What are 3 components of ILS?

Localizer (L/R alignment with runway centerline)

Glideslope (descent path to runway is 3°)

Marker Beacons (give indication of how far you are from the runway.

19
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Describe how your Glideslope works.

Vertical Component of ILS that gives Vertical Guidance (3° slope, 1.5° thick) direction of final approach.

Lobe is 90hz (top) and 150hz (lower).

20
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Describe how your Localizer works.

Horizontal Component of ILS.

Lobe is 90hz and 150hz that intersect at the extended centerline.

21
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What are the type of Entry Holds?

Direct, Parallel, Teardrop.

22
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What is ALS?

Available Lighting System

Runway lights that help pilots transition from IFR to VFR in low visibility to see the runway.

23
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What is your Approach Category based off? How would you calculate it?

Based off your Vref – speed for stabilized approach.

Vref = 1.3 x Vso

24
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What is a Standard Turn?

A 360° turn will take 2 minutes at 3° rate.

Standard turn is to the right. Non-Standard is to the left.

25
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When do you go Missed on a Non-Precision?

If you do not have a stable approach

Do not know your Flight Visibility (SM)

Do not have eyes on the runway.

*Aviate, Navigate, Communicate

26
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What do these mean: N/A, NA?

N/A – Not applicable

NA – Not authorized

27
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If you cross the VDP high, do you have to go Missed?

Not legally, but if you’re high then you might have a steeper approach which could affect your stabilized approach.

28
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How do you log Instrument Flight Time?

Under 61.51. Two types of instrument time:

Actual Instrument Flight Time and Simulated Flight Time.

29
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What is Actual Instrument Flight Time?

Time logged when a pilot operates aircraft solely by reference to instruments in actual IMC.

30
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What is Simulated Instrument Flight Time?

Time logged when a pilot operates aircraft solely by reference to instruments while using a view-limiting device. *Safety pilot must be on board.

31
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What is a Safety Pilot?

At least a PPL rated pilot with a current medical certificate in appropriate category/class rating that acts as eyes keeping the flight safe during simulated instrument training.

32
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What is the order of communication with an IFR flight plan?

ATIS

Clearance Delivery

Ground

Tower

Departure

Center

Arrival

Tower

Ground

33
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What is a CDI?

Course Deviation Indicator

Shows the pilot if they are on course or L/R of the radial. If you are left then fly left until it centers. Each dot on CDI indicates 2°.

Full deflection means you’re off by more than 10°.

34
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What are the minimum weather requirements/conditions for the following Alternate airports: Precision, Non-Precision, No Approach Available?

Precision: 600’ Ceiling - 2SM Visibility

Non-Precision: 800’ Ceiling – 2SM Visibility

No Approach Available: Ceiling/Visibility must allow descent from MEA/Approach/Landing – under VFR

35
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What is MAP?

Missed Approach Point Location in an instrument approach where the pilot must execute a missed approach if visual contact with the runway is not established (go-around).

36
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What is the difference between a(n): Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP) & Standard Instrument Departure (SID)?

ODP: Provides obstacle clearance only (text/graphically)

SID: Provides obstacle clearance and reduces pilot workload by simplifying clearances (graphically)

37
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What is a “Pop-Up” clearance?

This allows pilots to transition from VFR to IFR without previously filing a flight plan with ATC. This can get into the system quickly, but also subject to ATC workload.

38
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When is an Instrument Rating Required?

When flying into IMC conditions Flying Special VFR (sunset to sunrise) Flight in Class A When carrying passengers for compensation/hire for XC flights more than 50NM or at night.

39
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What inspections are necessary (IFR)?

Airworthiness Directives

Annual

VOR (30 days)

100-hour Altimeter/Pitot Static System (24 calendar months)

Transponder (24 calendar months)

ELT (12 calendar months)

Supplemental Type Certificate

40
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How far in advanced should you file your IFR flight plan?

30 minutes. 4 hours if flying over FL230.

41
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No person may operate a flight in controlled airspace under IFR unless…

They have filed an IFR flight plan and have received ATC clearance.

42
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How do you file an IFR flight plan?

1800WXBRIEF.com / 1-800-WX-BRIEF

Flight Service Station

EFB

ATC

43
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How do you cancel an IFR flight plan: Towered/Un-towered?

Towered: ATC will cancel your flight plan upon landing.

Un-towered: Pilot must contact ATC/FSS to cancel (radio or phone).

44
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What are the IFR fuel requirements?

You must have enough fuel to reach your destination airport Fuel from destination to most distance alternate Extra 45 minutes calculated at normal cruise speed

45
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What is a change over point?

A point on an airway when you switch from one VOR to another.

If you do not see this symbol, then you should switch VORs midway through the route.

46
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What are your three legal requirements to land (91.75)?

You must have a stable approach to land

You must know the visibility in SM

You must have the runway environment in sight (lights, pavement, runway markings)

47
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What is the ILS?

Instrument Landing System Radio Navigation Aid providing lateral/vertical guidance to the runway in poor visibility and low ceilings.

48
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Who is the Center (after departure from airport)?

ARTCC (air route traffic control center) responsible for directing aircraft on IFR flight plans (during en-route etc).

49
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IPC - What is it? What is its purpose?

Instrument Proficiency Check Required if outside the 6 month grace period (so 12 months total) for currency requirements to regain currency for IFR flight. A DPE, CFII or Company check Pilot can issue these.

50
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What does “CLNC DEL” mean on an approach plate?

Clearance Delivery Frequency This is where pilots will receive their IFR Clearance.

Contact them before taxiing.

51
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What is 6-HIT?

Currency requirements. Must complete 6 approaches, holds, intercepting courses and tracking courses every 6 calendar months.

52
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What is a DME and its biggest error?

Distant Measuring Equipment

It’s a two-way radio signal between the aircraft and ground based DME station. It’s biggest error is Slant Range – the closer you are to the station the less accurate it is (high and close won’t be accurate.

This also works with line of sight.

53
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What are the Instrument Rating Requirements?

Reference 61.65

54
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What Minimum Equipment is needed for an IFR flight?

IFR Day – VFR Day and GRABCARD.

IFR Night – VFR Day, VFR Night and GRABCARD.

55
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What does GRABCARD stand for?

Minimum Equipment for IFR operations.

G – generator/alternator

R – Radios (two-way/transponder)

A – Altimeter

B – Ball (slip/skid)

C – Clock

A – Attitude Indicator

R – Rate of Turn Indicator (TC)

D – Directional Gyro (Heading Indicator)

56
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What is a Cruise Clearance?

Issued by ATC, who allocates a block of airspace for flight. You may climb and descend in this block of airspace. If you descend, you must report leaving the given altitude and cannot return without ATC clearance.

57
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What is RNAV? Types?

Area Navigation A precision system allows descent to lower minima for safer landings - aka GPS. Uses GPS waypoints (landing) for direct point-to-point routes. Types: LPV – LNAV – LP – LP+V – LNAV/VNAV, RNP.

58
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What is a DME Arc?

It is used to transition from enroute phase of flight to the approach course.

59
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What is the ADC and its parts?

Air Data Computers that replace the mechanical pitot static instruments: - airspeed tape - altimeter - VSI

60
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What are some system errors with ADC?

A red X will be displayed over the effected instrument.

During Taxi verify:

The ASI reads zero and IAS correcting during takeoff roll

Altimeter indicates within 75ft of elevation when set to correct altimeter setting

VSI reads zero

61
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What is the AHRS and its parts?

Attitude and Heading Reference System

*Uses inertial sensors (electronic gyros/accelerometers) to determine attitude to the horizon. Parts: Magnetometer, MEMs Gyro, Ring Laser Gyro, HSI, Attitude Indicator.

62
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What are some instruments where system errors can occur within the AHRS?

A red X will be displayed over the effected instrument. During Taxi verify: Heading Indicator matches compass TC shows correct slip/skid indications and inclinometer moves opposite of your turns.

63
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What is RAIM and its limitations?

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring.

Establishes GPS reliability by detecting and alerting pilots if GPS data is unreliable/errors.

Requires 5 satellites minimum.

Limitations: Less accurate than WAAS and only detects errors, doesn’t correct them.

64
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What is WAAS? Its limitations? How many Satellites needed?

Wide Area Augmentation System

Requires 4 satellites minimum.

Enhances GPS accuracy (1-2 meters) by using ground stations to correct errors and geostationary satellites to broadcast the corrected data to the aircraft GPS.

65
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What is the size of a Terminal VOR?

25NM from 1000’ – 12000’

66
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What is the size of a Low VOR?

40NM from 1000’ – FL180

67
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What is the size of a High VOR?

40NM: 1000’ – 14,500’ 100NM: 14000’ – FL180 130NM: FL180 – FL450 100NM: FL450 – FL600

68
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What is a DP? Does it guarantee anything?

Departure Procedure

A pre-planned route for aircraft takeoff in IFR to ensure obstacle/terrain clearance.

69
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What is DH? What Approaches is it common in?

Decision Height Height above the runway’s surface (TDZE) where the pilot must either continue for landing or go missed.

Precision Approaches.

70
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What is FAP? Which Approach is it used in?

Final Approach Point Precision Approach (ILS - GLS).

The point in space (no fix), where the glideslope is intercepted to begin the final approach segment.

This is marked with a lightning bolt symbol.

Descend to landing minimums (DH or DA).

71
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What is FAF?

Final Approach Fix

Marks the beginning of the final approach segment to MDA or DA (Maltese Cross).

72
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What is the HSI?

Navigational instrument that combines CDI with Heading Indicator.

This helps pilots track their course by showing both heading and how much they need to turn to stay on track.

73
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Where is the Turn Rate Indicator on the G1000?

The tick marks on top of the HSI. Outer tick marks a standard rate turn. Inner tick marks a ½ rate standard turn.

74
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What is MEA?

Minimum En-Route Altitude

Lowest altitude that ensures obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage along entire route of flight.

75
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What is MRA?

Minimum Reception Altitude

Lowest altitude that an off-course nav facility can be received to identify a fix via radio aids.

76
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What is MCA?

Minimum Crossing Altitude

The lowest altitude you can cross a fix when proceeding to a higher MEA segment.

77
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What is OROCA?

Off-Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude

The designated obstruction clearance for the entire quadrant. No guaranteed signal from nav aids.

Clearance of 1000’ for non-mountainous terrain areas.

Clearance of 2000’ for mountainous terrain areas.

78
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What is MOCA?

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude

Altitude that ensures obstacle clearance but only guarantees signal reception within 22NM or VORs.

79
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What is MAA?

Maximum Authorized Altitude

The highest altitude you can fly to receive navigational signals.

80
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Must a flight instructor be present if you are planning on using an aviation training device to maintain your IFR currency?

What about to acquire instrument aeronautical experience for a certificate/rating?

No, they do not need to be present when maintaining currency. Simulator must represent same category of aircraft. Pilot must make a logbook or training record and must specify the training device, time, and the content. For acquiring a certificate or rating, yes, an instructor must be present. An instructor signature in the Pilot’s logbook is necessary as well.

81
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Which Approach is a FAF used in?

Non-Precision Approach – GPS – VOR – LOC – NDB

82
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What are two types of DP?

Obstacle Departure Procedure (ODP)

Standard Instrument Procedure (SID).

83
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Do your fuel requirements for flight change at night?

No they do not. Remember you’re flying IFR.

84
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What are 3 Limitations of a VOR?

Cone of Confusion

Line of Sight

Slant Range

85
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What is the Cone of Confusion?

The cone shaped airspace above a VOR/NBD where the signal is unreliable/non-existent, causing the instruments to act wildly.

This occurs because the signals don’t transmit straight up.

86
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For currency, 6-HITS, can you shoot the same approach?

Yes you can.

87
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How do you know when you can legally log a Simulated Approach?

While a safety pilot is on board, you must descend down to minimums (MDA or DA).

88
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When can you legally log an Actual Approach (in IMC)? Is a Safety Pilot needed if flying into Actual IMC?

In order to log the approach, you must exit IMC after passing the FAF. This means that if the FAF in not in IMC conditions you cannot log it. *No safety pilot is needed if in Actual IMC.

89
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What is the clearance altitude for non-mountainous and mountainous terrain areas?

Clearance of 1000’ for non-mountainous terrain areas.

Clearance of 2000’ for mountainous terrain areas.

90
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What are the three fundamentals of instrument flying?

Instrument Cross-Check

Instrument Interpretation

Aircraft Control

91
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What are three common instrument cross-check errors?

Fixation, omission and emphasis.

92
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What documents are required on board your aircraft?

Airworthiness Certification

Radio license (if International flight)

Registration Certificate

Operators handbook

Weight and balance

Supplemental Type Certificate

93
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How often are GPS databases required to be updated?

28 days - Navigation database

56 days - Obstacle databases and terrain/airport map databases are updated as needed

94
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Can a GPS with an expired database be used for navigation under IFR?

A pilot should operate only with current GPS database records used for IFR approaches.

95
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Can a pilot perform the required database updates, or must this action be accomplished by authorized maintenance personnel?

Pilots can perform updates as long as they can be initiated from the flight deck without disassembly of the avionics unit. *This is a non-maintenance task and does not require an aircraft logbook entry if above is followed.

96
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What happens to your Altimeter if there is a Static Port Blockage?

It will remain frozen at the altitude where the blockage happened.

97
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What will happen to your Airspeed Indicator if both the Ram Inlet and Drain Hole are clogged?

The Airspeed Indicator will act as an Altimeter. The Airspeed Indicator will no longer be reliable

98
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What happens to your Airspeed Indicator if there is a Static Port Blockage?

Your Airspeed Indicator will only indicate correctly at the blocked altitude. Higher Altitude = indicates lower than it should. Lower Altitude = indicates higher than it should.

99
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What happens to your Airspeed if the Ram Inlet is clogged, but the Drain Hole is open?

Your airspeed will drop to zero.

100
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What is the only instrument that is effected by a blocked Pitot Tube?

Airspeed Indicator.