RBT Flashcards - All Modules APF

1A: The main purpose of this RBT training is to?

Improve the lives of individuals with autism

1B: The three branches of the science of behavior analysis are the

Experimental analysis of behavior, behaviorism, and Applied Behavior Analysis

1B: Which of the following is a component of good teaching?

Fun

1B: Who is commonly attributed for discovering the Law of Effect?
Skinner
Watson
Thorndike
Baer

Thorndike

1B: Who is commonly considered the father of Behaviorism?

Watson

1B: Which of the following is a dimension of ABA as outlined by Baer, Wolf, & Risley (1968)?

Generality

1B: What percentage of participants reached recover in the Lovaas (1987) study?

47%

1B: What was one of the primary lessons learned from Lovaas (1973)?

Need for parents to be trained

1B: In the Lovaas (1987) study, what was the criteria for best outcome?

IQ, school placement, and diagnosis

1C: What is one component of rigid ABA?

Unvarying adherence to protocols

1C: What is a definition of a progressive approach to ABA?

Combining the science and art of ABA

1C: What is the crux of progressive ABA?

Clinical judgment

1C: What is one aspect of the learner that is assessed when using clinical judgment?

Receptivity

1D: What were one of the rights outlined by Van Houten et al. (1988)

Learners welfare

1D: Teaching children to label state capitals may be a violation of which of the rights outlined by Van Houten et al. (1988)?

Learning functional skills

1D: What are the other two levels created by the BACB?

BCBA & BCaBA

1D: Which of the following is one of the requirements to obtain the RBT credential?

Completing 40 hours of training

1D: What is one problem with a sibling of an RBT being that RBTs supervisor?

Potential for the development of a dual relationship

1D: How many face-to-face meetings must occur per month between the RBT and the supervisor?

2

1D: What percentage of your total hours of an RBT must be spent in supervision?

5%

1D: What is one of your responsibilities as an RBT?

Direct instruction

2A: According to Autism Partnership Foundation, what are the RBT standards?

Minimal

2A: Critical thinking important to intervention for individuals diagnosed with ASD to ensure that:

Best procedures are being implemented

2A: When receiving feedback which of the following should be avoided?

Taking feedback personally

2A: When receiving feedback which of the following should be done?

Following through on making changes

2A: Which of the following is the best resource for keeping updated on the field of ABA?

Journal articles

2A: What is an example of a soft skill?

Compassion

2B: According to the Leaf and colleagues' study, what was the correlation between mock exam scores and implementation of DTT?

No relationship and moderate positive relationship

2B: One potential problem with the addition of assistant trainers in the RBT certification process is the assistant trainer could be a(n)

RBT

3A: "The practice of objective observation of the phenomena of interest" best describes:

Empiricism

3A: "A systematic approach to understanding behavior of social importance" best describes

Applied Behavior Analysis

3B: "A group of responses with the same function" best describes a:

Response class

3B: "Environmental concerns or stimulus changes that exist or occur prior to the behavior of interest" is the definition of which of the following terms?

Antecedent

3B: "A stimulus change that follows a behavior of interest" is the definition of which of the following terms?

Consequence

3B: "The duration, rate, frequency, etc. of behavior absent of any restrictions" is the definition of which of the following terms?

Free operant

3C: "A type of herbal behavior with the response controlled primarily by an immediate prior nonverbal stimulus" best describes which of the following?

Tact

3C: "A stimulus that is auditory that evokes a response of speaking in a way that sounds similar to that stimulus" best describes which of the following?

Echoic

3C: "A type of verbal behavior in which the response form or topography controlled by a current unlearned or learner establishing operation" best describes which of the following?

Mand

3C: "Those events that take place within an organism's skin or are otherwise only accessible to the organism" best describes which of the following?

Private events

3D: The rate, duration, latency, etc. of the behavior of interest prior to the manipulation of the environment" best describes which of the following?

Baseline

3D: "Uncontrolled variables known or suspected to exert an influence on the dependent variable" is the definition of which of the following?

Confounding variables

4A: "If a behavior is followed closely in time by a stimulus event and as a result the future frequency of that type of behavior increases in similar conditions" best describes which of the following?

Reinforcement

4A: Providing a learner with an iPad following a correct response that results in an increase in correct responses best describes which of the following?

Positive reinforcement

4A: "When a response is followed by the presentation of a stimulus, and, as a result, similar responses occur more frequently in the future" best describes which of the following

Positive reinforcement

4A: "The occurrence of a response produces the removal, termination, reduction, or postponement of a stimulus, which leads to an increase in the future occurrence of that response" best describes which of the following?

Negative reinforcement

4A: Providing a learner with a break following a correct response that increases correct responses is most likely an example of which of the following?

Negative reinforcement

4A: Money is most likely an example of which of the following?

Generalized conditioned reinforcer

4A: "A previously neutral stimulus change that has acquired the capability to function as a reinforcer through stimulus-stimulus pairing with one or more unconditioned reinforcers or conditioned reinforcers" best describes which of the following?

Conditioned reinforcer

4A: Food is an example of which of the following?

Unconditioned reinforcer

4A: "A stimulus change that can increase the future frequency of behavior without prior pairing with any other form of reinforcement" best describes which of the following?

Unconditioned reinforcer

4B: Which one of the following is one of the four basic schedules of reinforcement?

Variable interval

4B: "A reinforcer delivered contingent upon the first behavior following the time period where the time period is fixed" describes which schedule of reinforcement?

Fixed interval

4B: Scalloped patterns of responding are typically associated with which schedule of reinforcement?

Fixed interval

4B: "A reinforcer delivered contingent upon the first behavior following the time period where the time period is variable" describes which schedule of reinforcement?

Variable-interval

4B: Which schedule of reinforcement requires the completion of a specified, unvarying number of responses to produce a reinforcer?

Fixed ratio

4B: Which schedule of reinforcement requires the completion of a variable number of responses to produce a reinforcer?

Variable ratio

4C: Having a learner select which items they like prior to teaching following a systematic protocol to identify hierarchy of potential preferences is known as which of the following?

Formal preference assessments

4C: One problem with informal interviews to identify potential reinforcers is they are not

Reliable

4C: Providing free access to a variety of stimuli for the purposes of identifying potential reinforcers is best described by which of the following?

Free operant preference assessment

4C: Providing a learner with a series of choices between two items in an effort to identify potential reinforcers best describes which of the following?

Paired stimulus preference assessment

4C: Presenting an array of items and asking the learner select one item and then putting the item back in the array after the selection in an effort to identify potential reinforcers best describes which of the following?

Multiple stimulus preference assessment

4C: A procedure in which the RBT makes assesses a variety of variables moment to moment to identify what could potentially function as a reinforcer is known as a(n)

In-the-moment reinforcer analysis

4C: When compared to formal preference assessments, research on in-the-moment reinforcer analysis is shown to be

More efficient

4D: What is a potential problem with using candy as a reinforcer?

Unhealthy

4D: Presenting a previously neutral stimulus with an established reinforcer best describes which of the following?

Stimulus pairing

4D: Watching others access stimuli contingent upon a response best describes which of the following?

Observational pairing

4D: When using a progressive approach to conditioning reinforcers, one variable the RBT should evaluate is the learner's

Non-verbal and verbal behavior

4E: One main difference between bribery and reinforcement is the

Timing of the item provided

4E: This is the term for when a learner is engaging in disruptive behaviors and is offered something preferred to stop.

Bribery

4E: When a consequence is provided contingent upon a learner engaging in appropriate behavior and that appropriate behavior is more likely to occur in the future is best described by which of the following?

Reinforcement

4E: What is one potential problem with bribery?

Facilitates negotiation

4E: What is one of the 10 commandments of reinforcement within the Autism Partnership Model?

Thin the schedule of reinforcements

4F: Which of the following best describes when a learner earns tickets which are eventually exchanged for a toy?

Token economy

4F: What is one of the most important components of a token economy?

Using effective reinforcers

4F: Rainbow tokens most closely aligns with which schedule of reinforcement?

Conjugate

4F: Which token economy is in place when the learner is unaware of how many tokens are required prior to exchanging?

Magic number

5A: The first rule of punishment is

It happens

5A: A response followed immediately by a stimulus change that decreases the future probability of similar responses is best described by which of the following?

Punishment

5A: Saying "no" contingent upon a learner's response that results in a decrease in the probability of that response in the future is an example of which of the following?

Positive punishment

5A: Removing a token contingent upon a response that results in a decrease in the probability of that response in the future is an example of which of the following?

Negative punishment

5A: A bad odor is likely an example of which of the following?

Unconditioned punisher

5A: A stimulus change that functions as punishment as a result of a person's conditioning history is a definition of which of the following?

Conditioned punisher

5A: Which of the following two variables affect the effectiveness of punishers?

Immediacy and schedule

5A: A potential negative side effect of punishment is

Behavioral contrast

5B: What was the analogy of the history of punishment that the presenter used?

Pendulum

5B: The effectiveness of punishment was first evaluated in which type of research?

Basic

6A: Behavior a client engages in that could cause harm to themselves or others is sometimes referred to as:

Aberrant behavior

6A: One problem associated with stereotypic behavior is it

Could interfere with learning

6A: Minshawi and colleagues (2014) reported that up to ____ individuals with ASD display self-injurious behavior

50%

6B: Defining a behavior in observable terms is known as which of the following?

Operational definition

6B: This type of definition describes changes in the environment related to the behavior

Functional

6B: Why is an operational definition important?

It results in more accurate scoring of behavior

6C: Which four functions are commonly included in historical literature on functional analysis?

Access to attention, access to tangibles, escape, and automatic

6C: According to the Autism Partnership Method/Model what is another potential function of behavior?

Control

6D: Indirect measures of aberrant behavior are also known as which of the following?

Second hand observation

6D: Collecting A-B-C data is also known as which of the following?

First hand observation

6D: Which of the following is the best reason for conducting a functional behavior assessment?It is a hallmark of a progressive approach to ABA

To identify the function of behavior

6D: What are the three components of active listening?

What we do, what we say, what we observe

6D: "Was he screaming, hitting, or throwing objects?" is an indirect method known as which of the following?

Laundry list

6D: What is the second step of direct observation?

Describing the behavior