POLS 1100: Midterm Exam Study Guide

All of the following are subfields of political science EXCEPT

A. comparative politics.

B. sociology.

C. international relations.

D. political theory.

E. political economy.

B. sociology.

In a constitutional system,

A. there are no restrictions on the lawful uses of power, as long as this power is obtained by majority rule.

B. there are lawful restrictions on a government's power.

C. the economy is based on the free enterprise system.

D. officials govern according to the traditions established by their predecessors.

E. all citizens have absolute free speech rights.

B. there are lawful restrictions on a government's power.

The process by which a society settles its conflicts and allocates the resulting benefits and costs is called

A. politics.

B. government.

C. elitism.

D. socialism.

E. communism.

A. politics.

Which of the following are considered actors within the American political systems?

A. voters

B. candidates

C. lobbyists

D. journalists

E. All of the Above

E. All of the Above

Those formally trained to study government and politics are known as

A. politicians.

B. political scientists.

C. lobbyists.

D. political botanists.

E. None of these answers is correct.

B. political scientists.

The careful gathering and sifting of information in the process of forming a knowledgeable view about political issues is

A. politics.

B. majoritarianism.

C. sovereignty.

D. public policies.

E. political thinking.

E. political thinking.

At its core, political science is a study of

A. voters.

B. power.

C. presidents.

D. democracies.

E. political actors.

B. power.

The United States has certain rules in place to keep politics within peaceful bounds. These rules include all of the following EXCEPT

A. autocracy.

B. democracy.

C. constitutionalism.

D. free markets.

E. None of these answers is correct.

A. autocracy.

Becoming an informed and engaged citizen in American politics requires

A. critical thinking skills.

B. an understanding of the theory and practice of political institutions.

C. knowing how and why government functions the way it does.

D. realizing that politics affects everything around you.

E. All of the above.

E. All of the above.

________ is the ability of persons, groups, or institutions to influence political developments.

A. Apathy

B. Politics

C. Power

D. Liberty

E. Political culture

C. Power

Limiting government power to protect citizens' liberties is accomplished with a political system built on

A. capitalism.

B. majoritarianism.

C. constitutionalism.

D. pluralism.

E. totalitarianism.

C. constitutionalism.

A government's authority

A. is evidenced when government officials use their right to exercise power.

B. is by definition not coercive.

C. does not include the power to arrest and imprison.

D. ensures that lawlessness prevails most of the time.

E. is based on pluralism.

A. is evidenced when government officials use their right to exercise power.

Political science is

A. descriptive and analytical.

B. is opinion based and nonfactual.

C. one sided and subjective.

D. not a part of the social sciences.

E. is a relatively new discipline.

A. descriptive and analytical.

The Greek words demos and kratis together mean

A. majority rule is sacred.

B. the people rule.

C. government is good.

D. politics is immoral.

E. the king is good.

B. the people rule.

The struggle for power is the definition for

A. political science.

B. government.

C. politics.

D. authority.

E. legitimacy.

C. politics.

Europeans have a greater acceptance than Americans of

A. tax and social policies that redistribute wealth.

B. the strength of the executive branch of government.

C. the majoritarian system of government.

D. the influence of corporate special interests in the legislative process.

E. the influence of corporate money in the election process.

A. tax and social policies that redistribute wealth.

Which of the following has democracy come to mean in practice?

A. pluralistic government through the combination of popularly elected representatives and the influence of interest groups

B. oligarchic government through a legislature chosen through popular election

C. elitist control through interest group politics

D. pluralism through the election of representatives and the influence of corporate interests

E. majority rule through the free and open election of representatives

E. majority rule through the free and open election of representatives

In which of the following policy areas does the U.S. spend more than European nations?

A. social welfare

B. military

C. subsidized housing for the poor

D. public works

E. public health care

B. military

In an oligarchy,

A. the state is run by corporate interests and companies instead of individuals.

B. control rests with a small group of popularly elected individuals.

C. control rests with a single individual, such as a dictator.

D. control rests with a small group, such as military officers or a few wealthy families.

E. the state controls all forms of individual's lives, including family relations and the practice of religion.

D. control rests with a small group, such as military officers or a few wealthy families.

In which of the following ways is the U.S. free-market system distinct from the European economies?

A. its lack of regulatory intervention

B. its lack of intervention through taxation

C. its lack of intervention through spending policies

D. the extent to which private transactions determine the allocation of economic costs and benefits

E. the extent to which it exercises regulatory intervention by altering interest rates

D. the extent to which private transactions determine the allocation of economic costs and benefits

What is the name for a type of government that "openly represses its political opponents, mostly through intimidation and prohibitions on free expression, but sometimes by brutalizing or imprisoning opposition leaders?"

A. Authoritarian

B. Pluralist

C. Majoritarian

D. Oligarchy

A. Authoritarian

Roughly two-thirds of all lobbyists in the nation's capital represent

A. activist organizations.

B. labor unions.

C. business firms.

D. foreign-based political action groups.

E. nonprofit organizations.

C. business firms.

Which of the following is not a core value of American political culture?

A. equality

B. self government

C. liberty

D. collectivism

E. individualism

D. collectivism

What is a major limit on majoritarianism suggested by the authors?

A. The public as a whole takes an interest in only a few of the hundreds of policy decisions that U.S. officials make each year.

B. The public lacks access to the information required to take informed political action on most issues dealt with by the government each year.

C. The actions of special interest groups are ultimately more influential than the voting power of the public.

D. The rapid turnover of government officials and members of the legislature prevents the majority public from making a sustained effort for any single issue.

E. The most power tends to reside with a wealthy minority of the voting public, preventing the majority public from setting the issue agenda.

A. The public as a whole takes an interest in only a few of the hundreds of policy decisions that U.S. officials make each year.

What is the major barrier to political thinking?

A. unwillingness of citizens to make the effort

B. lack of access to governmental institutions

C. elite control of political power resources

D. the failure of politicians and government institutions to communicate policy details to the public

E. the lack of access to news media sources outside of sensationalist television or Internet content

A. unwillingness of citizens to make the effort

______________________ is the tendency of people to interpret information in ways that reinforce what they already believe.

A. Critical thinking

B. Political culture

C. Party polarization

D. Confirmation bias

E. None of these answers is correct.

D. Confirmation bias

As described in this course, "political thinking"

A. is the reflection of an individual's ideological position when applied to political issues.

B. results from an individual allowing personal bias to inform all thoughts about political issues, instead of doing objective learning or research to form an opinion.

C. involves the careful gathering and sifting of information in the process of forming a knowledgeable view about a political issue.

D. is the result of an individual's attempts to seek out news media that reinforces a pre-existing political bias.

E. is a strategy taken by those seeking election to public office in which their publicly stated positions are designed to maximize their attractiveness to the widest voting bloc.

C. involves the careful gathering and sifting of information in the process of forming a knowledgeable view about a political issue.

Research suggests which of the following is primarily to blame for the increase in faulty perceptions of news items among the public?

A. changes in the forms of communication

B. a failure of government officials to communicate truthfully

C. a growing disinterest in seeking out news items

D. the growing public gap in access to more advanced forms of media transmission, such as the Internet

E. the increasing political polarization of elected politicians

A. changes in the forms of communication

Which of the following is an accurate description of the prevalence of college education in the United States?

A. Among adults twenty-five years of age and older, roughly half are college graduates

B. Among adults twenty-five years of age and older, roughly one in three is a college graduate.

C. Every U.S. state has at least twenty colleges or universities within its borders.

D. Despite having a much higher rate of colleges and universities per capita than European countries; the U.S. has a lower rate of college graduation per capita.

E. Although the U.S. has a lower number of colleges and universities per capita than Europe, it has a much higher rate of college graduation per capita.

B. Among adults twenty-five years of age and older, roughly one in three is a college graduate.

Pluralism contends that, on most issues,

A. corporate elites have more control over economic policy than do "the politicians in the visible government."

B. the will of the majority of the voting public determines government policy.

C. it is the preference of the special interest that largely determines what government does.

D. true authority lies with the elected politicians, and not with the public that put them in office.

E. the diverse nature of the citizenry enhances the democratic process in policymaking.

C. it is the preference of the special interest that largely determines what government does.

The words of the Declaration of Independence reflected

A. Aristotle's conception of democracy.

B. Montesquieu's view of constitutionalism.

C. Hobbes's idea of the state of nature.

D. Locke's philosophy of inalienable rights.

E. Madison's view of factions.

D. Locke's philosophy of inalienable rights.

Shays' Rebellion

A. was a successful revolt.

B. convinced many political leaders that the national government was too powerful.

C. convinced many political leaders that the national government was too weak.

D. reinforced public support for the Articles of Confederation.

E. occurred after the Philadelphia convention of 1787.

C. convinced many political leaders that the national government was too weak.

The principle of checks and balances is based on the notion that

A. leaders are the trustees of the people.

B. a weak government is always preferable to a strong government.

C. all legislative and executive action should be controlled through judicial power.

D. power must be used to offset power.

E. legislators and executives cannot be trusted, but judges are trustworthy.

D. power must be used to offset power.

The idea that government should be restricted in its lawful uses of power and hence in its ability to deprive people of their liberty is expressed by the term

A. federalism.

B. self-government.

C. judicial review.

D. limited government.

E. natural rights.

D. limited government.

Through the grants of power in the Constitution, the framers sought to

A. define the powers of state governments.

B. create a government in which sovereignty was invested in the national government only.

C. both define the powers of the national government and limit them.

D. enumerate the rights of individuals.

E. abolish slavery.

C. both define the powers of the national government and limit them.

The U.S. Constitution was ratified by

A. the president.

B. local governments.

C. state conventions.

D. the U.S. Supreme Court.

E. the Continental Congress.

C. state conventions.

The writers of the Constitution used the term ________ to describe a form of government that consists of carefully designed institutions that are responsive to the majority but not captive to it.

A. democracy

B. republic

C. federalism

D. majoritarianism

E. separation of power

B. republic

The writers of the Constitution justified different methods of selection and varying terms of office for the president, Senate, and House as a means of

A. increasing popular influence.

B. protection against rapid control by an impassioned majority.

C. preventing elite control of government.

D. maintaining experienced leadership.

E. increasing voter turnout.

B. protection against rapid control by an impassioned majority.

In his criticism of the Constitution, the economist Charles Beard argued that

A. the Constitution's elaborate systems of power and representation were designed to protect the interests of the rich.

B. the Constitution failed to protect the economic interests of the poorer states.

C. the Constitution's commerce clause was inadequate to meet the nation's economic needs.

D. the Constitution did not provide for sufficient protection of property.

E. the Constitution gave too much power to the illiterate.

A. the Constitution's elaborate systems of power and representation were designed to protect the interests of the rich.

The Bill of Rights was added to the Constitution

A. by the framers during the Philadelphia convention.

B. in stages, from 1789 to 1798.

C. in response to the freeing of the slaves during the Civil War.

D. in response to the ideals of Jacksonian democracy.

E. None of these answers is correct.

E. None of these answers is correct.

The framers' most significant modification of the traditional doctrine of the separation powers was to

A. include federalism.

B. include a two-chamber legislature.

C. define legislative power precisely, while defining executive and judicial power only in general terms.

D. ensure that the powers of the separate branches overlap, so that each could better act as a check on the others.

E. grant the power of judicial review to the judiciary.

D. ensure that the powers of the separate branches overlap, so that each could better act as a check on the others.

The Federalist Papers were written by

A. Washington, Adams, and Jefferson.

B. Franklin, Washington, and Lee.

C. Jefferson, Locke, and Montesquieu.

D. Madison, Hamilton, and Jay.

E. Marshall, Jefferson, and Adams.

D. Madison, Hamilton, and Jay.

The origin of the concept of separation of powers is most associated with

A. Montesquieu.

B. Aristotle.

C. Hobbes.

D. Locke.

E. Jefferson.

A. Montesquieu.

Progressive reforms included

A. primary elections.

B. direct election of U.S. senators.

C. the initiative and referendum.

D. recall elections.

E. All these answers are correct.

E. All these answers are correct.

To the framers, the great danger of democratic government was the risk of

A. tyranny of the majority.

B. elite rule.

C. special-interest politics.

D. a weak presidency.

E. judicial imperialism.

A. tyranny of the majority.

Which of the following is most closely related to the concept of implied powers?

A. necessary and proper clause

B. supremacy clause

C. Tenth Amendment

D. the commerce clause

E. the power to tax

A. necessary and proper clause

According to the Anti-Federalists, too strong of a national government meant

A. eventual encroachment upon the sovereignty of the states.

B. that a new constitutional convention would have to convene every few years.

C. that a monarchy was preferable to a republic.

D. that effective commerce between and among the states was an impossibility.

E. that slavery would be abolished immediately.

A. eventual encroachment upon the sovereignty of the states.

National authority has greatly expanded in the twentieth century in large part because

A. local, state, and federal governments have become increasingly interdependent.

B. constitutional amendments have opened the way for wider application of state authority.

C. the state governments have shown themselves to be an ineffective level of government.

D. the Democrats have been in control of Congress for most of the century.

E. Americans like the idea of "big government."

A. local, state, and federal governments have become increasingly interdependent.

The writers of the Constitution established a federal system of government in part because

A. the states already existed as established entities and had to be preserved.

B. a federal government alone would never be able to command the identity or loyalty of its citizenry.

C. Locke and Montesquieu had concluded it was superior to other systems of government.

D. the British political system was based on the federal principle.

E. the states would be valuable sources of revenue for a federal government.

A. the states already existed as established entities and had to be preserved.

Dual federalism held that

A. the states were equal to the national government in all respects.

B. a precise separation of national and state authority was both possible and desirable.

C. national and state authority were indivisible.

D. the Senate and the House were equal in their federal authority.

E. None of these answers is correct.

B. a precise separation of national and state authority was both possible and desirable.

The Tenth Amendment addressed the concerns of Anti-Federalists about

A. individual freedoms.

B. the meaning of the commerce clause.

C. popular representation in Congress.

D. the powers of state governments.

E. the Electoral College.

D. the powers of state governments.

Which of the following is NOT an enumerated power?

A. public education

B. regulation of commerce

C. declaration of war

D. taxation

E. establish a national currency

A. public education

Viewed in historical terms, federalism has been a

A. contentious and dynamic system that has adapted to the needs of the time.

B. theoretical principle, in that constitutional provisions for federalism have had virtually no impact on the relationship between the nation and the states.

C. flawed principle, in that the relationship between the nation and the states has been a constant source of problems without many positive benefits.

D. fixed principle, in that the relationship between the nation and states is almost completely defined by provisions of the Constitution.

E. poor replacement for the confederal system which existed before the Constitution.

A. contentious and dynamic system that has adapted to the needs of the time.

Devolution is

A. the passing of authority from the national government to the state and local levels.

B. the expansion of national authority that began in the 1930s.

C. the contraction of state authority and the expansion of local government authority.

D. the expansion of national authority that began in the 1960s.

E. None of these answers is correct.

A. the passing of authority from the national government to the state and local levels.

Which of the following were arguments in favor of federalism at the time of the writing of the U.S. Constitution?

A. Federalism will protect liberty.

B. Federalism will force officials to be more responsive to the people.

C. Federalism will provide for a stronger national government than existed under the Articles of Confederation.

D. Federalism will be less likely to produce an all-dominant faction.

E. All these answers are correct.

E. All these answers are correct.

Sovereignty refers to

A. a government headed by a king.

B. a division of authority between the national government and the states.

C. supreme and final governing authority.

D. sub-national (state) governments.

E. None of these answers is correct.

C. supreme and final governing authority.

A public policy program on which national, state, and local policymakers collaborate is an example of

A. dual federalism.

B. cooperative federalism.

C. unitary federalism.

D. confederal federalism.

E. cosponsor federalism.

B. cooperative federalism.

Fiscal federalism refers to

A. the coordinated fiscal policy decisions of the federal government and the states.

B. the expenditure of federal funds on programs run in part through state and local governments.

C. the national banking system first established by Alexander Hamilton in the 1790s.

D. the fact that both the federal government and the states have the power to tax.

E. the ability of the states to manipulate federal decision making.

B. the expenditure of federal funds on programs run in part through state and local governments.

The enumerated powers in Article I of the Constitution were intended to

A. limit the powers of the state governments.

B. ensure that neither small nor large states would be at a disadvantage.

C. ensure that neither northern nor southern states would be at a disadvantage.

D. establish a government strong enough to forge a union that was secure in its defense and stable in its economy.

E. limit the power of the presidency.

D. establish a government strong enough to forge a union that was secure in its defense and stable in its economy.

McCulloch v. Maryland

A. ruled in favor of state-centered federalism.

B. asserted that the necessary and proper clause was a restriction on the power of the national government.

C. affirmed that national law is supreme to conflicting state law.

D. established the Supreme Court's power to judge constitutional issues.

E. allowed for a narrow reading of the Constitution.

C. affirmed that national law is supreme to conflicting state law.

If the Rules Committee applies the "closed rule" to a bill,

A. no amendments will be permitted.

B. the bill will not be allowed a vote.

C. the bill will require a 2/3 majority for passage.

D. no further floor debate is allowed.

E. no filibusters will be allowed to prevent a vote.

A. no amendments will be permitted.

Congress's inability to consistently provide leadership on broad national issues is due to

A. the lack of talented leadership in Congress.

B. the fragmented nature of Congress.

C. constitutional restrictions on Congress's lawmaking powers.

D. the constant threat of a presidential veto.

E. opposition from the mass media.

B. the fragmented nature of Congress.

Nearly ________ percent of all PAC contributions go to the incumbents.

A. 10

B. 30

C. 50

D. 70

E. 90

E. 90

"Mark up" of a bill means that

A. a president has crossed out sections of the bill that he or she finds personally objectionable.

B. a bill has been approved after floor debate has finished.

C. witnesses at committee hearings suggest modifications of the bill.

D. the House Speaker and Senate majority leader have written a bill in a way that they favor.

E. None of these answers is correct.

E. None of these answers is correct.

Which of the following statements is true?

A. Political parties are unimportant in the organization of the U.S. Congress.

B. Party-line voting rarely occurs in Congress.

C. Party-line voting has increased in recent years.

D. Partisanship makes virtually no difference in the votes cast in Congress.

E. None of these answers is correct.

C. Party-line voting has increased in recent years.

In the nation's first century,

A. service in Congress was even more of a lifetime career than it is now.

B. members of Congress would move from House to Senate and back with little concern for the relative power and prestige of the chambers.

C. service in Congress was not seen as a lifetime career for most of its members.

D. service in Congress was restricted by the imposition of term limits in many states.

E. service in Congress was greatly preferred to service in state government.

C. service in Congress was not seen as a lifetime career for most of its members.

A standing committee in the House or Senate

A. is a permanent committee.

B. has jurisdiction over a particular policy area.

C. has authority to draft, amend, and recommend legislation.

D. is usually organized according to the seniority principle.

E. All these answers are correct.

E. All these answers are correct.

A pocket veto differs from a regular presidential veto in that the pocket veto

A. applies only to a section of the legislation in question.

B. applies only to expenditure legislation.

C. occurs when the president decides to veto a bill he had previously signed.

D. can take effect only when the Congress is not in session.

E. occurs when the president goes before Congress to announce a veto.

D. can take effect only when the Congress is not in session.

The second most powerful federal official (after the president) is often said to be

A. the chair of the House Appropriations Committee.

B. the president pro tempore of the U.S. Senate.

C. the Speaker of the U.S. House of Representatives.

D. the chair of the Senate Foreign Relations Committee.

E. the Senate majority leader.

C. the Speaker of the U.S. House of Representatives.

Most members of Congress are

A. concerned with national issues, but even more concerned with local ones.

B. controlled by special interest groups.

C. interested only in the work of the subcommittee on which they serve.

D. opposed to the seniority system.

E. more interested in oversight than in making laws.

A. concerned with national issues, but even more concerned with local ones.

Legislation whose tangible benefits are targeted solely at a particular legislator's constituency is

A. pork-barrel legislation.

B. logrolling.

C. gerrymandering.

D. private legislation.

E. public interest legislation.

A. pork-barrel legislation.

Approximately ______ percent of U.S. House incumbents are reelected.

A. 20

B. 50

C. 75

D. 90

E. the congressional agenda is increasingly shaped by policy priorities rather than partisan consideration.

D. 90

Compared to House incumbents, Senate incumbents in an election are more likely to face the problem of

A. raising enough money to run a strong campaign.

B. an electorate that is inclined to judge their fitness for reelection in the context of pork-barrel legislation and other favors for the local community.

C. a strong challenger.

D. name recognition.

E. All these answers are correct.

C. a strong challenger.

News media coverage of Congress and the president is

A. about equal in amount.

B. heavily tilted toward presidential coverage.

C. largely focused on Congress and its members.

D. typically focused on areas where there is consensus between the two institutions.

E. typically focused on areas where the House as opposed to the Senate is the leading chamber.

B. heavily tilted toward presidential coverage.

One must be ________ years of age to serve in the U.S. House of Representatives, and ________ years of age to serve in the U.S. Senate.

A. 18; 21

B. 21; 25

C. 25; 30

D. 35; 45

E. 40; 50

C. 25; 30

Which two institutional features of the U.S. presidency have allowed the office to become more powerful over time?

A. four-year term and two-term limit

B. national election and singular authority

C. checks and balances

D. veto power and nominating authority

E. None of these answers is correct.

B. national election and singular authority

Whereas today candidates rely on the media, previously they based their campaigns on

A. the work of grass-roots organizers.

B. the party organizations

C. the mass mailing of campaign literature.

D. the staging of personal appearances.

E. the efforts of friendly civilian and corporate group efforts.

B. the party organizations

The selection of the vice presidential nominee at the national convention is based on

A. the results of the primaries and caucuses; the candidate who places second in these contests is nominated as the running mate of the candidate who finishes first.

B. the convention delegates' judgment as to the candidate who would make the best vice president.

C. the results of public opinion polls taken just before the convention begins.

D. the presidential nominee's choice of a running mate.

E. None of these answers is correct.

D. the presidential nominee's choice of a running mate.

The presidency is

A. an extraordinarily strong office with sufficient powers to enable the president to control national policy under virtually all circumstances.

B. an inherently weak office, in that presidents have almost no capacity to influence the major directions of national policy.

C. an office in which power is conditional, depending on whether the political support that gives force to presidential leadership exists or can be developed.

D. an office where power depends almost entirely on its occupant; strong leaders are always successful presidents, and weak ones never succeed.

E. an office where power is fairly constant, regardless of the occupant or the circumstances.

C. an office in which power is conditional, depending on whether the political support that gives force to presidential leadership exists or can be developed.

Article II of the U.S. Constitution vests all ___________________ power in the president.

A. executive

B. appropriation

C. legislative

D. military

E. all of the above

A. executive

________ ended the practice of party caucuses in Congress and in state legislatures nominating presidential candidates.

A. George Washington

B. Thomas Jefferson

C. James Madison

D. Andrew Jackson

E. Martin Van Buren

D. Andrew Jackson

A president's accomplishments have largely depended on

A. the margin of victory in the presidential campaign.

B. whether circumstances favor strong presidential leadership.

C. the president's ability to come up with good ideas.

D. the president's skill at balancing the demands of competing groups.

E. mid-term elections.

B. whether circumstances favor strong presidential leadership.

The presidential advisory unit that, as a whole, has declined significantly as an advisory resource for the president in the twentieth century is the

A. Council of Economic Advisers.

B. Office of Management and Budget.

C. White House Office.

D. National Security Council.

E. the Cabinet (as a whole).

E. the Cabinet (as a whole).

As chief executive, modern presidents have come to rely on _________________________ as a way to circumvent inaction by Congress.

A. pocket vetoes

B. executive orders

C. signing legislation

D. court orders

E. all of the above

B. executive orders

Which of the following is a reason that the nation did not routinely need a strong president during most of the nineteenth century?

A. the small policymaking role of the federal government

B. the sectional nature of the nation's major issues

C. the U.S. government's small role in world affairs

D. all of these factors: the small policymaking role of the federal government; the sectional nature of the nation's major issues; and the U.S. government's small role in world affairs

E. None of these answers is correct.

D. all of these factors: the small policymaking role of the federal government; the sectional nature of the nation's major issues; and the U.S. government's small role in world affairs

Candidate strategy in the early presidential nominating contests (such as New Hampshire's primary) is designed chiefly to gain

A. momentum.

B. the support of the party's organizational leaders.

C. the support of the party's congressional leaders.

D. the endorsement of the mass media.

E. the support of partisan rivals.

A. momentum.

The only two states that are exceptions to the unit rule are

A. Michigan and Montana.

B. New Hampshire and Vermont.

C. Maine and Nebraska.

D. Georgia and Louisiana.

E. Rhode Island and Oregon.

C. Maine and Nebraska.

The U.S. Constitution grants all of the following powers to the president EXCEPT:

A. declare war on other countries

B. negotiate foreign treaties

C. nominate federal judges

D. impound funds appropriated by Congress

E. veto legislation proposed by Congress

A. declare war on other countries

What did the Supreme Court rule about executive agreements in 1937?

A. They are legally binding in the same way that treaties are.

B. They can only be issued in matters of national security.

C. They will only be binding if reviewed and approved by both houses of Congress.

D. They can only be made with the approval of a president's entire cabinet.

E. They were ruled unconstitutional and are no longer used by the executive.

A. They are legally binding in the same way that treaties are.

Of the following statements, which one best explains why executive power has increased over time?

A. The federal courts have curtailed the use of executive authority.

B. The American people look to members of Congress to set national policy.

C. Congress has delegated numerous powers to the president.

D. The constitutional framers wanted an all powerful president.

E. All of the above.

C. Congress has delegated numerous powers to the president.

What were the "reinventing teams"?

A. teams appointed by Congress to propose budget cuts to the federal bureaucracy

B. groups of executive officials that were under the influence of "agency capture"

C. Congressional committees designed to find ways to reduce the size of the national bureaucracy

D. teams that were formed under the National Performance Review to analyze and make recommendations about bureaucratic effectiveness

E. teams appointed by Congress to decide which branches of the federal bureaucracy could be eliminated

D. teams that were formed under the National Performance Review to analyze and make recommendations about bureaucratic effectiveness

As distinct from the patronage system, the merit system for managing the bureaucracy

A. allows the president to appoint top officials of executive agencies, thus making the bureaucracy more responsive to election outcomes.

B. provides for presidential leadership of the bureaucracy, thus giving it greater coordination and direction.

C. provides for a neutral administration in the sense that civil servants are not partisan appointees, thus ensuring evenhanded work.

D. provides that all programs will be evaluated regularly to determine whether they merit continued funding.

E. All these answers are correct.

C. provides for a neutral administration in the sense that civil servants are not partisan appointees, thus ensuring evenhanded work.

Bureaucrats tend to follow

A. the wishes of the president.

B. the wishes of Congress.

C. their own agency's point of view.

D. the expectations of the general public.

E. the wishes of federal judges.

C. their own agency's point of view.

Bureaucrats are ________ and elected officials are _______.

A. generalists; specialists

B. generalists; generalists

C. specialists; generalists

D. specialists; specialists

E. popular; unpopular

C. specialists; generalists

The courts have tended to support administrators as long as their agencies

A. choose rules that save money.

B. can apply a reasonable interpretation of a statute.

C. follow what the president demands of them.

D. have adequate funding.

E. don't come into conflict with state governments.

B. can apply a reasonable interpretation of a statute.

Upon reaching Congress, what first happens to the president's budget proposal?

A. It is subjected to floor debate.

B. It goes to the House and Senate budget committees.

C. It is reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.

D. It is marked up by the full Senate before moving to the House.

E. It is referred to the House and Senate appropriations committees.

B. It goes to the House and Senate budget committees.

Compared to the president and Congress, the bureaucracy

A. is held in higher esteem by the public.

B. is authorized by a constitutional amendment rather than by the original Constitution.

C. has a more direct impact on the daily lives of Americans.

D. has changed very little during the nation's history.

E. is more easily controlled by the voters.

C. has a more direct impact on the daily lives of Americans.

The Senior Executive Service (SES)

A. is composed of civil employees that can be fired more easily than normal career civil servants.

B. was designed to combat abuse of the patronage system.

C. is composed of civil employees that can be assigned by the president to any position within the bureaucracy.

D. has been more successful in practice than its proponents anticipated.

E. assigns most of its senior executives to work within a different agency than the one in which they originally worked.

C. is composed of civil employees that can be assigned by the president to any position within the bureaucracy.

In the late 1800s, rapid economic growth placed new demands on the federal government and led it to

A. create new federal departments built around economic interests.

B. establish the executive management system.

C. reorganize the cabinet in order to make it the center of economic policy making.

D. both create new federal departments built around economic interests, and establish the executive management system.

E. None of these answers is correct.

A. create new federal departments built around economic interests.

What happens to the president's budget if it is approved by a vote of the House and Senate?

A. It is reviewed by the Office of Management and Budget.

B. It has reached its final approval and is implemented.

C. It is sent to the president to sign or veto.

D. It is given to the president for any further executive changes to be added.

E. It is referred to the House and Senate appropriations committees for implementation.

C. It is sent to the president to sign or veto.