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Which of the following suggests a maxillary sinus infection?
A. Toothache
B. Sub occipital headache
C. Epistaxis
D. Pain over both eyes
A. Toothache
Which of the following would be a likely underlying cause of springiness and floating when the nail roots are palpated?
A. Lungcancer
B. Nephrolithiasis
C. Anemia
D. Anonychia
A. Lungcancer
fine lingual tremor suggests which of the following?
A. Thyrotoxicosis
B. Scarlet fever
C. Measles
D. Hashimoto's
A. Thyrotoxicosis
A difference between and excoriation and a fissure is
A. Fissure extends to the dermis
B. A fissure is always crusted
C. An excoriation is a moist depress area
D. An excoriation follows rupture of a bulla
A. Fissure extends to the dermis
7. Congenital syphilis may cause which of the following nasal conditions?
A. Saddle nose
B. Deviated septum
C. Septal perforation
D. Nasal polyps
A. Saddle nose
8. Koilonychia is caused by which of the following underlying conditions?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Hyperthyroidism
C. Early renal failure
D. Psoriasis
A. Iron deficiency anemia
All of the following can cause cheilosis EXCEPT:
A. Vit B Deficiency
B. Anemia
C. Hypersalivation
D. Sinus Infection
D. Sinus Infection
What condition can accompany saddle nose?
A. Rhagades
B. Cheilosis
C. Migratoryglossitis
D. Actinic cheilitis
A. Rhagades
9. Scarlet fever causes which of these findings in the mouth?
A. Strawberry tongue
B. Hairyleukoplakia
C. Migratoryglossitis
D. Actinic cheilitis
A. Strawberry tongue
10. Gingival hyperplasia is a red flag for which of the following?
A. Leukemia
B. Herpes simplex
C. HIV/AIDS
D. VitaminC deficiency
A. Leukemia
Tertiary syphilis painless lesion:
A. Rhagades
B. Chancre
C. Herpes
D. Gumma
D. Gumma
What condition is pathognomonic for measles
a. Fordyce's spots
b. Koplic spots
c. Stenson's spots
d. Mucocele
b. Koplic spots
Primary syphilis painless lesion:
A. Rhagades
B. Chancre
C. Herpes
D. Gumma
B. Chancre
Acute Necrotizing Ulcerative Gingivo-stomatitis is a sign of which of the following
A. Leukemia
B. Herpes simplex
C. HIV/AIDS
D. VitaminC deficiency
C. HIV/AIDS
Excessive sun exposure causes which condition?
A. Actinic cheilitis
B. Rhagades
C. Migratoryglossitis
D. Cheilosis
A. Actinic cheilitis
11. Which of the following causes a blue gray line among the gums?
A. Bismuth
B. Silver
C. Magnesium
D. Copper
A. Bismuth
Which condition is a pre-cancerous lesion?
A. Rhagades
B. Cheilosis
C. Migratoryglossitis
D. Actinic cheilitis
D. Actinic cheilitis
Rosacea may be linked to which of the following conditions of the nose?
A. Rhinophyma
B. Nasalpolyps
C. Coryza
D. Saddlenose
A. Rhinophyma
Two days after getting a manicure, an individual develops swelling and tenderness around the finger nail on the right index finger. Which of the following conditions is most likely?
A. Paronychia
B. Koilonychia
C. Onycholysis
D. Onychomycosis
A. Paronychia
Untreated strep throat puts an individual at higher rise of which of the following?
A. Heart valve damage
B. Meniere's disease
C. Hepatic cirrhosis
D. Colon cancer
A. Heart valve damage
Which of the following could cause hairy tongue?
A. Antibiotics
B. Congenital syphilis
C. Varicella
D. B-vitamin deficiency
A. Antibiotics
What condition causes the lip to lose redness, makes it scaly, thick and everted?
A. Strawberry tongue
B. Hairy leukoplakia
C. Migratory glossitis
D. Actinic cheilitis
D. Actinic cheilitis
What condition of the nails is caused by iron deficiency?
a. Pitting of the nail
b. Clubbing of nail
c. Koilonychia
d. Oncomyochosis
Koilonychia
Which of the following is associated with increased risk for colon cancer?
A. Actinic cheilitis
B. Cheilosis
C. Peutz-Jegher's syndrome
D. Sjögren's syndrome
C. Peutz-Jegher's syndrome
If a patient's nails are 40% white (proximally) and 60% red (distally), they should be evaluated for possible ______________.
A. Bacterial endocarditis
B. Iron deficiency
C. Renal failure
D. Wilson's disease
C. Renal failure
An individual with red lunulas should be examined further for signs of ______________.
A. Heart failure
B. Lung cancer
C. Psoriasis
D. Hepatic cirrhosis
A. Heart failure
Which of the following would be most likely to cause angular stomatitis?
A. UV light exposure
B. Chewing tobacco
C. Sjögren's syndrome
D. Ill-fitting dentures
D. Ill-fitting dentures
Swollen, red nasal mucosa and thick purulent discharge suggests which of the following?
A. Coryza
B. Congenital syphilis
C. Allergic rhinitis
D. Rhinitis medicamentosa
A. Coryza
17. A ____ is an elevated, irregular shaped area of cutaneous edema such as urticaria or an insect bite?
A. Wheal
B. Vesicle
C. Nodule
D. Bulla
A. Wheal
18. Which of the following nail signs suggests subacute bacterial endocarditis?
A. Splinter hemorrhages
B. Onycholysis
C. 80%white 20%pink
D. Bluelunula
A. Splinter hemorrhages
19. Which other findings would be likely when examining a person with yellow nail syndrome?
A. Extremity deformity
B. Coarse,dry skin
C. Heart murmurs
D. Blue-grayskin
A. Extremity deformity
20. Nasal polyps are commonly associated with which of the following?
A. Allergies
B. Bacteria
C. Rosacea
D. Cocaine
A. Allergies
1. A hairdresser develops pruritic vessels on their fingers that erupt and leave a ring of scales with a red cracked base. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Psoriasis
B. Atopic dermatitis
C. Seborrheic keratosis
D. Pompholyx
2. Which of the following would be most helpful in differentiating contact dermatitis from other types of dermatitis? The patient ____
A. Reports intense itching,primarily at night
B. Has the rash symmetrically on the flexor surfaces of their arms
C. Recently started using a new laundry detergent
D. Experienced intense itching before the rash appeared
C. Recently started using a new laundry detergent
3. What are the main treatment goals for ichthyosis vulgaris?
A. Hydration, lubrication ,and keratolysis
B.Desiccation and hyper proliferation of keratin
C. Avoid contact with allergens and drink more water
D. Bed rest and isolate to avoid spread too thers
A. Hydration, lubrication ,and keratolysis
4. Individuals with psoriasis often present with erythematous plaques and silvery scales on their skin and ____ nails
A. Spoon
B. Pitted
C. Half-and-half D. Terry's
B. Pitted
5. ____ is the most deadly skin cancer due to the risk of metastasis
A. Squamouscellcarcinoma
B. Melanoma
C. Basal cell carcinoma
D. Keratoacanthoma
B. Melanoma
6. On examining a patient's mouth, a hard, midline growth is palpable along the hard palate. The patient says it has always been there. The growth is most likely ___
A. Benign
B. Malignant
C. Precancerous
A. Benign
7. Pruritus refers to skin conditions that are ____
A. Pus-filled
B. Scaly
C. Fluid-filled
D. Itchy
D. Itchy
8. The most common precursor lesion to squamous cell carcinoma (that is better felt than seen) is?
A. Seborrheic keratosis
B. Solar urticaria
C. Actinic keratosis
D. Keratoacanthoma
C. Actinic keratosis
9. Sialotlithiasis is suspected when an individual reports what symptoms? A. Painlesslingualmass
B. Painful ulceration on the tongue
C. Active fissures at the mouth angles
D. Intermittent submandibular swelling
D. Intermittent submandibular swelling
12. Increase of what hormone is associated with spider Angiomas?
A. Estrogen
B. Cortisol
C. Insulin
D. Testosterone
A. Estrogen
13. Atopic dermatitis is associated with increased Ig__
A. G
B. M
C. A
D. E
D. E
14. Which of the following causes swollen gums that bleed easily?
A. Epstein-Barrvirus
B. Food sensitivities
C. Vitamin D deficiency
D. Vitamin C deficiency
D. Vitamin C deficiency
16. Which of the following conditions develops the most rapidly when susceptible individuals are exposed to the sun?
A. Solar urticaria
B. Polymorphous light eruption
C. Actinickeratosis
D. Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis
...
17. The ABCDE mnemonic is primarily used to remember key diagnostic features for which skin cancer?
A. Basal cell carcinoma
B. Melanoma
C. Actinic keratosis
D. Squamous cell carcinoma
B. Melanoma
18. Which of the following procedures would help to differentiate leukoplakia from oral candidiasis?
A. Visualizing redness alongside the white patch
B. Checking if the white patch can be easily scraped off
C. Removing some of the patch to send for a Tzanck test
D. Looking for fluorescence under a blacklight
B. Checking if the white patch can be easily scraped off
19. Which of the following recommendations would be least beneficial for an individual with atopic dermatitis?
A. Take more hot,soapy baths
B. Take omega-3 fatty acids
C. Be tested for food sensitivities
D. Topic alapplication of chamomile
A. Take more hot,soapy baths
20. A ___ is a flat, non-palpable lesion that measures less than 1cm in diameter
A. Patch
B. Plaque
C. Macule
D. Erosion
C. Macule
1. Onycholysis is likely to result from fungus, psoriasis or which of the following?
A. Renal failure
B. Aging
C. Lungcancer
D. Trauma
D. Trauma
2. Rhinitis medicamentosa is associated with which of the following?
A. Congenital syphilis
B. Vitamin C deficiency
C. Medicated nose drops
D. Intranasal cocaine
C. Medicated nose drops
Myasthenia gravis, parkinson's disease, or CN XII paralysis causes which of these findings in the mouth?
A. Ptyalism
B. Hairy leukoplakia
C. Xerostomia
D. Actinic cheilitis
A. Ptyalism
Epstein Barr Infection causes which of these findings in the mouth?
A. Strawberry tongue
B. Hairy leukoplakia
C. Migratory glossitis
D. Actinic cheilitis
B. Hairy leukoplakia
Sjogrens syndrome causes which of these findings in the mouth?
A. Strawberry tongue
B. Hairy leukoplakia
C. Xerostomia
D. Actinic cheilitis
C. Xerostomia
4. Rhinophyma is believed to be an extreme form of what skin condition?
A. Rosacea
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Actinickeratosis
D. Erysipelas
A. Rosacea
5. What is a depressed, moist loss of part of the epidermis following rupture of a vesicle called?
A. Excoriation
B. Ulcer
C. Fissure
D. Erosion
D. Erosion
6. Which of the following causes a smooth tongue (atrophic glossitis)?
A. Ribo flavin deficiency
B. Scarlet fever
C. Congenital syphilis
D. UV radiation
A. Ribo flavin deficiency
What can be caused by mouth breathing?
A. Ptyalism
B. Hairy leukoplakia
C. Xerostomia
D. Actinic cheilitis
C. Xerostomia