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Which of the following is the most effective treatment to prevent rabies after exposure?
Immediate vaccination after exposure
What is the fatal outcome if rabies is not treated before symptoms appear?
Paralysis and death
What is the primary reason why rabies is rare in developed countries
widespread vaccination of domestic animals
What type of virus is the rabies virus
RNA virus
Which of the following is the primary mode of transmission for rabies?
bite or scratch from an infected animal
What is the main target of the rabies virus in the body?
Central Nervous System
Which animals are the most common reservoirs for rabies in humans?
dogs, bats, and ratcoons
Which of the DAMNIIIT approach is Calf with respiratory disease caused by Pasteurella multocida
Infectious
Which of the DAMNIIIT approach is Horse with a laceration to the forelimb caused by a barbed wire fence
Trauma
Which of the DAMNIIIT approach is Adult dairy cow with a displaced abomasum requiring surgery to correct
Anatomic
Which of the DAMNIIIT approach is Foal with a ventricular septal defect and a Grade-IV cardiac murmur
Developmental
Which of the DAMNIIIT approach is Navel-ill in a calf born into a dirty, contaminated environment
Iatrogenic
Which of the DAMNIIIT approach is Piglet with a fractured leg after sow stepped on it
Trauma
Which part of the DAMNIIIT approach is a lamb with white-muscle disease
Metabolic
Which part of the DAMNIIIT approach is the Etiology of disease in a cow with Wooden Tongue
Infectious
Which part of the DAMNIIIT approach is an Adult beef cow with lymphosarcoma in the heart muscle
Neoplasia
List 3 important criteria to ask owners taking an animal's history
what is the normal behavior
when did problems start
what conditions do they live in
list 3 signs of acute inflammation
redness, hot, itchy
when is NOT a great idea to oped an abscess
with no mask
What are the components of the musculoskeletal system?
skeleton, muscles, tissues, joints
Describe a Grade 1 murmur
heard only in a quiet environment
Describe a Grade 2 murmur
consistently auscultated
Describe a Grade 3 murmur
heard throughout the hemithorax
Describe a Grade 4 murmur
radiates widely without a palpablle ‘thrill’
Describe a Grade 5 murmur
palpable precordial thrill present
Describe a Grade 6 murmur
audible with stethoscope held away from thorax
The most common cause of severe lameness in large animals is _____
hoof abscess
What type of arthritis causes destruction of articular cartilage surfaces?
erosive
inflammation of muscle tissues is generically called
myositis
in vivo
refers to ‘inside of body’
atrophy
reduction in the size of an organ, often from lack of use
hypertrophy
increase in the size of cells in a tissues or organ
hyperplasia
increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ.
degeneration
reversible cell injury that is progressive
necrosis
death of cells or tissue from damage to membranes
ischemia
Interruption of blood supply to tissues or organs
erythema
redness of tissues due to inflammatory response
apoptosis
cell death in which the cell actively participates as a natural process
homeostasis
normal physiological conditions in a living system
serous discharge
watery, clear discharge
mucous discharge
thick, clear discharge
purulent discharge
cloudy discharge
mucopurulent discharge
bloody discharge
hemorrhagic discharge
thick, cloudy discharge
mucopurulent hemorrhagic discharge
thick, cloudy, bloody discharge
Cyanosis of oral/nasal mucosal surfaces, spread by vector
bluetongue virus
Zoonotic poxvirus of sheep- crusty lesions around oral mucosa
sore mouth
chronic wasting diarrhea in adult cows who were infected at birth
Johne’s disease
Zoonotic, highly contagious protozoan infection in calves and immunosuppressed people
rotavirus
Which electrolyte is imbalanced with Grass Tetany?
Magnesium
Botulism is transmitted via:
Ingestion of contaminated feedstuff with a dead rotting animal carcass
A very common, unique clinical sign that clearly signals a tetanus infection is:
A rigid, sawhorse-like stance
A _____ is any virus, bacteria, or other microorganism that causes disease.
pathogen
_____ Pathology analyzes serum chemistry, including glucose, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels, and total proteins
Clinical
The _____ period is the time between exposure and development of clinical signs
incubation
Paralysis of the recurrent laryngeal nerve in horses creates a clinical condition called “_____”
roaring
The pathway for food from start to finish travels through the _____ _____
digestive tract
Glossitis refers to inflammation of the _____
tongue.
An esophageal foreign body can cause _____ in horses
choke
Primary _____ in cattle requires treatment with a substance to break down surface tension in the rumen.
bloat
Up to 80% of some hore populations can be afflicted with gastric _____
ulcers.
_____ is described as decreased rhythmic peristalsis and failure of the stomach and intestines to respond to ingesta in the gut.
Illeus
White-muscle disease is a deficiency of _____ and _____
Vitamin E and Selenium
Fusobacterium necrophorum is commonly seen in cases of _____ in cattle and sheep.
foot rot
Cardiac output is affected by
vascular resistance in arterioles
The fibrous sac surrounding the heart is called the
pericardium
The MOST CORRECT description of blood flow through the heart is
Body, Right Atrium, RAV valve, Right Ventricle, Lungs, Left Atrium, LAV valve, Left Ventricle, Aorta
Transfaunation is used to treat dairy cattle with rumen acidosis as a way to restore
rumen microflora
the most important factor to consider when assessing an animal with diarrhea is
normal fecal consistency
this form of colibacillosis destroys intestinal cells by entering the cell and disrupting mucosal barriers
Enteroinvasive
True or False: Clostridial disease in animals usually causes rapid death following sudden onset of clinical signs.
True
The result of increased peristalsis where the intestine telescopes into itself is known as:
Intussusception
True or False: Vertical transmission of a disease occurs from parent to their offspring.
True
The name of this cell means "large" and "eat."
Macrophage
True or False: A modified-live vaccine is more virulent than a killed vaccine.
True
True or False: Innate immunity is non-specific whereas acquired immunity targets specific invaders.
True
Cells of the immune system originate primarily from the
bone marrow
the most important cell involved in allergic reactions is the
eosinophil
The MOST correct description of airflow through the respiratory tract from outside to inside the lungs is:
Nares, Nasal vestibules, Trachea, Bronchi, Bronchioles, Alveoli
Choose the MOST CORRECT statement about Shipping Fever Complex (SFC) in cattle:
Stress initiates/ aggravates the disease process
True or False: fibrin is firm, yellow scar tissue that proliferates as a result of inflammation
True
True or False: Etiology is defined as the rate of infection in a susceptible population of animals.
False
True or False: Gross pathology studies diseases at the tissue level, requiring a microscope to visualize structures.
False
Damage to the nasal mucosa _____the respiratory system defenses against entry of pathogenic microbes.
decreases
Morbidity is best described as:
The ratio of the number of diseased to healthy individuals in a group of exposed animals
True or False: Recognizing normal behavior is critical to accurately detecting disease processes.
True
Animals that harbor infection in the absence of disease are called:
All of the above can harbor infection without disease symptoms
The following describes onset of disease clinical signs 4 weeks after exposure
chronic
Regulation of acid-base balance, conservation and excretion of water and electrolytes, and blood osmotic pressure regulation are all functions of which system
urinary
True or False: uterine prolapse very commonly occurs in mares immediately after parturition
False
The complete fetoplacental unit in fresh condition is the best sample to submit to diagnose
abortion
Leptospirosis is a bacterial infection in which the organism is found in the host
kidney
Which of the following samples would be LEAST helpful in diagnosing an infection involving the urinary system
CSF tap
How is Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA) diagnosed in horses
with coggins test
what is the next step for a cow that tests positive for Bovine Leukosis Virus (BLV)
cull all seropositive cows
In a goat herd with animals that have clinical lesions of caseous lymphadenitis, the BEST method
cull affected animals
What is the most common factor that predisposes a buck, ram, or wether to have a urolith?
A high grain diet.
what substance is commonly added to the diet of sheep and goats to prevent urinary stone formation
selenium
how is a vaginal prolapse treated in a ewe
replace the tissue and use a restraining device
Goiter may be seen in animals whose diet is low in what element
Iodine