Animal Nutrition Final

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116 Terms

1
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Which of the following is the most effective treatment to prevent rabies after exposure?

Immediate vaccination after exposure

2
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What is the fatal outcome if rabies is not treated before symptoms appear?

Paralysis and death

3
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What is the primary reason why rabies is rare in developed countries

widespread vaccination of domestic animals

4
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What type of virus is the rabies virus

RNA virus

5
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Which of the following is the primary mode of transmission for rabies?

bite or scratch from an infected animal

6
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What is the main target of the rabies virus in the body?

Central Nervous System

7
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Which animals are the most common reservoirs for rabies in humans?

dogs, bats, and ratcoons

8
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Which of the DAMNIIIT approach is Calf with respiratory disease caused by Pasteurella multocida

Infectious

9
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Which of the DAMNIIIT approach is Horse with a laceration to the forelimb caused by a barbed wire fence

Trauma

10
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Which of the DAMNIIIT approach is Adult dairy cow with a displaced abomasum requiring surgery to correct

Anatomic

11
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Which of the DAMNIIIT approach is Foal with a ventricular septal defect and a Grade-IV cardiac murmur

Developmental

12
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Which of the DAMNIIIT approach is Navel-ill in a calf born into a dirty, contaminated environment

Iatrogenic

13
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Which of the DAMNIIIT approach is Piglet with a fractured leg after sow stepped on it

Trauma

14
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Which part of the DAMNIIIT approach is a lamb with white-muscle disease

Metabolic

15
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Which part of the DAMNIIIT approach is the Etiology of disease in a cow with Wooden Tongue

Infectious

16
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Which part of the DAMNIIIT approach is an Adult beef cow with lymphosarcoma in the heart muscle

Neoplasia

17
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List 3 important criteria to ask owners taking an animal's history

what is the normal behavior

when did problems start

what conditions do they live in

18
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list 3 signs of acute inflammation

redness, hot, itchy

19
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when is NOT a great idea to oped an abscess

with no mask

20
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What are the components of the musculoskeletal system?

skeleton, muscles, tissues, joints

21
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Describe a Grade 1 murmur

heard only in a quiet environment

22
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Describe a Grade 2 murmur

consistently auscultated

23
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Describe a Grade 3 murmur

heard throughout the hemithorax

24
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Describe a Grade 4 murmur

radiates widely without a palpablle ‘thrill’

25
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Describe a Grade 5 murmur

palpable precordial thrill present

26
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Describe a Grade 6 murmur

audible with stethoscope held away from thorax

27
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The most common cause of severe lameness in large animals is _____

hoof abscess

28
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What type of arthritis causes destruction of articular cartilage surfaces?

erosive

29
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inflammation of muscle tissues is generically called

myositis

30
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in vivo

refers to ‘inside of body’

31
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atrophy

reduction in the size of an organ, often from lack of use

32
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hypertrophy

increase in the size of cells in a tissues or organ

33
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hyperplasia

increase in the number of cells in a tissue or organ.

34
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degeneration

reversible cell injury that is progressive

35
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necrosis

death of cells or tissue from damage to membranes

36
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ischemia

Interruption of blood supply to tissues or organs

37
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erythema

redness of tissues due to inflammatory response

38
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apoptosis

cell death in which the cell actively participates as a natural process

39
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homeostasis

normal physiological conditions in a living system

40
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serous discharge

watery, clear discharge

41
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mucous discharge

thick, clear discharge

42
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purulent discharge

cloudy discharge

43
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mucopurulent discharge

bloody discharge

44
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hemorrhagic discharge

thick, cloudy discharge

45
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mucopurulent hemorrhagic discharge

thick, cloudy, bloody discharge

46
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Cyanosis of oral/nasal mucosal surfaces, spread by vector

bluetongue virus

47
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Zoonotic poxvirus of sheep- crusty lesions around oral mucosa

sore mouth

48
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chronic wasting diarrhea in adult cows who were infected at birth

Johne’s disease

49
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Zoonotic, highly contagious protozoan infection in calves and immunosuppressed people

rotavirus

50
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Which electrolyte is imbalanced with Grass Tetany?

Magnesium

51
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Botulism is transmitted via:

Ingestion of contaminated feedstuff with a dead rotting animal carcass

52
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A very common, unique clinical sign that clearly signals a tetanus infection is:

A rigid, sawhorse-like stance

53
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A _____ is any virus, bacteria, or other microorganism that causes disease.

pathogen

54
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_____ Pathology analyzes serum chemistry, including glucose, blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels, and total proteins

Clinical

55
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The _____ period is the time between exposure and development of clinical signs

incubation

56
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Paralysis of the recurrent laryngeal nerve in horses creates a clinical condition called “_____”

roaring

57
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The pathway for food from start to finish travels through the _____ _____

digestive tract

58
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Glossitis refers to inflammation of the _____

tongue.

59
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An esophageal foreign body can cause _____ in horses

choke

60
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Primary _____ in cattle requires treatment with a substance to break down surface tension in the rumen.

bloat

61
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Up to 80% of some hore populations can be afflicted with gastric _____

ulcers.

62
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_____ is described as decreased rhythmic peristalsis and failure of the stomach and intestines to respond to ingesta in the gut.

Illeus

63
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White-muscle disease is a deficiency of _____ and _____

Vitamin E and Selenium

64
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Fusobacterium necrophorum is commonly seen in cases of _____ in cattle and sheep.

foot rot

65
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Cardiac output is affected by

vascular resistance in arterioles

66
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The fibrous sac surrounding the heart is called the

pericardium

67
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The MOST CORRECT description of blood flow through the heart is

Body, Right Atrium, RAV valve, Right Ventricle, Lungs, Left Atrium, LAV valve, Left Ventricle, Aorta

68
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Transfaunation is used to treat dairy cattle with rumen acidosis as a way to restore

rumen microflora

69
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the most important factor to consider when assessing an animal with diarrhea is

normal fecal consistency

70
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this form of colibacillosis destroys intestinal cells by entering the cell and disrupting mucosal barriers

Enteroinvasive

71
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True or False: Clostridial disease in animals usually causes rapid death following sudden onset of clinical signs.

True

72
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The result of increased peristalsis where the intestine telescopes into itself is known as:

Intussusception

73
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True or False: Vertical transmission of a disease occurs from parent to their offspring.

True

74
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The name of this cell means "large" and "eat."

Macrophage

75
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True or False: A modified-live vaccine is more virulent than a killed vaccine.

True

76
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True or False: Innate immunity is non-specific whereas acquired immunity targets specific invaders.

True

77
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Cells of the immune system originate primarily from the

bone marrow

78
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the most important cell involved in allergic reactions is the

eosinophil

79
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The MOST correct description of airflow through the respiratory tract from outside to inside the lungs is:

Nares, Nasal vestibules, Trachea, Bronchi, Bronchioles, Alveoli

80
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Choose the MOST CORRECT statement about Shipping Fever Complex (SFC) in cattle:

Stress initiates/ aggravates the disease process

81
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True or False: fibrin is firm, yellow scar tissue that proliferates as a result of inflammation

True

82
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True or False: Etiology is defined as the rate of infection in a susceptible population of animals.

False

83
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True or False: Gross pathology studies diseases at the tissue level, requiring a microscope to visualize structures.

False

84
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Damage to the nasal mucosa _____the respiratory system defenses against entry of pathogenic microbes.

decreases

85
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Morbidity is best described as:

The ratio of the number of diseased to healthy individuals in a group of exposed animals

86
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True or False: Recognizing normal behavior is critical to accurately detecting disease processes.

True

87
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Animals that harbor infection in the absence of disease are called:

All of the above can harbor infection without disease symptoms

88
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The following describes onset of disease clinical signs 4 weeks after exposure

chronic

89
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Regulation of acid-base balance, conservation and excretion of water and electrolytes, and blood osmotic pressure regulation are all functions of which system

urinary

90
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True or False: uterine prolapse very commonly occurs in mares immediately after parturition

False

91
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The complete fetoplacental unit in fresh condition is the best sample to submit to diagnose

abortion

92
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Leptospirosis is a bacterial infection in which the organism is found in the host

kidney

93
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Which of the following samples would be LEAST helpful in diagnosing an infection involving the urinary system

CSF tap

94
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How is Equine Infectious Anemia (EIA) diagnosed in horses

with coggins test

95
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what is the next step for a cow that tests positive for Bovine Leukosis Virus (BLV)

cull all seropositive cows

96
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In a goat herd with animals that have clinical lesions of caseous lymphadenitis, the BEST method

cull affected animals

97
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What is the most common factor that predisposes a buck, ram, or wether to have a urolith?

A high grain diet.

98
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what substance is commonly added to the diet of sheep and goats to prevent urinary stone formation

selenium

99
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how is a vaginal prolapse treated in a ewe

replace the tissue and use a restraining device

100
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Goiter may be seen in animals whose diet is low in what element

Iodine