Pearson Week 1-4 Quizzes NURS 200

When a cell undergoes atrophy, what is happening?

A. It is shrinking in size

B. It is growing larger in size

C. It is dividing rapidly

D. It is changing shape

A. It is shrinking in size

The medication atropine competes with acetylcholine for the same receptors and in a high dosage can actually interrupt the transmission. In which manner should the nurse identify that this drug is acting?

A. Agonist

B. Anti-antagonist

C. Antagonist

D. Partial agonist

C. Antagonist

The nurse is asked if there is a reason to look at a drug's chemical name. Which response should the nurse make?

A. "It helps predict the physical and chemical properties."

B. "It is the drug prototype."

C. "It is not important."

D. "It is the therapeutic drug class."

A. "It helps predict the physical and chemical properties."

The nurse is discussing the drug approval process with a new colleague. Which level of drug approval should the nurse explain that examines the drug's effectiveness and monitors for adverse effects on nonhuman subjects?

A. Preclinical investigation

B. Review of the New Drug Application (NDA)

C. Clinical investigation

D. Postmarketing surveillance

A. Preclinical investigation

What is the role of mitochondria in a cell?

A. Cellular respiration and ATP production

B. Detoxification of harmful substances

C. Packaging and secretion of proteins

D. Cell signaling

A. Cellular respiration and ATP production

A client requests medication for pain. Which factor should the nurse consider when determining if an analgesic will provide the most and fastest pain relief?

A. Efficacy

B. Potency

C. Adverse effects

D. Classification

A. Efficacy

A student is observing a cell under the microscope. It is observed to have supercoiled DNA with histones. Which of the following would also be observed by the student?

A. No organelles

B. A nucleus

C. A single circular chromosome

D. Free-floating nuclear material

B. A nucleus

A 55-year-old male with a 30-year history of smoking is examined for cardiac disturbance. Examination of his cardiac studies reveals atherosclerotic cerebrovascular disease resulting in reduced blood supply. This type of cellular adaptation is called:

A. Pathologic atrophy

B. Anaplasia.

C. Physiologic atrophy

D. Metaplasia.

A. Pathologic atrophy

Robbie Taylor, age 4, who has Prader-Willi syndrome, has come for a well-child examination. No symptoms reported by parents or child. Moderate mental developmental delay verified by a psychologist. The pediatric nurse performs the well-child examination, what characteristic of the syndrome is the nurse expected to observe?

A. Hypertonia

B. Short stature

C. Underweight

D. Large hands and feet

B. Short stature

The nurse is considering routes of administration prior to administering a medication to a client. Which route should the nurse expect to have the fastest level of effectiveness?

A. Oral

B. Intramuscular

C. Subcutaneous

D. Intravenous

D. Intravenous

An older client is concerned about receiving "too much" of a medication because another dose was given shortly after a large initial dose. Which response should the nurse make to this patient?

A. "The large dose was not effective because of your age."

B. "The large dose was the loading dose which helps your body reach a therapeutic level faster."

C. "The large dose was used to see if you have an allergy to the medication."

D. "The large dose did not work so it needed to be followed up with another dose."

B. "The large dose was the loading dose which helps your body reach a therapeutic level faster."

The nurse collects health history information from a pregnant client. For which reason should the nurse remind the client to avoid taking any type of medication?

A. The doses of the medications need to be adjusted higher before taking

B. The doses of the medications need to be adjusted lower before taking

C. Drugs can easily cross the fetal-placental barrier

D. Pregnancy renders medications ineffective

C. Drugs can easily cross the fetal-placental barrier

The nurse recognizes signs of heroin use in a client. Which drug schedule should the nurse identify for this substance?

A. Schedule V

B. Schedule III

C. Schedule II

D. Schedule I

D. Schedule I

A client asks how long a dose of pain medication will last. Which variable should the nurse review with the client? (Select all that apply.)

A. Drug-food interactions

B. Route of administration

C. Client age

D. Dosage

E. Time of day

A. Drug-food interactions

B. Route of administration

D. Dosage

What is the term for programmed cell death?

A. Necrosis

B. Karyolysi

C. Autophagy

D. Apoptosis

D. Apoptosis

What is hyperplasia?

A. A decrease in cell function

B. An increase in cell number

C. A change in cell type

D. An increase in cell size

B. An increase in cell number

Nurse Patho understands that a common cause of gangrene occurs when cells die of what condition?

A. Reperfusion

B. Trauma

C. Inflammatory responses

D. Hypoxia

D. Hypoxia

A nurse is instructing the staff about cellular functions. Which cellular function is the nurse describing when an isolated cell absorbs oxygen and uses it to transform nutrients to energy?

A. Respiration

B. Secretion

C. Metabolic absorption

D. Communication

A. Respiration

The nurse reviews serum drug levels for a client. Which level should be identified as optimum for the client?

A. The level between therapeutic effects and adverse effects

B. The level where the drug is not detected in the blood stream

C. The level where therapeutic effects occur

D. The level where adverse effects occur

A. The level between therapeutic effects and adverse effects

A client is prescribed a medication that causes gastric upset. At which time should the medication be provided to the client?

A. Between meals

B. First thing in the morning

C. With a meal

D. At bedtime

C. With a meal

If a medication causes stomach upset, it is usually administered with meals to prevent epigastric pain, nausea, or vomiting. Providing the medication at bedtime or first thing in the morning would cause gastric upset. A medication would be given between meals if food interferes with the absorption.

The nurse prepares teaching material for an older client regarding a water-soluble drug prescribed for hypertension. Which instruction should the nurse provide to promote renal excretion?

A. Refrain from using nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) with this medication.

B. Take this medication on a full stomach.

C. Drink eight glasses (8 ounces each) of water daily.

D. Monitor blood glucose closely.

C. Drink eight glasses (8 ounces each) of water daily.

Due to a decreased thirst sensation and decreased fluid volume, older clients should be instructed to increase fluid intake, especially with water-soluble medications. Blood glucose is monitored in clients with diabetes. Water-soluble medications do not need to be taken on a full stomach. Clients taking anticoagulants should avoid NSAIDs because of the risk of bleeding.

A client asks what can cause cancer cells to spread to other areas of the body. Which information should the nurse provide in response?

A. Lack of practicing secondary cancer prevention mechanisms can lead to tumor metastasis.

B. Angiogenesis is the formation of new blood vessels, allowing cancer cells a way to spread.

C. Carcinogens lead to the development of secondary metastatic tumor sites in the body.

D. Chemotherapy drugs cause tumors to rupture and promote the spread of cancer cells.

B. Angiogenesis is the formation of new blood vessels, allowing cancer cells a way to spread.

Solid tumors need a way of obtaining oxygen and nutrients to grow. Cancer cells have the ability to form new blood vessels that not only provide nutrition but also allow cancer cells to escape and metastasize to other areas of the body. Chemotherapy drugs do not cause metastasis by rupturing tumors. Carcinogens do cause cancer but do not lead to metastasis. Secondary cancer prevention practices screen for cancers and do not lead to metastasis.

A client asks about ways to prevent cancer. Which information should the nurse provide about cancer prevention? (Select all that apply.)

A. Avoid prolonged sun exposure.

B. Obtain screening tests.

C. Stop using tobacco.

D. Maintain a healthy diet.

E. Receive the human papillomavirus vaccination.

A. Avoid prolonged sun exposure.

B. Obtain screening tests.

C. Stop using tobacco.

D. Maintain a healthy diet.

Primary cancer prevention includes interventions that keep cancer from developing. These include stopping the use of all tobacco products, maintaining a healthy diet, having screening tests at recommended intervals, and avoiding prolonged sun exposure.

The nurse is caring for a pregnant client. Which information should the nurse verify prior to administering a prescribed oral antiseizure medication?

A. Gestational trimester of the client

B. Lab results for blood urea nitrogen and creatinine

C. Blood glucose level

D. Pregnancy risk category from the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

D. Pregnancy risk category from the Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

The FDA's five pregnancy categories guide the healthcare team and the client in selecting medications that are least hazardous for the fetus. Nurses who treat pregnant clients should know the pregnancy categories for all medications commonly prescribed.

The nurse is preparing to administer medications to multiple clients on the care area. Which factor should the nurse recognize that contributes to medication errors? (Select all that apply.)

A. Use of abbreviations

B. Verbal orders

C. Noisy hospital environments

D. Scanning of barcodes at the bedside

E. Confusing orders

A. Use of abbreviations

B. Verbal orders

C. Noisy hospital environments

E. Confusing orders

In order to minimize factors that cause medication errors, the nurse should avoid verbal orders if at all possible. The nurse should always ask to verify confusing orders, avoid problematic abbreviations that could be misunderstood, and avoid settings that are busy and noisy, which may lead to distraction when administering medications. Scanning barcodes at the bedside is a legitimate best practice.

The nurse discusses medication metabolism with an adolescent client. Which statement by the client should indicate to the nurse that additional teaching is required?

A. "I can take an extra acetaminophen tablet every 2 hours if I'm in pain."

B. "My liver helps metabolize medications."

C. "I shouldn't experiment with alcohol, as it can affect my liver."

D. "If I take medicine with food, it will slow down the metabolism."

A. "I can take an extra acetaminophen tablet every 2 hours if I'm in pain."

The liver metabolizes medications and extends the half-life of drugs. To avoid toxicity, medications such as acetaminophen must be administered at adequately spaced intervals to allow sufficient time for metabolism. Taking medication with food may delay absorption. The liver is the organ that metabolizes medications and the adolescent should avoid experimenting with alcohol, as this can impact metabolism.

The nurse is asked to explain the causes of cancer. Which information should the nurse include?

Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.

Select all that apply.

A. "Some cancers have a strong genetic component."

B. "Cancer can result from tissue trauma."

C. "Cancers have a very strong environmental component."

D. "Cancer can result from increased levels of stress."

E. "Cancer can result from damaged tumor suppressor genes."

A. "Some cancers have a strong genetic component."

C. "Cancers have a very strong environmental component."

E. "Cancer can result from damaged tumor suppressor genes."

A client is prescribed a list of new medications. On which responsibility should the nurse focus when preparing the medications for the client? (Select all that apply.)

A. Contraindications

B. Cost to provide

C. Side effects

D. Intended use

E. Body effects

A. Contraindications

C. Side effects

D. Intended use

E. Body effects

The nurse prepares an educational program on the effects of medication on older clients. Which age-related factor influencing effectiveness should the nurse include in the presentation? (Select all that apply.)

A. Distribution

B. Metabolism

C. Elimination

D. Respirations

E. Absorption

A. Distribution

B. Metabolism

C. Elimination

E. Absorption

Age-related changes that affect medication effectiveness in the older adult include decreased absorption of drugs, altered distribution and metabolism of drugs, and decreased elimination of drugs. Respiration does not alter medication effectiveness.

A client is prescribed a topical medication to be applied to the skin. Which should the nurse keep in mind when providing the client with this medication?

A. Medication will be absorbed slowly

B. Medication will rapidly reach the general circulation

C. Adverse effects will not occur

D. Side effects will be enhanced

A. Medication will be absorbed slowly

A medication that is applied topically to the skin is absorbed very slowly. Local topical delivery produces fewer side effects however adverse effects can still occur depending upon the medication. A minimal amount of the medication reaches the general circulation when applied topically.

The nurse prepares medications for a client. Which right should the nurse complete to ensure the medications are safely provided? (Select all that apply.)

A. Time

B. Client

C. Dose

D. Diagnosis

E. Medication

A. Time

B. Client

C. Dose

E. Medication

The five rights of medication administration include the right client, the right medication, the right dose, the right route, and the right time. The right diagnosis is not a right of medication administration.

The nurse is preparing to administer medications to a client. Which factor should the nurse recognize that contributes most to medication errors? (Select all that apply.)

A. Omission of medication

B. Manufacturing error

C. Prescribing error

D. Error in administration of the medication

E. Unclear prescriptions

A. Omission of medication

C. Prescribing error

D. Error in administration of the medication

E. Unclear prescriptions

Most errors regarding medications involve healthcare personnel. These errors include incorrect prescribing by the healthcare provider, an unclear prescription, forgetting to administer the medication, and errors in actual administration of the medication. Manufacturing errors are caught before the medication reaches the client, when the Food and Drug Administration approves the drug to come into the market for consumer use.

The nurse is preparing to administer a bronchodilator to a small child. Which action should the nurse take to avoid a medication error?

A. Scan the medication in the hallway.

B. Record all dosing information prior to administering the medication.

C. Prepare the dose in the medication room prior to administration.

D. Double-check calculations to confirm the dose.

D. Double-check calculations to confirm the dose.

Calculations should always be double-checked prior to administering medications to children. Medications are scanned in the pharmacy before they are sent to the care area and at the bedside, along with the bar-coded client identification band, as a safeguard. Packages or containers of the medication should be opened in the presence of the client. Dosing information should be recorded in the medication administration record immediately after administering the drug, not before administration.

The nurse has provided education about cancer prevention to a community group. Which statement made by a participant indicates teaching was effective?

Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.

Select all that apply.

A. "I've been thinking about trying a vegetarian diet. Now may be a good time."

B. "I am going to call my doctor and schedule a pap smear."

C. "I think I will start taking vitamin A and selenium."

D. "I've never been a drinker, but I am going to start drinking a glass of wine with dinner."

E. "I am going to read the label on that new bottle of sunscreen I bought."

A. "I've been thinking about trying a vegetarian diet. Now may be a good time."

B. "I am going to call my doctor and schedule a pap smear."

E. "I am going to read the label on that new bottle of sunscreen I bought."

The nurse scans a client's medication and identification band before providing a prescribed medication. Which additional step should be completed to avoid a medication error?

A. Complete the five rights and three checks

B. Contact the pharmacy to validate that the medications are accurate

C. Ask the client to validate their name and social security number

D. Check the medications with the prescriptions in the medical record

A. Complete the five rights and three checks

Scanning a medication and the identification band is checking the five rights three times. However, error can still occur if the three checks are not completed. Computerized scanning systems do not relieve the nurse of the responsibility to use the three checks and five rights continuously. Asking the client to validate their name and social security number will not prevent a medication error. Checking the medication with the prescription will not prevent a medication error. Contacting the pharmacy to validate the medications will not prevent an error.

The nurse observes a colleague split a long-acting medication in half. Which action should the nurse take?

A. Suggest that the medication be crushed instead

B. Nothing since this form of the medication can be safely split

C. Recommend that the medication be provided as two separate doses

D. Remind the colleague that the client is at risk for an accidental overdose

D. Remind the colleague that the client is at risk for an accidental overdose

Long acting medications are not chewed, crushed, or broken in half because doing so could cause an accidental overdose. A long acting medication cannot be safely split. The medication should not be split or provided as two separate doses.

A client is prescribed eye drops to be placed in the "OS" (left) eye. Which action should the nurse take to avoid a medication error with this client? (Select all that apply.)

A. Question unclear orders.

B. Assess the client for food allergies.

C. Reject any verbal orders.

D. Follow policies related to medication administration.

E. Avoid abbreviations that could be misunderstood.

A. Question unclear orders.

D. Follow policies related to medication administration.

E. Avoid abbreviations that could be misunderstood.

In order to prevent medication errors, the nurse should minimize factors that may lead to medication errors, by clarifying unclear orders, avoiding the use of abbreviations like "OS" that could be misunderstood, and by following agency policies and procedures. Verbal orders can be accepted but should be confirmed in writing to ensure accuracy. Assessing food allergies is important, but would have no impact on the use of eye drops in this client.

The nurse is reviewing the pathophysiology of cancer. Which statement describes the growth fraction ratio?

A. The number of replicating cells to the number of active cells

B. The number of nonreplicating cells to the number of resting cells

C. The number of nonreplicating cells to the number of active cells

D. The number of replicating cells to the number of resting cells

D. The number of replicating cells to the number of resting cells

The growth fraction is a measure of the number of cells undergoing mitosis in a tissue. It is a ratio of the number of replicating cells to the number of resting cells.

The nurse is asked to explain the distribution of medications during pregnancy. Which statement should the nurse include in response?

A. "Lifestyle factors such as smoking and drinking affect how medications are distributed in the body."

B. "Highly lipophilic drugs cannot be distributed to breast milk, so these will not pass through to the infant in breastfeeding."

C. "The placenta allows for gas exchange and nutrients between mother and infant, while providing a level of protection for the fetus."

D. "Fewer plasma proteins are available to bind with medications, potentially leading to more 'free' medication in the plasma."

D. "Fewer plasma proteins are available to bind with medications, potentially leading to more 'free' medication in the plasma."

The medication-protein complex is too large to cross the placental membrane due to medication binding to maternal plasma proteins. Therefore, more medication-protein binding results in less medication crossing the placenta. Lifestyle factors play an important role in metabolism, not distribution. Highly lipophilic drugs are distributed in highly lipid breast milk, which is passed on to the breastfeeding infant. Gas and nutrient exchange between the placenta is a physiologic change that affects pharmacokinetics but is not related to distribution of medications.

The nurse is asked to identify the part of the nervous system that is responsible for muscle movement. Which response should the nurse make?

A. Somatic

B. Parasympathetic

C. Sympathetic

D. Autonomic

A. Somatic

The somatic nervous system (a division of the peripheral nervous system) controls voluntary movement.

The nurse is caring for a client with asthma. Which adrenergic agonist should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client? (Select all that apply.)

A. Levalbuterol

B. Norepinephrine

C. Isoproterenol

D. Albuterol

E. Afomaterol

A. Levalbuterol

C. Isoproterenol

D. Albuterol

E. Afomaterol

Albuterol, afomaterol, isoproterenol, and levalbuterol are all adrenergic agonists used to treat asthma. Norepinephrine is an adrenergic agonist given to treat shock.

A client has been prescribed phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) spray for nasal congestion. Which information about adverse effects should the nurse provide in discharge teaching?

Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.

Select all that apply.

A. "This drug may cause some stinging or burning in your nose."

B. "You may notice that your nasal secretions take on a slightly orange tint."

C. "You may feel like your blood pressure is low for the first few times you use this spray."

D. "Rebound congestion may occur if the prescription is used more than a few days."

E. "Do not drink herbal teas while taking this medication."

A. "This drug may cause some stinging or burning in your nose."

D. "Rebound congestion may occur if the prescription is used more than a few days."

A client experiencing tachycardia, dilated pupils, hallucinations, and confusion is suspected of having anticholinergic toxicity. Which drug should the nurse expect to be prescribed to reverse these effects?

A. Atropine

B. Physostigmine

C. Oxybutynin

D. Succinylcholine

B. Physostigmine

Physostigmine (a cholinesterase inhibitor) is given to reverse the symptoms of anticholinergic toxicity. Atropine is used to increase the heart rate. Oxybutynin is used to treat urinary incontinence. Succinylcholine is a neuromuscular blocking agent used during mechanical ventilation in surgery.

The nurse is reviewing the autonomic nervous system with a new graduate. Which structure of this system should the nurse include?

Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.

Select all that apply.

A. Preganglionic neuron

B. Postganglionic neuron

C. Synaptic cleft

D. Norepinephrine

E. Dopamine

A. Preganglionic neuron

B. Postganglionic neuron

C. Synaptic cleft

The basic unit of the autonomic nervous system is a two-neuron chain. The first neuron, called the preganglionic neuron, originates in the central nervous system.

The preganglionic neuron connects with the second nerve in the autonomic nervous system two-neuron chain through the ganglia, which contains the postganglionic neuron.

Autonomic messages must cross the synaptic cleft.

Acetylcholine is the neurotransmitter released at cholinergic receptors.

Dopamine is a neurotransmitter within the limbic system and hypothalamus and not the autonomic nervous system.

A client with Alzheimer disease is prescribed an indirect cholinergic agonist. In which way should the nurse expect this medication to act?

A. Inhibits acetylcholinesterase which destroys acetylcholine

B. Binds the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, preventing destruction of ACh

C. Acts by the same mechanism as ACh when released

D. Increases the release of acetylcholine (ACh) from the synaptic cleft

B. Binds the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, preventing destruction of ACh

An indirect cholinergic agonist binds the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, preventing destruction of ACh. Direct cholinergic agonists increase the release of ACh into the synaptic cleft and act by the same mechanism as ACh. Direct cholinergic agonists are inactivated with acetylcholinesterase.

A client asks why bethanechol (Urecholine) is prescribed. Which information should the nurse include in response??

A. Stabilizes the blood pressure in orthostatic hypotension

B. Increases the amount of saliva produced in the mouth

C. Increases the strength of the skeletal muscle contraction

D. Treats urinary retention not caused by obstructions

D. Treats urinary retention not caused by obstructions

Urecholine is used to treat urinary retention, which is not a result of urinary obstructions. Cevimeline treats xerostomia. Orthostatic hypotension occurs as a result of bethanechol administration. Pyridostigmine, an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, is used to treat myasthenia gravis by increasing the strength of skeletal muscle contraction.

The nurse is preparing to administer an alpha blocker to a client. Which action should the nurse expect to occur in this client? (Select all that apply.)

A. Vasodilation

B. Increased heart rate

C. Decreased blood pressure

D. Reduced cardiac output

E. Increased urine output

A. Vasodilation

C. Decreased blood pressure

D. Reduced cardiac output

Alpha-adrenergic antagonists cause vasodilation, reduce cardiac output, and decrease blood pressure. Increased heart rate is a component of the first-dose phenomenon but is not expected with ongoing therapy. Increased urine output is not expected with alpha-adrenergic blockers.

The nurse is caring for a client with asthma. Which adrenergic agonist should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client? (Select all that apply.)

A. Levalbuterol

B. Norepinephrine

C. Afomaterol

D. Albuterol

E. Isoproterenol

A. Levalbuterol

C. Afomaterol

D. Albuterol

E. Isoproterenol

Albuterol, afomaterol, isoproterenol, and levalbuterol are all adrenergic agonists used to treat asthma. Norepinephrine is an adrenergic agonist given to treat shock.

A client is being assessed for pheochromocytoma. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.

Select all that apply.

A. Monitor blood pressure

B. Monitor bowel sounds

C. Administer phentolamine

D. Administer normal saline rapidly

E. Insert a urinary catheter to bypass prostatic enlargement

A. Monitor blood pressure

C. Administer phentolamine

A student nurse asks which client situations are considered involuntary responses to autonomic nervous system control. Which response should the nurse list?

Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.

Select all that apply.

A. Sweating when hot

B. Stepping over a chair to prevent falling

C. Complaining of nausea

D. Salivating at the smell of food

E. Breathing deeper when running

A. Sweating when hot

D. Salivating at the smell of food

E. Breathing deeper when running

The nurse educator is reviewing the process of synaptic transmission following the sympathetic pathway. In which order will the nurse explain the steps of synaptic transmission?

A. Action potential encounters adrenergic receptors

B. Action potential encounters cholinergic receptors

C. Action potential travels across the preganglionic neuron

D. Action potential travels across the postganglionic neuron

E. Target tissue is reached.

(1) C. Action potential travels across the preganglionic neuron

(2) B. Action potential encounters cholinergic receptors

(3) D. Action potential travels across the postganglionic neuron

(4) A. Action potential encounters adrenergic receptors

(5) E. Target tissue is reached.

The nursing instructor teaches about the nervous system. Which statement made by a student indicates that teaching was effective?

Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.

Select all that apply.

A. "The central nervous system includes the brain and spinal cord."

B. "The peripheral nervous system has mainly sensory functions."

C. "The somatic nervous system gives us voluntary control over our gastrointestinal tract."

D. "The nervous system helps us react to environmental changes."

E. "The somatic nervous system gives us voluntary control over moving."

A. "The central nervous system includes the brain and spinal cord."

D. "The nervous system helps us react to environmental changes."

E. "The somatic nervous system gives us voluntary control over moving."

The nurse is reviewing the production of catecholamines. Which substance should the nurse identify that is used in their initial production?

A. L-dopa

B. Dopamine

C. Norepinephrine

D. Tyrosine

D. Tyrosine

The synthesis of catecholamines begins with tyrosine.

A client experiences hypovolemic shock and cardiac arrest. Which type of medication should the nurse expect to be used?

A. Alpha2-adrenergic agonist

B. Alpha1-adrenergic agonist

C. Beta2-adrenergic agonist

D. Nonselective adrenergic agonist

D. Nonselective adrenergic agonist

Nonselective adrenergic agonists trigger both the alpha and beta receptors and are used to treat hypotension, cardiac arrest, and bronchospasm. Beta2-receptor agonists are widely used for treating asthma and reducing preterm labor contractions of the uterus. Alpha1-receptor agonists are prescribed to treat nasal congestion and hypotension, and to dilate the pupil during ophthalmic examinations. Alpha2-receptor agonists are prescribed for the treatment of hypertension.

A client has been prescribed phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) for nasal congestion. Which adverse effect should the nurse include when teaching the client? (Select all that apply.)

A. Sneezing

B. Rebound congestion

C. Rhinitis

D. Conjunctivitis

E. Stinging in the nasal mucosa

B. Rebound congestion

E. Stinging in the nasal mucosa

The most common adverse effects of phenylephrine are rebound congestion and stinging in the nasal mucosa. Sneezing, rhinitis, and conjunctivitis are not known adverse effects of this drug.

The nurse is caring for a client with multisystem organ failure. Which client assessment findings are under the control of the sympathetic nervous system?

Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.

Select all that apply.

A. Blood glucose level 210 mg/dL

B. Blood pressure 180/90 mmHg

C. Extremities are cool

D. Respiratory rate 14 and regular

E. Hyperactive bowel sounds

A. Blood glucose level 210 mg/dL

B. Blood pressure 180/90 mmHg

C. Extremities are cool

A client has sustained a large blood loss. During the assessment, which findings should the nurse identify are under the control of the nervous system?

Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.

Select all that apply.

A. Heart rate

B. Blood pressure

C. Pupil size

D. Bowel sounds

E. Fluid volume

A. Heart rate

B. Blood pressure

C. Pupil size

D. Bowel sounds

The brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves act as a smoothly integrated whole to accomplish minute-to-minute changes in essential functions such as heart rate.

The brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves act as a smoothly integrated whole to accomplish minute-to-minute changes in essential functions such as blood pressure.

The brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves act as a smoothly integrated whole to accomplish minute-to-minute changes in essential functions such as pupil size.

The brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves act as a smoothly integrated whole to accomplish minute-to-minute changes in essential functions such as intestinal motility.

Although the brain, spinal cord, and peripheral nerves act as a smoothly integrated whole to accomplish minute-to-minute changes in essential functions, fluid volume is not under the control of the nervous system.

A client received a muscarinic antagonist to dilate the pupils for an eye examination. Which teaching should the nurse provide after the examination?

A. Continue eye drops at home

B. Notify healthcare provider of blurred vision

C. Refrain from rubbing the eyes

D. Wear sunglasses for several hours

D. Wear sunglasses for several hours

Muscarinic antagonists used to dilate pupils for eye exams can cause photophobia for several hours. Sunglasses would be indicated. The eye drops are instilled prior to the exam and will not be used at home. There are no contraindications against rubbing the eyes. Blurred vision is an expected side effect of the drug.

The nurse is teaching a client who is newly diagnosed with a seizure disorder. Which statement should the nurse include in the discussion?

A. "All seizures involve convulsions."

B. "Convulsions are a symptom of the underlying seizure disorder."

C. "Bacterial infections can cause seizures."

D. "Epilepsy is an acute disorder characterized by nonconvulsive seizures."

C. "Bacterial infections can cause seizures."

A client is taking benztropine for Parkinson disease. Which client statement should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

A. "I have had incidences of low blood pressure."

B. "I am taking medication for narrow-angle glaucoma."

C. "I have had a mastectomy in the past."

D. "I am anemic."

B. "I am taking medication for narrow-angle glaucoma."

A client reports that the prescribed levodopa/carbidopa (Sinemet) is not helping after 2 weeks of therapy. Which response should the nurse make?

A. "Clients often need as much as months of therapy before optimal effects are seen."

B. "You will need 5 days to see any change related to the medication."

C. "This may not be the correct medication for you."

D. "Try taking the medication in the evening versus the morning as you had been."

A. "Clients often need as much as months of therapy before optimal effects are seen."

A 2-year-old child has intense muscle contractions and a fever of

104.3 degrees F. Which health problem should the nurse suspect in this client?

A. Febrile seizure

B. Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

C. Status epilepticus

D. Absence seizure

A. Febrile seizure

A client with Parkinson disease asks the purpose of medication therapy. Which should the nurse explain as a goal of treatment for the disease? (Select all that apply.)

A. Decrease in symptoms

B. Increase in self-care ability

C. Provide emotional support

D. Increase in appetite

E. Improve quality of life

A. Decrease in symptoms

B. Increase in self-care ability

E. Improve quality of life

A client with Alzheimer disease is prescribed rivastigmine (Exelon). Which should the nurse instruct the client and family about this medication?

A. "Take the medication with a large glass of water."

B. "Take the medication with an over-the-counter antacid."

C. "Take it at bedtime before going to sleep."

D. "Take with food."

D. "Take with food."

The nurse is preparing to assess a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.

Select all that apply.

A. Muscle weakness

B. Muscle atrophy

C. Mood alterations

D. Slow, shuffling gait

E. Abnormal posture

A. Muscle weakness

B. Muscle atrophy

The nurse is concerned that a client taking an antiepileptic drug may be overmedicated. Which sign should the nurse recognize as the result of overmedication? (Select all that apply.)

A. Agitation

B. Tachypnea

C. Lethargy

D. Disorientation

E. Vomiting

A. Agitation

C. Lethargy

D. Disorientation

A client has been taking levodopa for Parkinson disease. Which symptom should the nurse expect to improve in this client? (Select all that apply.)

A. Muscle rigidity

B. Tremors

C. Constipation

D. Bradykinesia

E. Sexual dysfunction

A. Muscle rigidity

B. Tremors

D. Bradykinesia

A client asks the nurse to describe the characteristics of absence seizures. Which explanation should the nurse provide the client?

A. "Absence seizures are basically the same kind of seizures as grand mal, but they are less frequent."

B. "Absence seizures are characterized by twitching of the arms and legs."

C. "This type of seizure is similar to drop attacks."

D. "This type of seizure is characterized by staring into space for a few seconds."

D. "This type of seizure is characterized by staring into space for a few seconds."

A client is given intravenous diazepam for status epilepticus. For which adverse effect should the nurse monitor this client? (Select all that apply.)

A. Respiratory depression

B. Hyperactivity

C. Flatulence

D. Hypotension

E. Tachycardia

A. Respiratory depression

D. Hypotension

E. Tachycardia

The nurse is planning the care for a client with Parkinson disease. Which intervention should the nurse perform?

A. Monitor the client for the ability to chew and swallow.

B. Check peripheral circulation for thrombophlebitis.

C. Limit exercise to decrease the possibility of fractures.

D. Monitor the client for psychotic symptoms.

A. Monitor the client for the ability to chew and swallow.

The nurse is teaching about Parkinson disease. Which area of the brain should the nurse identify as the primary production site for dopamine?

A. Substantia nigra

B. Cerebral cortex

C. Medulla oblongata

D. Corpus striatum

A. Substantia nigra

A client has been prescribed a barbiturate for epilepsy. Which information should the nurse include in medication teaching?

A. "Report any palpitations because barbiturates can cause tachycardia."

B. "Barbiturates have a high potential for drug dependence, so you will be monitored closely by your healthcare provider."

C. "Barbiturates can cause diarrhea, so your healthcare provider will prescribe a medication to treat that."

D. "Check your blood pressure daily because barbiturates can cause hypertension."

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B. "Barbiturates have a high potential for drug dependence, so you will be monitored closely by your healthcare provider."

The nurse is preparing to assess a client with Parkinson disease. Which finding should the nurse recognize interferes with the client's ability to control hand movements?

Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.

Select all that apply.

A. Pill rolling

B. Tremor

C. Stooped posture

D. Lack of arm swing

E. Difficulty bending the arms

A. Pill rolling

B. Tremor

The nurse instructs a client with epilepsy. Which statement indicates to the nurse that teaching was effective?

Note: Credit will be given only if all correct choices and no incorrect choices are selected.

Select all that apply.

A. "Excessive stress levels cause disruptions in how the brain receives oxygen, leading to epilepsy."

B. "Epilepsy may be caused by a head injury."

C. "Eating disorders, like anorexia nervosa, increase the risk for developing epilepsy."

D. "A stroke, or brain attack, could increase the risk for developing epilepsy."

E. "With some cases of epilepsy, the cause is never determined."

B. "Epilepsy may be caused by a head injury."

D. "A stroke, or brain attack, could increase the risk for developing epilepsy."

E. "With some cases of epilepsy, the cause is never determined."

A client is in status epilepticus. Which medication should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this client?

A. Topiramate

B. Gabapentin

C. Valproic acid

D. Diazepam

D. Diazepam