Bloodbank Exam 2 end of chapter questions

HSC 260 Chapters 5, 6, 7

Interpret these results:

Anti A: 4+

Anti B: 4+

A1 cell: 1+

B cell: 0

c. discrepant results; patient has A antigens on red cells with anti-A in serum

What are the gene products of the A and B alleles?

d. transferase enzymes

What is the ABO interpretation of these results?

Anti-A: 0

Anti-B: 0

A1 cell: 4+

B cell: 4+

a. group O

What ABO phenotypes would be compatible if the patient required a transfusion of RBCs

Anti-A: 0

Anti-B: 0

A1 cell: 4+

B cell: 4+

d. only group O

What ABO phenotypes would be compatible if the patient required a transfusion of fresh frozen plasma?

a. group AB, O, A or B

what term describes using known sources of reagent antisera (known antibodies) to detect ABO antigens on a patient’s red cells?

d. forward grouping

Which result is discrepant if the red cell typing shown in the following chart is correct?

Anti-A: 0

Anti-B: 4+

A1 cell: 0

B cell: 0

c. negative reaction with group A1 cells

What ABO antibody is expected in this patient’s serum based on the following information?

Anti-A: 0

Anti-B: 0

c. anti-A, and anti- B

According to Landsteiner’s rule, if a patient has no ABO antibodies after serum testing, what ABO antigens are present on the patient’s red cells?

c. both A and B

Select the ABO phenotypes, in order from most frequent to least frequent, that occur in people with European ethnicities?

b. O, A, B, AB

Which of the following statements is true about ABO antibody production?

c. ABO antibodies are stimulated by bacteria and other environmental factors

What immunoglobulin class is primarily associated with ABO antibodies?

d. IgM

What immunodominant sugar confers B blood group specificity?

a. D-gatalctose

An individual has the genotype of AO, hh. What antigens would be present on the red cells of this individual?

d. none of the above

What gene controls the presence of soluble H substance in saliva?

c. Se

Which lectin agglutinates A1 red cells?

a. Dolichos biflorus

What immunodominant sugar determines the specificity of H antigens?

b. L-fucose

Which of the following situations may produce ABO discrepancies in the serum testing?

d. all of the above (newborn, patient with hypogammaglobinemia, cold alloantibody)

What soluble antigen forms are detectable in saliva based on the following genotypes: AB, HH, SeSe

c. A, B, and H

Which ABP discrepancy is the best explanation for the results shown in the following chart?

Anti-A: 4+

Anti-B: 0

A1 cell: 2+

B cell: 4+

b. subgroup of A

How is the Rh genotype DCE/ DcE written in Wiencer notation?

d. R z R2

In Rosenfield notation, the phenotype of a donor is written as Rh:1, -2, -3, 4, 5. What is the correct phenotype in Fisher-Race notation?

a. Dce

Anti-f was identified in a patient. Because commercial antisera are not available, what is the best course of action to locate compatible RBC units?

d. crossmatch c-negative units

A patient’s Rh phenotype was D+, c+, e+, C-. E-. What is the most likely race of this donor?

a. black

What test is needed to determine weak D antigen status?

a. the IAT

Which of the following red cell genotypes would react negatively with anti-G?

b. rr

What statement is true relative to the results of a weak D test performed on a patient with a positive direct antiglobulin test?

b. unreliable because of immunoglobulins already on the cell

Which item associated with the Rh null phenotype?

d. red cell membrane abnormalities

What is the name of the blood group system originall identified as the Rh blood group system?

d. LW

A donor tested D-negative using commercial anti-D reagent. The weak D test was positive. How should the RBC unit be labeled?

a. D-positive

Which offspring is not possible from a mother who is R2r and a father who is R1r?

a. DcE/ DcE

What is the usual form of antibodies produced upon exposure to Rh blood group system antigens?

b. immune IgG

Which of the following genotypes is heterozygous for the C antigen?

a. R1r

What is the likelihood that two heterozygous D-positive parents will have a D-negative child?

c. 25%

Which of the following phenotypes could make anti-Ce (Rh7)?

a. R2R2

Which of the following phenotypes would react with anti-f?

a. rr

A donor is tested with Rh antisera; given the following results, what is the most probable Rh genotype: AntiD pos, AntiC pos, AntiE neg, Anti-c pos, anti-e pos, control =

b. R1r

Anti-D was detected in the serum of a D-positive person. What is a possible explanation?

d. missing antigen epitope

An antibody to the E antigen was identified in a patient who received multiple transfusions. What is the most likely phenotype of the patient’s red cells?

c. R1r

The regulator gene RHAG:

b. is responsible for the Rh mod phenotype

Which blood group system possesses the Js b and Kp a antigens?

c. Kell

Which of the following antibodies is commonly associated with delayed transfusion reactions?

c. anti-Jk b

Which phenotype is associated with a resistance to Plasmodium vivax?

a. Fy(a-,b-)

Enzyme-treated reagent red cells used in antibody identification can enhance antibody reactions. Which of the following antibodies is not enhanced with the use of enzyme- treated red cells?

a. anti-M

Which of these antibodies are typically IgM?

Anti-N, Anti-Le b, anti-P1

Which of the following reagents destroys the Kell system antigens?

d. DTT

Which blood group system’s antigens are associated with glycophorin A and glycophorin B?

d. MNS

Which of the following antibodies is characteristically clinically insignificant?

c. anti-Le b

Which of the following red cell phenotypes is associated with the McLeod phenotype?

d. absence of Kx antigens

What statement is true regarding a phenotype of Lu(a-b-)?

c. rare in all populations

What is the common specificity of cold autoantibodies?

a. I

What alloantibody is associated with individuals possessing the p phenotype?

d. anti-Tj a

Select the alleles within the Lewis system?

a. Le,le

Which of the following antibodies requires the antiglobulin test for in vitro detection?

c. anti-U

What procedure helps distinguish between an anti-Fy a and anti-Jk a in an antibody mixture?

d. testing ficin-treated panel cells

What statement is true relative to anti-K?

a. agglutinates in IAT phases of the antibody screen

Which of the following antigens is poorly expressed on cord blood cells?

c. Le b

Reagent antibody screening cells may not detect antibodies directed against low-incidence antigens. Which antibody is most likely to go undetected?

c. Kp a

Select the disease commonly associated with the McLeod phenotype

b. chronic granulomatous disease

Which set of antibodies could you possibly find in a patient with no history of transfusion or pregnancy?

d. anti-B, anti-I, anti-Le a

What is the most likely Lewis phenotype of a nonsecretor?

c. Le(a+b=)

Anti-N is identified in a white patient who requires a blood transfusion. If 10 donor RBCs were tested, how many of these units would most likely be negative for the N antigen?

b. 3

Which antibody is neutralized by pooled human urine?

b. anti-Sd a

A donor’s red cells have a U-negative phenotype. What red cell antibody would not react with these red cells?

b. anti-S

Which of the following blood group systems is associated with a depression of these antigens in chronic granulomatous disease?

d. Kell

Which of the following cells expresses HLA class ii antigens?

a. B cells

The mixed lymphocyte culture (MLC) is an older technique in the HLA laboratory used to determine:

d. HLA-D antigens and compatibility

What term describes a poor platelet response to transfused platelets because of the presence of HLA or platelet antibodies?

b. refractory

How do patients become sensitized to HLA?

d. all! (pregnancies, blood transfusions, previous transplants)

Which of the following HLA is not characterized as class i?

c. DR